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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Mechanical Engineering

10 Chapters·1100 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BTo the right of the side view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

Hidden edges on a machine drawing are shown by:

AContinuous thick lines
BThin dashed lines
CThin chain lines
DContinuous thin lines
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The throat thickness of a fillet weld of leg size s is:

A0.5 s
Bs
C1.414 s
D0.707 s
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

According to Unwin's formula, rivet diameter d (mm) for plate thickness t (mm) is:

Ad = 2√t
Bd = 6√t
Cd = 6t
Dd = 1.5t
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of:

ALeast of tearing, shearing and crushing strengths to strength of solid plate
BStrength of solid plate to least strength
CShearing strength to crushing strength
DTearing strength to shearing strength
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A double-start thread has a pitch of 2 mm. Its lead is:

A8 mm
B2 mm
C1 mm
D4 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The thread best suited for a bench vice, where heavy axial force acts in one direction, is:

AWhitworth thread
BKnuckle thread
CButtress thread
DSquare thread
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A key which transmits torque only by friction is the:

AWoodruff key
BSunk key
CSaddle key
DFeather key
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A key that permits axial movement of the hub along the shaft is the:

ASaddle key
BGib-head key
CKennedy key
DFeather key
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The difference between the minimum size of a hole and the maximum size of the mating shaft is called:

ALimit
BDeviation
CAllowance
DTolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The fit H7/p6 is an example of:

ARunning fit
BClearance fit
CInterference fit
DTransition fit
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

On a surface-texture symbol, a horizontal bar added to the basic tick means:

ASurface must be polished to N1
BAny process may be used
CRemoval of material by machining is required
DRemoval of material is prohibited
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

Interchangeability of parts in mass production is achieved mainly by:

AHand fitting each assembly
BWelding parts together permanently
CManufacturing parts within specified limits and fits
DUsing larger tolerances than the drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

As the tolerance specified on a component is made tighter, the manufacturing cost generally:

AIncreases
BDecreases
CBecomes zero
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The property that allows a metal to be drawn into wires is:

ADuctility
BMalleability
CResilience
DHardness
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The energy absorbed by a material up to the elastic limit is called:

AToughness
BHardness
CCreep
DResilience
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In a Vickers hardness test, the indenter is a:

A10 mm steel ball
B120° diamond cone
CTungsten carbide cylinder
DSquare-based diamond pyramid of 136°
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In the Izod impact test, the specimen is held as a:

ACantilever
BFixed-fixed beam
CSimply supported beam
DColumn
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Duralumin is an alloy of aluminium mainly with:

ATin
BCopper
CNickel
DZinc
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Brass is an alloy of:

AIron and nickel
BCopper and tin
CCopper and nickel
DCopper and zinc
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The minimum chromium content for a steel to be called stainless is about:

A5%
B25%
C2%
D10.5–12%
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Fatigue failure occurs under:

AA single static load above UTS
BConstant load at high temperature
CPure compressive static load
DRepeated or fluctuating stresses below the ultimate strength
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Which process improves fatigue strength by inducing compressive residual stress?

AAnnealing
BElectroplating with chromium
CShot peening
DGrinding with a coarse wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The creep stage used as the basis for design is:

APrimary creep
BTertiary creep
CSecondary (steady-state) creep
DInstantaneous elastic strain
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In galvanic corrosion between zinc and steel, the metal that corrodes is:

ANeither
BSteel
CBoth equally
DZinc
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Dezincification of brass is an example of:

AUniform corrosion
BPitting corrosion
CSelective leaching
DFretting corrosion
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Testing of a welded pressure vessel without damaging it is carried out by:

ANon-destructive testing such as ultrasonic or radiographic testing
BFatigue testing to failure
CCharpy impact testing of the vessel
DTensile testing of the vessel
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 1100Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Value analysis of a component mainly aims to:

ATighten all tolerances
BIncrease the weight of the part
CUse the most expensive material available
DProvide the required function at the lowest total cost
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

The number of atoms per unit cell in an FCC structure is:

A1
B2
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

The atomic packing factor of a BCC structure is:

A0.52
B0.74
C0.90
D0.68
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

γ-iron (austenite) has which crystal structure?

AHCP
BBCC
CBCT
DFCC
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

In an edge dislocation, the Burgers vector is:

AParallel to the dislocation line
BAt 45° to the dislocation line
CPerpendicular to the dislocation line
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

According to Gibbs' phase rule at constant pressure, the degrees of freedom at the eutectic point of a binary alloy are:

A0
B1
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

The reaction Liquid + Solid α → Solid β on cooling is called:

AMonotectic
BEutectoid
CEutectic
DPeritectic
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

The eutectoid composition in the iron-carbon diagram is about:

A4.3% C
B2.1% C
C0.02% C
D0.8% C
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

Pearlite is a lamellar mixture of:

AAustenite and ferrite
BAustenite and cementite
CFerrite and martensite
DFerrite and cementite
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

The hardest micro-constituent obtained by rapid quenching of steel is:

APearlite
BMartensite
CFerrite
DAustenite
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

In spheroidal graphite (ductile) cast iron, graphite nodules are produced by adding:

ALead
BMagnesium or cerium
CSulphur
DPhosphorus
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

ABakelite
BNylon
CPolyethylene
DPVC
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

According to the Hall-Petch relation, decreasing grain size:

AIncreases yield strength
BHas no effect on strength
CDecreases yield strength
DOnly increases ductility and lowers strength
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

Annealing is often carried out between stages of deep drawing in order to:

AReduce the ductility of the sheet
BRemove work hardening so that further deformation is possible
CAdd carbon to the surface
DIncrease the hardness before the next draw
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Science

Replacing several machined metal parts by a single injection-moulded plastic part is attractive mainly when:

AOnly a few pieces are required
BTooling cost is ignored
CProduction volume is large enough to recover the mould cost
DThe part must carry very high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law is based on the conservation of:

AMass
BEnergy
CMomentum
DCharge
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Two 10 Ω resistors connected in parallel have an equivalent resistance of:

A10 Ω
B20 Ω
C2.5 Ω
D5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The form factor of a sinusoidal wave is:

A0.637
B1.11
C1.414
D0.707
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

In a star-connected three-phase system, line voltage equals:

APhase voltage/√3
B3 × phase voltage
C√3 × phase voltage
DPhase voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The synchronous speed of a 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor is:

A750 rpm
B1500 rpm
C1000 rpm
D3000 rpm
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rpm. Its slip is:

A1.5%
B2%
C6%
D4%
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The DC motor best suited for electric traction and cranes is the:

APermanent-magnet motor
BSeries motor
CShunt motor
DSeparately excited motor
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The direction of induced EMF in a generator is found by:

AFleming's right-hand rule
BCork-screw rule
CFleming's left-hand rule
DLenz's law only
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A transformer has maximum efficiency when:

ACopper loss equals iron loss
BCopper loss is zero
CIt runs at no load
DIron loss is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Transformer cores are laminated mainly to reduce:

AEddy-current loss
BLeakage reactance
CHysteresis loss only
DCopper loss
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A Zener diode is mainly used as a:

ARectifier
BAmplifier
CVoltage regulator
DOscillator
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

For a BJT with α = 0.98, the current gain β is:

A50
B98
C0.98
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Power-factor improvement capacitors are installed in an industrial plant mainly to:

AConvert AC into DC
BIncrease the active power consumed
CIncrease the maximum demand
DReduce line current, losses and demand (kVA) charges
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 1100Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Fitting a variable-frequency drive to a centrifugal pump saves energy because pump power varies approximately as:

AThe square root of the speed
BThe cube of the speed
CThe speed
DIt does not vary with speed
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

While operating a lathe or drilling machine, the operator should NOT:

AWear safety goggles
BUse a brush to remove chips
CStop the machine before measuring
DWear gloves or loose clothing
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The correct extinguisher for a fire on live electrical equipment is:

ASoda-acid
BWater jet
CSand mixed with water
DCO2 extinguisher
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

A micrometer with 0.5 mm pitch and 50 thimble divisions has a least count of:

A0.01 mm
B0.02 mm
C0.05 mm
D0.001 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In a lathe, the lead screw is used for:

AThread cutting
BHolding the tailstock
CRotating the chuck
DPlain turning feed
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The cutting speed when turning a 50 mm diameter bar at 200 rpm is approximately:

A31.4 m/min
B62.8 m/min
C10 m/min
D100 m/min
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

Long, gentle tapers on a lathe are best produced by:

AForm tool
BCompound rest swivelling
CKnurling
DTailstock set-over method
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The quick-return mechanism is used in a:

ADrilling machine
BLathe
CGrinding machine
DShaper
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In down (climb) milling, the cutter rotates:

APerpendicular to the feed
BIn the same direction as the feed
COpposite to the feed
DWithout any feed
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

Number of crank turns on a dividing head (40:1) to cut a 20-tooth gear is:

A0.5
B2
C40
D20
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

For grinding a very hard material, the wheel should be:

AHard grade
BOf coarsest possible grit
CMetal-bonded only
DSoft grade
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The standard point angle of a general-purpose twist drill is:

A135°
B60°
C90°
D118°
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In DC arc welding with straight polarity (DCSP), the electrode is connected to the:

AAC transformer
BEarth only
CNegative terminal
DPositive terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The oxy-acetylene flame used for welding brass is:

ANeutral flame
BOxidising flame
CReducing flame
DCarburising flame
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

A bar is turned over a length of 300 mm at a feed of 0.2 mm/rev and 500 rpm. The machining time is:

A1.5 minutes
B0.3 minute
C6 minutes
D3 minutes
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 1100Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The main industrial-engineering benefit of using jigs and fixtures is:

AElimination of inspection forever
BLonger set-up for every piece
CHigher scrap rate
DReduced cycle time and consistent quality without skilled setting
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

An organisation structure in which an employee reports to two bosses is:

ACommittee organisation
BLine organisation
CFunctional organisation
DMatrix organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Functional organisation was introduced by:

AMax Weber
BPeter Drucker
CF. W. Taylor
DHenri Fayol
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Who is known as the father of modern (administrative) management theory?

AElton Mayo
BHenri Fayol
CAbraham Maslow
DF. W. Taylor
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

The Hawthorne experiments are associated with:

AHenry Gantt
BMax Weber
CDouglas McGregor
DElton Mayo
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Management by Objectives (MBO) was popularised by:

AFrederick Herzberg
BWilliam Ouchi
CVictor Vroom
DPeter Drucker
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

In Blake and Mouton's Managerial Grid, the ideal (team management) style is:

A9,9
B5,5
C1,1
D9,1
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

The informal channel of communication in an organisation is called:

ADownward communication
BScalar chain
CGrapevine
DChain of command
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

According to Herzberg, salary and working conditions are:

AHygiene factors
BMotivators
CSelf-actualisation needs
DGrowth needs
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

The highest level need in Maslow's hierarchy is:

AEsteem
BSelf-actualisation
CSafety
DSocial
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Selection in HRM is generally called a negative process because it:

AReduces salaries
BAttracts many candidates
CRejects unsuitable candidates
DRemoves existing employees
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Fixed cost Rs 50,000, selling price Rs 25/unit, variable cost Rs 15/unit. Break-even quantity is:

A5,000 units
B10,000 units
C2,000 units
D3,333 units
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

An information system that integrates finance, HR, production and sales on a common database is:

ADSS
BExpert system
CTPS
DERP
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

The Delphi method is used for:

ATechnology forecasting using anonymous expert opinion
BPerformance appraisal
CInventory control
DPlant layout
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

Time study, standardisation of tools and methods, and the differential piece-rate system were introduced by:

AF. W. Taylor
BElton Mayo
CMax Weber
DAbraham Maslow
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1100Ch 1 · Organization Management

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, salary and working conditions are:

ASelf-actualisation needs
BMotivators that create satisfaction
CHygiene factors that prevent dissatisfaction
DTheory Y assumptions
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

A system that allows both mass and energy to cross its boundary is:

AAn adiabatic system
BAn isolated system
CA closed system
DAn open system
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Which of the following is an intensive property?

AVolume
BTemperature
CEnthalpy
DInternal energy
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Heat and work are:

APath functions
BExact differentials
CPoint functions
DProperties of the system
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis of:

AEntropy
BTemperature measurement
CInternal energy
DHeat engines
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The temperature at which Celsius and Fahrenheit scales read the same value is:

A0°
B−273°
C−40°
D40°
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The value of the universal gas constant is:

A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B8.314 kJ/kg·K
C1.005 kJ/kg·K
D8.314 kJ/kmol·K
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

For air, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg·K and cv = 0.718 kJ/kg·K. The gas constant R is:

A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B1.4 kJ/kg·K
C0.718 kJ/kg·K
D1.723 kJ/kg·K
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

A real gas behaves most like an ideal gas at:

AHigh pressure and high temperature
BHigh pressure and low temperature
CCritical point
DLow pressure and high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Dryness fraction of dry saturated steam is:

A0.5
B0
C1
DInfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Wet steam at a pressure where hf = 500 kJ/kg and hfg = 2200 kJ/kg has x = 0.9. Its enthalpy is:

A2480 kJ/kg
B2700 kJ/kg
C2200 kJ/kg
D1980 kJ/kg
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

At the critical point of water, the latent heat of vaporisation is:

AMaximum
BEqual to hg
C2257 kJ/kg
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The Mollier chart is a plot of:

AEnthalpy vs entropy
BTemperature vs entropy
CPressure vs enthalpy
DPressure vs volume
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Specific energy consumption of a plant is normally expressed as:

AEnergy consumed per unit of production
BMaximum demand in kVA
CBoiler pressure per hour
DTotal annual energy bill
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

One kilowatt-hour of energy is equal to:

A3 600 kJ
B1 000 kJ
C3 600 kW
D4 187 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

For a closed system, the first law of thermodynamics is expressed as:

AQ + W = ΔH
BQ − W = ΔS
CQ − W = ΔU
DQ = W
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of:

APressure only
BVolume only
CTemperature only
DPressure and volume
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In a constant-volume process, the work done is:

AEqual to heat supplied × γ
BP(V2 − V1)
CZero
DmRT ln(V2/V1)
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In an isothermal process of an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is:

AEqual to work done
BMaximum
CZero
DEqual to m·cp·ΔT
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

The polytropic index n for a reversible adiabatic process is:

A0
B∞
C1
Dγ
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

0.5 m³ of air at 1 bar is compressed isothermally to 0.1 m³. The work done (magnitude) is approximately:

A160 kJ
B40 kJ
C80.5 kJ
D50 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

During a throttling process, which property remains constant?

AEnthalpy
BPressure
CTemperature (for steam)
DEntropy
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

Steam enters a nozzle with negligible velocity and an enthalpy drop of 100 kJ/kg. The exit velocity is about:

A44.7 m/s
B447 m/s
C1000 m/s
D100 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In an adiabatic steam turbine with negligible KE and PE changes, work output per kg equals:

Ah1 − h2
BZero
Ch2 − h1
Du1 − u2
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

A perpetual motion machine of the first kind violates:

AThe first law of thermodynamics
BThe zeroth law
CThe third law
DThe second law
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

Air is freely expanded into an insulated vacuum. For the air:

AQ = 0, W > 0, ΔU < 0
BQ > 0, W = 0, ΔU > 0
CQ = W, ΔU = 0 only if reversible
DQ = 0, W = 0, ΔU = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

When an evacuated, insulated rigid tank is filled with an ideal gas from a supply line at Tline, the final gas temperature is:

AZero
BTline
CTline/γ
Dγ·Tline
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

The indirect (heat-loss) method of finding boiler efficiency is preferred because it:

AAlways gives a higher efficiency
BNeeds no measurement
CIgnores flue-gas temperature
DShows where the individual losses occur
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1100Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

An economiser in a boiler plant recovers waste heat to:

ARaise the steam pressure directly
BPre-heat the lubricating oil
CPre-heat the feed water using flue gases
DCool the flue gas with fresh fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The Kelvin-Planck statement implies that:

AEntropy of the universe decreases
BHeat always flows from cold to hot
CNo heat engine can have 100% thermal efficiency
DEnergy can be created
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A perpetual motion machine of the second kind violates:

ALaw of conservation of mass
BFirst law of thermodynamics
CKelvin-Planck statement
DZeroth law
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A Carnot engine works between 527 °C and 27 °C. Its efficiency is:

A62.5%
B37.5%
C94.9%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The Carnot cycle consists of:

ATwo isothermal and two isochoric processes
BTwo isobaric and two isentropic processes
CTwo reversible isothermal and two reversible adiabatic processes
DTwo isochoric and two isentropic processes
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:

ASource and sink temperatures only
BThe engine size
CThe working fluid
DThe pressure ratio only
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A refrigerator operates between −3 °C and 27 °C. Its maximum (Carnot) COP is:

A10
B1.11
C9
D0.9
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

For the same temperature limits, COP of a heat pump is related to COP of a refrigerator by:

ACOPHP = COPR
BCOPHP = 1/COPR
CCOPHP = COPR − 1
DCOPHP = COPR + 1
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Which of the following is NOT a cause of irreversibility?

AHeat transfer through a finite temperature difference
BFriction
CQuasi-static frictionless compression
DFree expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

For an irreversible cycle, the Clausius inequality gives ∮δQ/T:

A= ∞
B= 0
C> 0
D< 0
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The entropy of an isolated system undergoing a real process:

AMay increase or decrease
BAlways increases
CAlways decreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

An isentropic process is:

AReversible and isothermal
BConstant enthalpy
CIrreversible and adiabatic
DReversible and adiabatic
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Isentropic efficiency of a compressor is defined as:

A(h1 − h2a)/(h1 − h2s)
B(h2a − h1)/(h2s − h1)
C(h2s − h1)/(h2a − h1)
Dh2s/h2a
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

One tonne of refrigeration is equal to:

A1 kW
B100 kcal/h
C3.5 kW of refrigerating effect
D3 600 kJ/h
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1100Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Cogeneration (combined heat and power) raises overall energy utilisation because it:

AEliminates the second law of thermodynamics
BProduces work without fuel
CIncreases the condenser temperature only
DUses the rejected heat of power generation for process heating
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The Otto cycle consists of two isentropic processes and two:

AConstant-volume processes
BIsothermal processes
CConstant-enthalpy processes
DConstant-pressure processes
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The air-standard efficiency of an Otto cycle with r = 8 and γ = 1.4 is approximately:

A65%
B40%
C56.5%
D87.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

For the same compression ratio and heat input, the most efficient cycle is:

ADual
BAll equal
COtto
DDiesel
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

For the same maximum pressure and temperature, the most efficient cycle is:

ADual
BDiesel
CBrayton
DOtto
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The efficiency of a Diesel cycle, for a fixed compression ratio, increases when:

ACut-off ratio increases
BCut-off ratio decreases
Cγ decreases
DLoad increases
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The Brayton cycle is the ideal cycle for:

ASteam power plants
BVapour absorption refrigerators
CGas turbines
DPetrol engines
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The efficiency of an ideal Brayton cycle depends on:

AWorking fluid mass
BPressure ratio only
CHeat supplied only
DMaximum temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a Rankine cycle, the process in the condenser is:

AThrottling
BConstant-pressure heat rejection
CConstant-volume heat addition
DIsentropic expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

Reheating in a Rankine cycle is mainly used to:

AReduce pump work
BIncrease condenser pressure
CReduce moisture content at turbine exhaust
DReduce boiler pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the expansion process is:

AIsenthalpic (throttling)
BIsochoric
CIsothermal
DIsentropic
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

One ton of refrigeration is equal to about:

A3.5 kW
B211 kW
C1 kW
D12 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a lithium bromide–water absorption system, the refrigerant is:

AHydrogen
BAmmonia
CWater
DLithium bromide
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

A back-pressure steam turbine is used in industry mainly to:

AProduce refrigeration directly
BCompress air for the plant
CGenerate power while supplying exhaust steam for process heating
DCondense all the steam at vacuum
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

A vapour-absorption refrigeration system is attractive in a plant that has:

AVery low cooling demand only
BOnly surplus electricity
CCheap waste heat or process steam available
DNo heat source at all
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a four-stroke engine, the number of power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft is:

A4
B1
C2
D0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The camshaft of a four-stroke engine rotates at:

AHalf the crankshaft speed
BFour times the crankshaft speed
CTwice the crankshaft speed
DThe crankshaft speed
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a CI engine, fuel is ignited by:

AA glow plug during normal running
BHeat of compressed air
CA spark plug
DA magneto
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The typical compression ratio of a diesel engine is:

A6–10
B4–6
C30–40
D14–22
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

Load in an SI engine is controlled by varying the quantity of mixture using the throttle. This is called:

AHit-and-miss governing
BQuality governing
CQuantity governing
DCombination governing
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The anti-knock quality of petrol is expressed by:

AFlash point
BCalorific value
COctane number
DCetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

To reduce knocking in a CI engine, one should:

AUse a fuel with high cetane number
BLower the compression ratio
CReduce intake air temperature
DUse a fuel with high octane number
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

Engine swept volume 500 cc and clearance volume 50 cc. The compression ratio is:

A10
B11
C12
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

An engine has IP = 50 kW and BP = 40 kW. Its mechanical efficiency is:

A125%
B90%
C20%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a two-stroke petrol engine, the ports are opened and closed by:

AThe piston
BPoppet valves
CThe camshaft
DThe spark plug
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The component that converts reciprocating motion of the piston to rotary motion is the:

AConnecting rod and crank
BGudgeon pin
CFlywheel
DCamshaft
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The function of a flywheel in an IC engine is to:

AIncrease fuel economy by 50%
BReduce fluctuation of speed during a cycle
COperate the valves
DControl the mean speed with load
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

A diesel generating set gives its best specific fuel consumption when loaded to about:

ANo load
B60–80% of its rating
C10–20% of its rating
DExactly 100% continuously
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1100Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In selecting the rating of a DG set for a factory, the most important additional consideration beyond the running load is:

AThe number of employees
BThe floor area of the store
CThe colour of the enclosure
DStarting (inrush) current of the largest motor
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Summer air-conditioning generally involves:

AHeating and humidification
BHeating and dehumidification
CCooling and humidification
DCooling and dehumidification
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

In a fire-tube boiler:

ANo tubes are used
BSteam passes through tubes
CHot gases pass through tubes surrounded by water
DWater passes through tubes surrounded by hot gases
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Which of the following is a water-tube boiler?

ACochran boiler
BLancashire boiler
CBabcock and Wilcox boiler
DLocomotive boiler
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

The Benson boiler is characterised by:

AA single large flue tube
BNatural circulation at low pressure
CBeing a fire-tube boiler
DOperation at supercritical pressure without a steam drum
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

An economiser in a boiler is used to:

APreheat feedwater using flue gases
BHeat combustion air
CRelease excess pressure
DSuperheat steam
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Which of the following is a boiler mounting (not an accessory)?

AFusible plug
BEconomiser
CAir preheater
DSuperheater
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

For minimum work in a two-stage air compressor with perfect intercooling, compressing from 1 bar to 16 bar, the intermediate pressure is:

A8 bar
B2 bar
C8.5 bar
D4 bar
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

The work required for compressing air is minimum when compression is:

APolytropic with n = 1.3
BAdiabatic
CIsochoric
DIsothermal
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Refrigerant R-717 is:

ACarbon dioxide
BAmmonia
CWater
DFreon-12
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

R-134a replaced R-12 mainly because R-134a has:

AZero ozone depletion potential
BLower cost than all refrigerants
CZero global warming potential
DHigher toxicity
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

For saturated air:

ADBT > WBT > DPT
BDBT < WBT < DPT
CWBT = 0
DDBT = WBT = DPT
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

During evaporative cooling (desert cooler), which remains approximately constant?

AWet-bulb temperature
BSpecific humidity
CDry-bulb temperature
DRelative humidity
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Specific humidity of moist air is given by:

A0.622 ps/P
B(P − pv)/pv
Cpv/ps
D0.622 pv/(P − pv)
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

In a compressed-air system, reducing the compressor discharge pressure by 1 bar typically saves about:

AOnly pipe cost
B50% of compressor power
CNo power at all
D6–8% of compressor power
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1100Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Humidity control is essential in a textile spinning mill mainly because:

AHumidity has no effect on yarn
BIt reduces electricity cost
CHigh humidity increases machine speed
DLow humidity causes static and yarn breakage
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid is a substance that:

AHas zero viscosity
BAlways flows in a laminar manner
CCannot be compressed
DDeforms continuously under the action of a shear stress, however small
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The no-slip condition states that at a solid wall the fluid:

AHas maximum velocity
BHas zero pressure
CHas zero velocity relative to the wall
DSlips with free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The Eulerian method of describing fluid flow:

AFollows each fluid particle along its path
BIs applicable only to solids
CObserves flow properties at fixed points in space
DIgnores velocity field
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

One poise is equal to:

A1 N·s/m²
B0.1 N·s/m²
C0.01 N·s/m²
D10 N·s/m²
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of a liquid:

AFirst increases then decreases
BIncreases
CDecreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Blood and paints are examples of:

APseudoplastic (shear-thinning) fluids
BIdeal fluids
CDilatant fluids
DNewtonian fluids
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid which requires a minimum yield stress before it flows, like toothpaste, is a:

ABingham plastic
BNewtonian fluid
CDilatant fluid
DThixotropic fluid only
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of diameter d is:

Aσ/d
B4σ/d
C2σ/d
D8σ/d
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Mercury in a clean glass capillary tube shows:

ACapillary rise
BCapillary depression (falls)
CNo change in level
DRise equal to water
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Standard atmospheric pressure is equivalent to a water column of about:

A0.76 m
B10.33 m
C13.6 m
D1.033 m
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A piezometer cannot be used to measure:

APressure in a water pipe
BGauge pressure of liquid
CGas pressure and vacuum pressure
DLow positive pressure of water
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

For a vertical rectangular gate of depth d with its top at the free surface, the centre of pressure is at depth:

A2d/3
Bd/3
Cd/2
D3d/4
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid such as sewage sludge or toothpaste, which needs a minimum shear stress before it begins to flow, is called a:

ADilatant fluid
BNewtonian fluid
CIdeal fluid
DBingham plastic
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A rising differential pressure across an industrial filter or bag house indicates that:

AThe fan has stopped
BThe fluid has become less viscous
CThe filter is getting clogged and needs cleaning
DFlow rate is increasing
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

A flow in which velocity at a point does not change with time is called:

ASteady flow
BUniform flow
CLaminar flow
DIrrotational flow
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Flow through a long straight pipe of constant diameter at a constant rate is:

ASteady non-uniform flow
BUnsteady non-uniform flow
CSteady uniform flow
DUnsteady uniform flow
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Reynolds number is the ratio of:

AInertia force to gravity force
BInertia force to viscous force
CPressure force to inertia force
DViscous force to surface tension
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Flow in a circular pipe is generally laminar when the Reynolds number is less than about:

A10000
B5 × 10⁵
C4000
D2000
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Water (ν = 1 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s) flows at 0.1 m/s in a 10 mm pipe. The flow is:

ATurbulent (Re = 10000)
BTurbulent (Re = 100000)
CTransitional (Re = 3000)
DLaminar (Re = 1000)
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Air flow may be treated as incompressible when the Mach number is less than about:

A5
B0.3
C1.0
D0.8
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The line traced by dye injected continuously at a fixed point in a flow is a:

AStreamline
BEquipotential line
CStreakline
DPathline
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In steady flow, streamlines, pathlines and streaklines:

ANever meet
BAre perpendicular
CCoincide
DForm a flow net
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The stream function ψ exists for:

AUnsteady flow only
BTwo-dimensional incompressible flow (rotational or irrotational)
CIrrotational flow only
DThree-dimensional compressible flow only
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The velocity potential function exists only when the flow is:

AIrrotational
BViscous
CRotational
DUnsteady
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Streamlines and equipotential lines intersect each other at:

A0° (parallel)
B90°
C60°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In a free vortex flow, velocity varies with radius as:

AV is constant
BV × r = constant
CV = ωr
DV × r² = constant
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Turbulent flow is generally desirable in a heat exchanger because it:

AMakes the flow laminar
BReduces the pressure drop
CEliminates fouling completely
DIncreases the heat-transfer coefficient by mixing
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1100Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Sudden closing of a valve in a long water pipeline causes:

AA steady drop in pressure
BNo pressure change
CWater hammer (pressure surge)
DCavitation in the tank only
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Bernoulli's equation is based on the conservation of:

AMomentum
BAngular momentum
CEnergy
DMass
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Which is NOT an assumption of Bernoulli's equation?

AFlow is steady
BFluid is incompressible
CThe fluid is viscous
DFlow is along a streamline
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Water flows from a 200 mm pipe into a 100 mm pipe. If velocity in the larger pipe is 1 m/s, velocity in the smaller pipe is:

A0.25 m/s
B2 m/s
C8 m/s
D4 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter is about:

A1.2
B0.62
C0.5
D0.98
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

A pitot tube is used to measure:

ADischarge in open channels directly
BViscosity
CPressure difference in pipes only
DVelocity of flow at a point
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The theoretical velocity of a jet from an orifice under a head of 5 m is about:

A3.1 m/s
B9.9 m/s
C5 m/s
D49 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

For a sharp-edged orifice, Cd = Cc × Cv is approximately:

A0.85
B1.0
C0.98
D0.62
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Discharge over a triangular notch is proportional to:

AH1/2
BH²
CH3/2
DH5/2
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The force exerted by a jet on a stationary flat plate held normal to it is:

Aρa(V − u)²
BρaV²/2
C2ρaV²
DρaV²
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

According to Buckingham's π-theorem, a problem with 7 variables and 3 fundamental dimensions has:

A4 π-terms
B3 π-terms
C10 π-terms
D7 π-terms
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Ship models and spillway models are designed using:

AReynolds model law
BFroude model law
CMach model law
DWeber model law
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

In a Froude-scaled model with length ratio 1:25, the discharge ratio (model/prototype) is:

A1:25
B1:3125
C1:625
D1:125
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Compared with an orifice plate, a venturi meter has:

ANo need for a pressure difference
BA much lower permanent pressure loss
CA lower installation cost
DA higher permanent pressure loss
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The flow meter that measures mass flow rate directly and is used for costly process fluids is the:

AOrifice meter
BCoriolis meter
CPitot tube
DRotameter
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For laminar flow in a circular pipe, the maximum velocity is:

AEqual to the average velocity
B1.5 times the average velocity
C1.2 times the average velocity
D2 times the average velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The friction factor for laminar flow in a pipe at Re = 1600 is:

A0.4
B0.016
C0.04
D0.064
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

In laminar pipe flow, the shear stress is:

AConstant across the section
BMaximum at the centre
CZero at the centre and maximum at the wall
DZero at the wall
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

According to Hagen-Poiseuille, for a given pressure drop the discharge through a pipe varies as:

AD²
BD⁴
CD
DD⁵
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, umax/Vavg is:

A2
B1
C1.5
D1.2
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The Darcy-Weisbach equation gives head loss as:

AfLV²/(2gD)
BfL²V/(2gD)
CfLV/(2gD)
D32μVL/D²
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For pipes connected in parallel:

AHead loss in each pipe is the same
BDischarge in each pipe is the same
CTotal head loss is the sum of individual losses
DVelocity in each pipe is the same
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The head loss due to sudden expansion from velocity V1 to V2 is:

A0.5 V2²/2g
BV1²/2g
C(V1² − V2²)/2g
D(V1 − V2)²/2g
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the friction head loss equals:

AThe total head
BOne-third of the total head
CTwo-thirds of the total head
DHalf of the total head
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the wall where velocity reaches:

AThe free-stream velocity exactly
BZero
C50% of free-stream velocity
D99% of free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For a laminar boundary layer on a flat plate, thickness varies with distance x as:

Ax1/2
Bx4/5
Cx
Dx²
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Flow separation occurs when:

APressure gradient is adverse (dp/dx > 0) and wall shear becomes zero
BReynolds number is very low only
CPressure gradient is favourable (dp/dx < 0)
DFlow is irrotational
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Controlling the flow of a centrifugal pump by throttling a discharge valve is inefficient because it:

AEliminates friction losses
BIncreases the pump efficiency
CReduces the pump speed
DWastes energy as pressure drop across the valve
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1100Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Frictional head loss in a pipe carrying a given fluid varies approximately with:

AThe velocity
BThe square root of velocity
CThe pipe length only
DThe square of the mean velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A Pelton wheel is a:

ARadial-flow reaction turbine
BAxial-flow reaction turbine
CTangential-flow impulse turbine
DMixed-flow impulse turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A Kaplan turbine is best suited for:

AMedium head and medium discharge
BVery high head only
CLow head and large discharge
DHigh head and small discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Which turbine is most suitable for a head of 500 m?

AFrancis turbine only
BPelton wheel
CPropeller turbine
DKaplan turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The specific speed of a turbine is given by:

AN√P / H5/4
BN P / H5/4
CN√Q / H3/4
DN√P / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

In a Pelton wheel, the flow of water is regulated by:

ADraft tube
BAdjustable runner blades
CSpear (needle) in the nozzle
DGuide vanes
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The function of the casing of a Pelton wheel is to:

APrevent splashing and guide water to the tailrace (no hydraulic function)
BConvert pressure energy into kinetic energy
CRegulate the flow
DCreate suction head
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

In a Francis turbine, the guide vanes (wicket gates) serve to:

ARecover kinetic energy at exit
BRegulate flow and direct water onto runner at correct angle
CSupport the generator
DConvert all head into velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Double regulation (adjustable guide vanes and runner blades) is a feature of the:

AKaplan turbine
BPropeller turbine
CFrancis turbine
DPelton wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The main function of a turbine governor is to:

AReduce the specific speed
BIncrease the head
CPrevent cavitation
DKeep the speed of the turbine constant under varying load
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Cavitation in a reaction turbine is most likely at the:

ARunner blade outlet / draft tube inlet
BTailrace outlet
CSpiral casing inlet
DPenstock entrance
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A draft tube is used in:

AReaction turbines only
BReciprocating pumps
CBoth Pelton and Francis turbines
DImpulse turbines only
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The cone angle of a conical draft tube should not exceed about:

A20°
B30°
C45°
D8°
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The turbine most widely used in Nepali micro-hydro schemes because it is simple and can be made locally is the:

AKaplan turbine
BBulb turbine
CCross-flow (Banki-Mitchell) turbine
DGas turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1100Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Cavitation in a hydraulic machine occurs when the local pressure falls:

ABelow the discharge pressure only
BBelow atmospheric but above vapour pressure
CAbove atmospheric pressure
DBelow the vapour pressure of the liquid
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

A centrifugal pump works on the principle of:

AImpulse only
BFree vortex
CForced vortex
DPositive displacement
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

The most commonly used impeller blade shape in centrifugal pumps is:

AForward-curved
BStraight axial
CRadial
DBackward-curved
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

Priming of a centrifugal pump is necessary because:

AIt reduces the speed of the pump
BIt lubricates the bearings
CIt increases the vapour pressure
DThe head developed depends on the density of the fluid in the impeller
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

Which pump does NOT require priming?

ACentrifugal pump
BAxial-flow pump
CReciprocating pump
DMixed-flow pump
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

A centrifugal pump should be started with the delivery valve:

AHalf open
BRemoved
CClosed
DFully open
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

To avoid cavitation in a pump:

ALiquid temperature must be raised
BNPSH required must exceed NPSH available
CSuction lift must be maximised
DNPSH available must exceed NPSH required
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

Which action INCREASES the available NPSH?

AIncreasing suction lift
BHeating the liquid
CUsing a smaller suction pipe
DLowering the pump relative to the sump
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the head developed becomes:

AHalf
B2 times
C8 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

If pump speed is doubled, the power required becomes:

A16 times
B8 times
C2 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

Two identical pumps connected in parallel will:

ADouble the head at the same discharge
BReduce the discharge
CHave no effect
DIncrease the discharge at the same head
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

The specific speed of a pump is given by:

AN√Q / H3/4
BN√Q / H5/4
CN√P / H5/4
DN Q / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

Negative slip in a reciprocating pump means:

AActual discharge exceeds theoretical discharge
BValves are leaking badly
CActual discharge is less than theoretical
DThe pump is not primed
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

According to the affinity laws, if the speed of a centrifugal pump is reduced to half, the power required becomes about:

AOne-half
BOne-quarter
COne-eighth
DDouble
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1100Ch 3 · Pumps

A pump running far away from its best efficiency point typically suffers:

AVibration, recirculation and early seal or bearing failure
BNo effect at all
CHigher efficiency
DLower power consumption always
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The principle of transmissibility of forces is applicable to:

ADeformable bodies only
BRigid bodies only
CBoth rigid and deformable bodies
DFluids only
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

Lami's theorem applies to:

AThree concurrent coplanar forces in equilibrium
BNon-concurrent forces
CAny number of parallel forces
DTwo forces in equilibrium
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The moment of a couple about any point in its plane is:

AMaximum at the centre of the couple
BZero
CConstant and equal to force × arm
DDependent on the point chosen
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

A hinged (pin) support in a 2-D structure provides:

AOnly a moment
BOne reaction component
CThree reaction components
DTwo reaction components
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles. Their resultant is:

A1 N
B7 N
C5 N
D12 N
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The angle of repose is equal to:

AZero for rough surfaces
B90° minus the angle of friction
CThe angle of friction
DTwice the angle of friction
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The force of friction between two dry surfaces is:

ADirectly proportional to the area of contact
BGreater for kinetic than static friction
CIndependent of the apparent area of contact
DIndependent of the normal reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

D'Alembert's principle converts a dynamic problem into:

AA problem of static equilibrium by adding inertia force
BA problem of kinematics only
CA problem without mass
DAn energy problem
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is obtained when it is projected at:

A90°
B30°
C45°
D60°
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The work-energy theorem states that the net work done on a body equals the change in its:

AImpulse
BMomentum
CPotential energy
DKinetic energy
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

A ball dropped from 4 m rebounds to 1 m. The coefficient of restitution is:

A0.75
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

In a perfectly plastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is:

AInfinity
B1
C0.5
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The tension ratio of a flat belt about to slip on a pulley is given by:

AT1/T2 = μθ
BT1/T2 = eμθ
CT1 − T2 = μW
DT1T2 = eμ
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1100Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

As the included angle between two sling legs lifting a load increases, the tension in each sling:

ARemains the same
BIncreases
CDecreases
DBecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Hooke's law is valid up to the:

AProportional limit
BBreaking point
CUltimate stress
DYield point
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A steel bar 2 m long, area 100 mm², carries 20 kN. With E = 200 GPa, the elongation is:

A2 mm
B20 mm
C0.2 mm
D1 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The elongation of a bar hanging under its own weight W is:

AWL/(AE)
B2WL/(AE)
CWL/(2AE)
DWL/(4AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A bar is fully restrained and heated by ΔT. The thermal stress is:

AαLΔT
BEαΔT, independent of length
CEαΔT/L
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The theoretical maximum value of Poisson's ratio for an isotropic material is:

A0.33
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The relation between E, G and μ is:

AE = 3G(1 − 2μ)
BE = 2G(1 + μ)
CE = G(1 + 2μ)
DE = 2G(1 − μ)
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

If E = 200 GPa and μ = 0.25, the modulus of rigidity G is:

A80 GPa
B100 GPa
C50 GPa
D160 GPa
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Volumetric strain of a rectangular bar subjected to axial load P is:

Aε(1 − 2μ)
Bε(1 + 2μ)
Cε(1 − μ)
D3ε
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

For a material with Poisson's ratio 0.5, the bulk modulus is:

AEqual to E
BInfinite
CZero
DEqual to G
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The strain energy stored in a bar under axial load P is:

AP²L/(2AE)
BPL/(2AE)
CPL²/(2AE)
DP²L/(AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The maximum stress due to a suddenly applied load compared to the same load applied gradually is:

AFour times
BTwice
CHalf
DEqual
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Modulus of resilience is:

ATotal strain energy up to fracture
BRatio of stress to strain
CStrain energy per unit volume up to the elastic limit
DArea under the entire stress-strain curve
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A load applied suddenly (but without impact velocity) produces a stress approximately:

AEqual to the gradually applied stress
BHalf the gradually applied stress
CTwice the stress of the same load applied gradually
DTen times the stress
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The factor of safety used for lifting equipment such as chains and slings is usually:

AAlways exactly 1
BZero
CLower than for static members
DMuch higher than for static structural members
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The centroid of a triangle of height h lies at a distance from its base of:

Ah/4
Bh/3
C2h/3
Dh/2
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The centroid of a semicircular area of radius r from its diameter is:

A3r/8
B4r/(3π)
C2r/π
Dr/2
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The moment of inertia of a rectangle b × d about its base is:

Abd³/3
Bdb³/12
Cbd³/12
Dbd³/36
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is:

Aπd³/16
Bπd⁴/64
Cπd³/32
Dπd⁴/32
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

Bending moment in a beam is maximum where the shear force:

AIs equal to the load
BIs constant
CIs maximum
DIs zero or changes sign
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A simply supported beam of span L carries a UDL w. The maximum bending moment is:

AwL²/12
BwL²/2
CwL²/4
DwL²/8
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A cantilever of length L carries a point load W at the free end. The maximum deflection is:

AWL³/48EI
B5WL³/384EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/8EI
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam with a central point load W is:

A5WL³/384EI
BWL³/192EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/48EI
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

For a rectangular beam section, the maximum shear stress is:

AEqual to the average shear stress
B4/3 times the average shear stress
C2 times the average shear stress
D1.5 times the average shear stress
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A plane truss with j joints is perfect if the number of members m is:

Aj − 3
B2j − 3
C3j − 2
D2j + 3
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of diameter d transmitting torque T is:

A16T/(πd⁴)
BT/(πd³)
C16T/(πd³)
D32T/(πd³)
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A shaft subjected to bending moment M and torque T has an equivalent torque of:

A½[M + √(M² + T²)]
B√(M² + T²)
C√(M² − T²)
DM + T
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A shaft transmitting 15 kW at 300 rpm carries a torque of about:

A48 N·m
B4 780 N·m
C478 N·m
D150 N·m
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1100Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The load capacity of a pallet-rack beam is often limited not by stress but by:

AAllowable deflection
BNumber of pallets stored in the plant
CRack height only
DColour of the paint
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Which of the following is a higher pair?

ACam and follower
BPiston and cylinder
CShaft in a bearing
DNut and screw
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

A kinematic chain becomes a mechanism when:

AAll links are fixed
BOne of its links is fixed
CIt transmits no motion
DIt has no links fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

According to Kutzbach's criterion, a planar linkage with 4 links and 4 binary lower pairs has DOF:

A1
B0
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

A planar linkage has 5 links and 6 binary joints. Its degree of freedom is:

A−1
B0 (structure)
C2
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Grashof's law for a four-bar chain having at least one fully rotating link is:

As + p ≤ l + q
Bs × l ≤ p × q
Cs + l ≥ p + q
Ds + l ≤ p + q
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Whitworth quick-return mechanism is an inversion of the single slider-crank chain obtained by fixing the:

AConnecting rod
BCylinder (frame)
CCrank
DSlider
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

An elliptical trammel is an inversion of the:

ASingle slider-crank chain
BGear train
CDouble slider-crank chain
DFour-bar chain
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The number of instantaneous centres in a six-link mechanism is:

A6
B30
C12
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Kennedy's theorem states that the three instantaneous centres of three bodies in relative motion:

ACoincide
BLie on a straight line
CForm an equilateral triangle
DLie on a circle
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Coriolis component of acceleration is present in:

ASimple pendulum
BSlider-crank with fixed cylinder only
CCrank and slotted lever quick-return mechanism
DFour-bar mechanism with pin joints only
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Oldham's coupling is used to connect two shafts that are:

ACoaxial and rigidly joined
BParallel with a small lateral offset
CPerpendicular and non-intersecting
DIntersecting at an angle
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Ackermann steering gear is preferred over the Davis steering gear because it:

ANeeds no linkage
BUses only turning pairs, so has less friction and wear
CIs exact at all positions
DUses sliding pairs
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The mechanism that gives a very large mechanical advantage near the end of its stroke, used in presses and clamping devices, is the:

AOldham coupling
BToggle mechanism
CPantograph
DScotch yoke
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1100Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The quick-return motion of a shaper is obtained from a:

ACam and follower
BWorm and worm wheel
CSimple four-bar chain with equal links
DCrank and slotted-lever mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The gyroscopic couple on a body spinning with angular velocity ω and precessing with ωp is:

AIωωp
BIω/ωp
CIωp²
DIω²
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A ship's rolling motion produces:

APitching effect
BNo gyroscopic effect
CMaximum gyroscopic couple
DSteering effect
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The function of a governor is to:

ABalance reciprocating masses
BReduce speed fluctuations within a cycle
CControl the mean speed of the engine according to load
DStore energy
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A governor is said to be isochronous when:

AIts equilibrium speed is the same for all radii of rotation
BIts radius increases with speed
CIt has maximum friction
DIt is spring loaded
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The height of a Watt governor running at 60 rpm is approximately:

A0.5 m
B0.1 m
C0.25 m
D1 m
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is:

AIω²Cs
BIω Cs
C½Iω²
DIω²/Cs
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

For complete dynamic balancing of several rotating masses in different planes:

AΣm = 0
BΣmr = 0 and Σmrl = 0
COnly Σmrl = 0
DOnly Σmr = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The frequency of the secondary unbalanced force of a reciprocating engine is:

AEqual to the crank speed
BFour times the crank speed
CTwice the crank speed
DHalf the crank speed
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

For high-speed cams, the preferred follower motion is:

ACycloidal motion
BSimple harmonic motion
CUniform acceleration and retardation
DUniform velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

In a cross-belt drive, the driven pulley rotates:

AIn the direction opposite to the driver
BIn the same direction as the driver
COnly when slip is zero
DAt the same speed always
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

Power transmitted by a belt is maximum when centrifugal tension equals:

AHalf of the maximum tension
BThe maximum tension
CTwo-thirds of the maximum tension
DOne-third of the maximum tension
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A gear train in which the first and last gears are on the same axis is a:

AEpicyclic gear train
BWorm gear train
CReverted gear train
DSimple gear train
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The standard pressure angle of modern involute gears is:

A20°
B25°
C14.5°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A flywheel is fitted to a punching press mainly to:

ASupply the large energy needed during punching so that a smaller motor can be used
BReduce the press capacity
CReplace the clutch
DIncrease the punch force indefinitely
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A worm gear reducer used for continuous duty is often avoided in energy-saving projects because:

AIt cannot give a high speed ratio
BIts efficiency is lower than that of a helical reducer
CIt is always noisier than gears
DIt cannot transmit torque
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

On principal planes, the shear stress is:

AHalf the normal stress
BZero
CEqual to normal stress
DMaximum
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The maximum shear stress planes are inclined to the principal planes at:

A45°
B90°
C0°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

For σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa and τxy = 40 MPa, the maximum principal stress is:

A100 MPa
B80 MPa
C120 MPa
D50 MPa
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a state of pure shear τ, the principal stresses are:

A+τ and 0
Bτ/2 and −τ/2
C+τ and −τ
D2τ and 0
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The theory of failure most suitable for brittle materials is:

ATotal strain energy theory
BMaximum principal stress theory (Rankine)
CMaximum shear stress theory
DDistortion energy theory
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

According to the von Mises (distortion energy) theory, the shear yield strength is:

A0.5 σy
Bσy
C0.707 σy
D0.577 σy
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

Which of the following is statically indeterminate?

ACantilever
BSimply supported beam
COverhanging beam
DPropped cantilever
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The effective length of a column with both ends fixed (actual length L) is:

AL
B2L
CL/2
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thin cylindrical shell under internal pressure, hoop stress is:

AEqual to the longitudinal stress
BTwice the longitudinal stress
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DFour times the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

A cylinder is treated as thin when its wall thickness is less than about:

AEqual to its diameter
B1/20 of its diameter
C1/2 of its diameter
D1/5 of its diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thick cylinder under internal pressure, the maximum hoop stress occurs at the:

AMid-length only
BInner surface
COuter surface
DMean radius
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

For a rectangular shaft under torsion, the maximum shear stress occurs at the:

AMiddle of the longer side
BCentre of the section
CMiddle of the shorter side
DCorners
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, the hoop stress is:

ATwice the longitudinal stress
BZero
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DEqual to the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1100Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

Replacing an open channel section of a machine frame by a closed box section mainly improves its:

ATorsional stiffness
BBending flexibility
CWeight only
DSurface finish
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Which pattern allowance is negative?

AMachining allowance
BShrinkage allowance
CDraft allowance
DShake (rapping) allowance
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Draft allowance is provided on patterns to:

AAllow for machining
BEnable easy withdrawal of the pattern from the mould
CPrevent warping of the casting
DCompensate for metal shrinkage
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Low permeability of moulding sand mainly causes:

ABlowholes
BSwell
CMisrun
DShift
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Chaplets in a mould are used to:

ASupport cores and they fuse with the casting
BSpeed up cooling locally
CIncrease permeability
DFeed molten metal
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

The sprue in a gating system is tapered downwards to:

APrevent aspiration of air
BReduce the height of the mould
CIncrease pouring time
DTrap slag
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

According to Chvorinov's rule, solidification time is proportional to:

A(Volume/Surface area)²
BVolume/Surface area
CVolume only
DSurface area/Volume
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Grey cast iron is usually melted in a:

AReverberatory furnace only
BBessemer converter
CCupola
DCrucible furnace only
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Turbine blades and jewellery are generally produced by:

AInvestment casting
BSlush casting
CCentrifugal casting
DSand casting
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Hot-chamber die casting is suitable for:

AAluminium alloys
BZinc alloys
CCopper alloys
DSteel
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Cast iron pipes are best produced by:

AInvestment casting
BShell moulding
CSlush casting
DTrue centrifugal casting
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

A casting defect caused when two streams of metal meet but fail to fuse is:

AScab
BBlowhole
CHot tear
DCold shut
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1100Ch 5 · Foundry

Hot tears in castings are mainly caused by:

AHigh permeability of sand
BHindered contraction due to poor collapsibility
CExcessive draft
DUse of chills
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

In full annealing, steel is cooled:

ABy oil quenching
BSlowly in the furnace
CIn still air
DBy water quenching
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Normalising differs from annealing mainly in that the steel is:

ACooled in the furnace
BHeated below A1
CQuenched in water
DCooled in still air
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

The structure obtained by quenching steel from the austenitic range is:

APearlite
BMartensite
CFerrite
DSpheroidite
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

The purpose of tempering hardened steel is to:

ARefine grain by recrystallisation
BIncrease hardness further
CAdd carbon to the surface
DReduce brittleness and increase toughness
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Hardenability of steel is measured by the:

ACharpy test
BErichsen cupping test
CJominy end-quench test
DBrinell test
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Austempering produces a structure of:

ACoarse pearlite
BMartensite
CBainite
DAustenite
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Which case-hardening process does NOT require quenching after treatment?

ACyaniding
BNitriding
CCarburising
DFlame hardening
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Cyaniding is carried out in a bath of:

ASodium cyanide
BCharcoal and barium carbonate
CMolten lead
DAmmonia gas
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Carburising is generally applied to:

AGrey cast iron
BLow-carbon steels
CAluminium alloys
DHigh-carbon tool steels
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Induction hardening depth is reduced by:

AAdding more carbon to the core
BDecreasing the frequency
CIncreasing the frequency of current
DUsing a slower quench
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

In powder metallurgy, sintering is done at a temperature:

AAbove the melting point of all constituents
BAt room temperature
CExactly at the boiling point
DBelow the melting point of the main constituent (≈ 70–90% of Tm)
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Treatment and Powder Metallurgy

Self-lubricating bearings are made by powder metallurgy and then:

AImpregnated with oil
BNitrided
CHot forged to full density
DInfiltrated with copper
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

The temperature that distinguishes hot working from cold working is the:

AMelting temperature
BRecrystallisation temperature
CRoom temperature
DEutectoid temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

Which of the following is an advantage of cold working over hot working?

AUnlimited deformation in one pass
BBetter surface finish and dimensional accuracy
CRefinement by recrystallisation
DLower force requirement
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

In a four-high rolling mill, small work rolls are backed by larger rolls to:

AAllow reversing without stopping
BReduce roll deflection
CProduce hollow sections
DIncrease roll speed
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

The maximum possible draft in rolling is given by:

AR/μ²
BμR
Cμ/R
Dμ²R
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

Forged components are stronger than cast components mainly because of:

AFaster cooling
BFavourable grain flow and refined structure
CHigher carbon content
DPresence of porosity
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

The forging operation that increases the cross-section of a bar by reducing its length is:

AFullering
BUpsetting
CPunching
DDrawing down
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

In indirect (backward) extrusion:

AThe billet slides against the container wall
BMore force is required than direct extrusion
CA fluid pushes the billet
DThe product moves in the direction opposite to the ram
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

Toothpaste tubes and aluminium cans are produced by:

ADeep drawing only
BHot rolling
CCentrifugal casting
DImpact extrusion
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

Wire drawing is a process in which the metal is:

APushed through a die
BRolled between rolls
CHammered between dies
DPulled through a die
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

A cold squeezing operation used to make coins and medals is:

AStretch forming
BCoining
CEmbossing
DSpinning
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

In blanking, the clearance between punch and die is provided on the:

ADie
BStripper
CBlank holder
DPunch
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1100Ch 5 · Metal Working (Forming)

Shot peening improves the fatigue strength of components by:

AIncreasing carbon content at the surface
BRemoving surface layers
CAnnealing the surface
DInducing compressive residual stresses at the surface
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

Discontinuous chips are generally formed when machining:

ADuctile materials at high speed
BAluminium with good lubrication
CMild steel with positive rake
DBrittle materials such as cast iron
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

According to Merchant's theory, the shear angle φ is:

A90° − α − β
B45° + α/2 − β/2
C45° − α/2 + β/2
D45° + α − β
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

In Taylor's equation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools is about:

A0.7
B1.5
C0.25
D0.1
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

Diamond tools are NOT suitable for machining steel because:

ADiamond is too soft
BDiamond has low thermal conductivity
CCarbon diffuses into iron at high temperature
DSteel is too brittle
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

The tool material with the highest hot hardness among these is:

ACast cobalt alloy
BCemented carbide
CHigh-carbon steel
DHigh-speed steel
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

A turret lathe differs from a capstan lathe in that the turret is mounted on:

AA saddle that moves on the bed
BThe headstock
CThe tailstock
DA ram sliding in a saddle
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

Using a dividing head with 40:1 ratio, the crank movement for 5° angular indexing is:

A9/5 turn
B5/40 turn
C5/9 turn
D1/8 turn
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

Milling two parallel vertical faces of a workpiece simultaneously with two side cutters is:

AFace milling
BGang milling
CForm milling
DStraddle milling
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

In centreless grinding, the workpiece is rotated and fed by the:

AWork-rest blade only
BRegulating wheel
CGrinding wheel
DTailstock centre
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

The finishing process used for engine cylinder bores that produces a cross-hatch pattern is:

ABroaching
BLapping
CBuffing
DHoning
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

Broaching is most suitable for producing:

ADeep blind holes
BInternal keyways and splines in mass production
CExternal threads on long shafts
DLarge flat surfaces on single castings
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1100Ch 5 · Machine Tools

A die that performs blanking and piercing at one station in one stroke is a:

ASimple die
BTransfer die
CProgressive die
DCompound die
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

The heat-affected zone (HAZ) in a weld is the region that:

AIs completely melted and solidified
BIs unaffected by welding
CIs not melted but has its microstructure altered by heat
DContains only filler metal
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

The most difficult welding position is:

AFlat
BHorizontal
COverhead
DVertical
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

In TIG welding, the electrode is:

ACarbon
BContinuous copper-coated wire
CNon-consumable tungsten
DConsumable flux-coated steel
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Aluminium is usually TIG welded using AC because AC:

AEliminates the need for shielding gas
BGives deeper penetration than DC
CProvides a cleaning action that breaks up the oxide film
DUses a consumable electrode
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Submerged arc welding is mostly limited to:

AWelding of plastics
BOverhead welding of thin sheets
CSpot welding of car bodies
DFlat position welding of thick plates
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

In the electrode designation E7018, '70' indicates:

A70% iron powder
BArc voltage 70 V
CElectrode diameter 7.0 mm
DMinimum tensile strength of 70 ksi
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Heat generated in resistance spot welding is given by:

AVIt²
BI²Rt
CI²R/t
DIRt
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Automobile body sheets are mostly joined by:

ASubmerged arc welding
BSpot welding
CElectroslag welding
DThermit welding
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Railway rails are commonly joined in the field by:

AUltrasonic welding
BSoldering
CSpot welding
DThermit welding
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Brazing differs from soldering mainly in that brazing uses a filler metal melting:

AAbove the base metal melting point
BAt exactly 183 °C
CBelow 450 °C
DAbove 450 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

The flux commonly used in brazing is:

ALimestone
BZinc stearate
CBorax
DRosin
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1100Ch 5 · Welding, Brazing and Soldering

Undercut in a weld is mainly caused by:

AExcessive current and long arc length
BToo low current
CProper preheating
DUsing dry electrodes
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

A solid modelling technique that combines primitives using Boolean operations is:

AWireframe modelling
BSurface modelling with NURBS
CConstructive solid geometry (CSG)
DBoundary representation only
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

The file format most commonly used to send a CAD model to a 3-D printer is:

ADXF
BG-code only
CSTL
DDOCX
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

In CNC, a central computer controlling several CNC machines is called:

AAPT
BPLC
CNC
DDNC
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

In CNC machine axes convention, the Z-axis is:

AA rotary axis
BParallel to the main spindle axis
CAlways vertical
DThe longest horizontal travel
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

The G code for linear interpolation at feed rate is:

AG01
BG00
CG02
DG90
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

The code G91 specifies:

AAbsolute dimensioning
BRapid traverse
CCircular interpolation CW
DIncremental dimensioning
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

The M code for spindle ON clockwise is:

AM08
BM03
CM06
DM05
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

A CNC machining centre is distinguished by its:

ALack of spindle
BPunched tape reader
CManual tool post
DAutomatic tool changer
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

Stereolithography (SLA) builds parts by:

AExtruding thermoplastic filament
BCutting and laminating paper sheets
CCuring liquid photopolymer resin with UV light layer by layer
DSintering metal powder with electron beam
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

Fused deposition modelling (FDM) uses:

AMetal powder bed
BPaper sheets
CLiquid resin
DThermoplastic filament extruded through a heated nozzle
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

A flexible manufacturing system is best suited to:

AVery high volume, single product
BContinuous process industries only
CMid-volume, mid-variety production
DOne-off prototypes only
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1100Ch 5 · CAD/CAM and Advanced Manufacturing

Grouping of parts with similar design and manufacturing features into families is called:

ALine balancing
BGroup technology
CValue engineering
DJust-in-time
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

A design in which an existing product is adapted with only minor modifications is called:

AOptimum design
BDevelopment design
CAdaptive design
DNew design
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

Design based on mathematical formulae of mechanics is known as:

AAdaptive design
BIndustrial design
CEmpirical design
DRational design
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

For ductile materials under static load, the factor of safety is based on:

AModulus of elasticity
BUltimate strength
CEndurance limit
DYield strength
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

The ratio of the R10 series of preferred numbers is approximately:

A1.58
B1.12
C1.06
D1.25
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

A set of specifications for design and construction intended mainly to achieve safety, often enforced by law, is a:

APatent
BCatalogue
CCode
DStandard
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

The main benefit of using standard parts is:

AElimination of the need for drawings
BInterchangeability and reduced cost
CIncreased design time
DUnique appearance of each product
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

ISO 9001 relates to:

AQuality management systems
BOccupational health and safety
CEnvironmental management systems
DEnergy management
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

The ISO standard for environmental management systems is:

AISO 22000
BISO 14001
CISO 27001
DISO 9001
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

ISO 45001 replaced:

AOHSAS 18001
BISO 26000
CISO 14001:2004
DISO 9001:2008
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

The management cycle underlying ISO management system standards is:

ADefine-Measure-Analyse-Improve-Control
BPlan-Do-Check-Act
CForming-Storming-Norming
DInput-Process-Output
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

ASTM standards are mainly concerned with:

AElectrical safety
BMaterials specifications and testing methods
CBoiler inspection only
DGear design
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1100Ch 6 · Design Classification

In the IS steel designation 40C8, '40' indicates:

ATensile strength 40 MPa
B40% manganese
C40% chromium
D0.40% carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

A rotating member that supports rotating elements but does not transmit torque is:

AA spindle
BAn axle
CA shaft
DA coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

The critical speed of a shaft corresponds to:

AIts maximum torque
BThe speed at which bearings fail
CThe speed at which keys shear
DThe natural frequency of its transverse vibration
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

A coupling suitable for connecting two parallel shafts with a small lateral offset is:

AOldham coupling
BHooke's joint
CRigid flange coupling
DMuff coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

The bearing best suited for heavy combined radial and axial loads, such as vehicle wheel hubs, is:

ANeedle roller bearing
BThrust ball bearing
CCylindrical roller bearing
DTaper roller bearing
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

For ball bearings, the life–load relation is L10 = (C/P)p where p equals:

A3
B2
C10/3
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

The bore diameter of a bearing designated 6208 is:

A80 mm
B08 mm
C40 mm
D20 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

The Wahl factor in helical spring design accounts for:

ASurge in springs
BCurvature effect and direct shear stress
CEnd conditions only
DBuckling of the spring
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

A power screw is self-locking when:

AHelix angle is greater than friction angle
BCoefficient of friction is zero
CFriction angle is greater than helix angle
DEfficiency is greater than 50%
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

The efficiency of a self-locking square-threaded screw is:

A100%
BGreater than 50%
CExactly 50%
DLess than 50%
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

In designing friction clutches, the uniform wear theory is preferred because it:

AIgnores friction
BApplies only to new clutches
CGives a higher torque capacity
DGives a lower (safer) torque capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

According to the Lewis equation, the beam strength of a gear tooth is:

Aσb·m²·Y
Bb·m·Y/σb
Cσb·b/(m·Y)
Dσb·b·m·Y
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Components

Flat-belt pulleys are crowned in order to:

AReduce belt tension to zero
BAllow cross-belt operation only
CIncrease the velocity ratio
DKeep the belt centred on the pulley
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The theoretical stress concentration factor for a small circular hole in a wide plate under tension is:

A2
B1
C5
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The fatigue stress concentration factor Kf is related to Kt and notch sensitivity q by:

AKf = qKt
BKf = 1 − q(Kt − 1)
CKf = Kt − q
DKf = 1 + q(Kt − 1)
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

Negative rake angles are generally used on:

AWood-working tools
BDrills for plastics
CCarbide tools for hard materials and interrupted cuts
DHSS tools for soft aluminium
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

In orthogonal turning, the largest force component is the:

ARadial force
BFriction force on flank
CTangential (cutting) force
DFeed force
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The press tool component that removes the sheet stock from the punch after the stroke is the:

AStop
BDie shoe
CPilot
DStripper
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The force required to blank a 100 mm × 50 mm rectangle from 2 mm sheet with τu = 300 MPa is:

A30 kN
B180 kN
C90 kN
D300 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The standard point angle of a general-purpose twist drill is:

A135°
B60°
C118°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

A device that holds and locates the workpiece and also guides the cutting tool is a:

AMandrel
BJig
CFixture
DVice
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

In impression-die forging, the purpose of the flash land is to:

ACool the die
BProvide draft for removal
CReduce the forging load to zero
DRestrict metal flow so the die cavity fills completely
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

Hot-work die steels such as H13 are chosen for forging dies mainly for their:

ALow cost and softness
BHot hardness and resistance to thermal fatigue
CMagnetic properties
DHigh electrical conductivity
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

The most commonly used multipurpose grease thickener is:

ACalcium soap
BLithium soap
CSodium soap
DGraphite
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1100Ch 6 · Loads and Tools

Which material is usually machined dry without cutting fluid?

AMild steel
BTitanium
CGrey cast iron
DStainless steel
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

Under static loading, a ductile material is considered to have failed when it:

ABuckles elastically
BReaches its endurance limit
CFractures
DYields
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

According to the maximum shear stress theory, the equivalent stress under combined σ and τ is:

A√(σ² + 4τ²)
B√(σ² + τ²)
C√(σ² + 3τ²)
Dσ + τ
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

For no tension to develop in a rectangular section of width b under an eccentric compressive load, the eccentricity must not exceed:

Ab/3
Bb/8
Cb/2
Db/6
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

In a curved beam such as a crane hook, the maximum bending stress occurs at the:

ACentroidal axis
BOuter fibre
CNeutral axis
DInner fibre
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

The crushing stress in a key of height h, length l on a shaft of diameter d transmitting torque T is:

A16T/(πd³)
BT/(d·h·l)
C2T/(d·w·l)
D4T/(d·h·l)
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

In a bolted bracket with eccentric load in the plane of the bolts, the secondary shear load on a bolt is proportional to:

AIts distance from the load line
BThe square of its diameter only
CThe number of bolts only
DIts distance from the centroid of the bolt group
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

For a bracket bolted to a wall with a load tending to tilt it, the tensile load in a bolt is proportional to:

AThe number of threads
BThe inverse of its distance from the tilting edge
CIts diameter
DIts distance from the tilting edge
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

A cotter joint is used to connect two rods that are subjected to:

ABending only
BAxial tensile or compressive loads without rotation
CTorsion only
DRelative angular movement
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

A knuckle joint is used where the connected rods require:

ASliding along their axes
BSmall angular movement under tensile load
CRigid connection under torsion
DAxial compression only
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

The pin of a knuckle joint is designed mainly for:

ASingle shear
BDouble shear
CPure torsion
DBuckling
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

The most economical beam section for resisting bending is:

AI-section
BSolid circular section
CThin flat strip on its side
DSolid square section
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1100Ch 6 · Static Analysis of Systems

Thickness of a thin cylindrical pressure vessel with joint efficiency η and corrosion allowance C is:

ApD/(2σtη) + C
BpD/(σtη)
C2pD/(σtη) + C
DpD/(4σtη) + C
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

The minimum number of independent coordinates required to describe the configuration of a system is its:

AMode shape
BDegree of freedom
CFrequency ratio
DDamping ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

A spring-mass system has k = 1600 N/m and m = 4 kg. Its natural frequency is:

A400 rad/s
B10 rad/s
C20 rad/s
D40 rad/s
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

A machine produces a static deflection of 0.25 mm on its mounts. Its natural frequency is about:

A63 Hz
B31.5 Hz
C15.8 Hz
D3.15 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

Two springs of stiffness k each connected in series have an equivalent stiffness of:

Ak²
Bk/2
Ck
D2k
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

The critical damping coefficient of a system with mass m and stiffness k is:

A√(k/m)
B√(km)
C2√(km)
D2km
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

A system returns to equilibrium in the shortest possible time without oscillating when it is:

ACritically damped
BUnder-damped
COver-damped
DUndamped
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

The damped natural frequency is related to the undamped natural frequency by:

Aωd = ωn(1 − ζ)
Bωd = ωn√(1 + ζ²)
Cωd = ωn√(1 − ζ²)
Dωd = ωn/ζ
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

For a viscously damped system at resonance (r = 1), the magnification factor is:

AInfinity
B1/(2ζ)
C2ζ
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

At resonance, the phase angle between the exciting force and displacement is:

A0°
B90°
C180°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

Vibration isolation (transmissibility < 1) is achieved only when the frequency ratio is:

AGreater than √2
BEqual to 1
CLess than 1
DLess than √2
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

In the isolation region (r > √2), increasing damping:

AHas no effect on transmissibility
BMakes transmissibility zero
CIncreases transmissibility
DDecreases transmissibility
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1100Ch 6 · Mechanical Vibrations

A two-degree-of-freedom system has:

ATwo natural frequencies and two principal modes
BNo natural frequency
CInfinite natural frequencies
DOne natural frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

The first step in the problem-solving process is to:

AImplement the solution
BIdentify and define the problem
CEvaluate results
DSelect the best alternative
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

A good problem statement should:

AContain only the proposed solution
BAvoid mentioning constraints
CDescribe the problem, its impact and goals without prescribing a solution
DSpecify the final design in detail
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

According to Graham Wallas, the correct sequence of the creative process is:

AIncubation → Preparation → Verification → Inspiration
BVerification → Inspiration → Incubation → Preparation
CPreparation → Incubation → Inspiration → Verification
DInspiration → Preparation → Incubation → Verification
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

The 'Aha!' moment when a solution suddenly appears is called:

AVerification
BIncubation
CPreparation
DInspiration (illumination)
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

The stage in which the idea is tested and refined is:

AIncubation
BIllumination
CVerification
DPreparation
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

For an invention to be patentable, it must be:

ANovel, non-obvious and useful
BDiscovered in nature
CAlready in common use
DOnly aesthetically pleasing
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

The most important rule of brainstorming is to:

ADefer judgement and avoid criticism during idea generation
BEvaluate each idea immediately
CAllow only experts to speak
DLimit the number of ideas
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

In the 6-3-5 brainwriting method, each participant writes:

A1 idea in 3 minutes
B6 ideas in 3 minutes
C3 ideas in 5 minutes
D5 ideas in 6 minutes
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

The TRIZ method of inventive problem solving was developed by:

AGenrich Altshuller
BGraham Wallas
CEdward de Bono
DAlex Osborn
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

In a weighted decision matrix with weights 0.5 and 0.5, an alternative scoring 6 and 8 has a weighted score of:

A7
B14
C8
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

In a decision tree, a circle node represents:

AA constraint
BA chance event with probabilistic outcomes
CA decision point
DThe final payoff
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1100Ch 6 · Problem Solving and Decision Making

An option has a 70% chance of Rs 100 profit and 30% chance of Rs 40 loss. Its expected monetary value is:

ARs 58
BRs 82
CRs 70
DRs 60
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

Maintenance is best defined as actions intended to:

AOnly repair machines after failure
BRetain or restore an item to a state in which it performs its required function
CReplace every machine annually
DIncrease production speed beyond design
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

Which is NOT a common reason for the need of maintenance?

ALoosening of fasteners due to vibration
BWear and tear
CIncrease of material strength with use
DCorrosion
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

The primary objective of maintenance is to:

AMaximise availability and reliability at minimum total cost
BMaximise the number of spare parts
CMinimise maintenance cost alone
DEliminate all inspections
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

A machine runs 900 hours with 3 failures. Its MTBF is:

A900 h
B300 h
C30 h
D2700 h
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

With MTBF = 90 h and MTTR = 10 h, the inherent availability is:

A10%
B99%
C81%
D90%
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE) is the product of:

AAvailability, performance and quality
BSpeed, feed and depth
CReliability, safety and cost
DMTBF, MTTR and cost
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

If availability = 0.9, performance = 0.9 and quality = 0.95, OEE is about:

A77%
B85%
C95%
D90%
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

The optimum level of maintenance is where:

ABreakdown cost is zero
BMaintenance cost is zero
CMaintenance cost is maximum
DThe sum of maintenance cost and breakdown cost is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

A software system used to plan, schedule and record maintenance activities is:

ACMMS
BPLC
CSCADA only
DCAD
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

A good maintenance plan improves product quality mainly because:

AWell-maintained machines hold tolerances and produce fewer defects
BIt reduces raw material cost
CIt eliminates the need for inspection
DIt increases machine speed beyond design
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

Which of the following equipment usually requires statutory periodic inspection?

AOffice chairs
BDrawing boards
CBoilers and pressure vessels
DHand files
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1100Ch 7 · Need for Maintenance

History cards of equipment are mainly used to:

ACalculate income tax
BRecord past failures and repairs for analysis and planning
CReplace work orders
DRecord the purchase price only
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

The three elements of the fire triangle are:

AHeat, fuel and oxygen
BFuel, nitrogen and heat
COxygen, water and fuel
DHeat, water and carbon dioxide
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Extinguishing a fire by covering it with foam to cut off air is called:

AChain breaking
BStarving
CCooling
DSmothering
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

The correct extinguisher for a fire in live electrical equipment is:

ACO2
BWater
CFoam
DSoda-acid
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Burning petrol (Class B fire) should NOT be extinguished with:

ACO2
BDry chemical powder
CA water jet
DFoam
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

A residual current device (RCD) for personal protection is normally set to trip at about:

A300 mA
B30 mA
C30 A
D3 A
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Before carrying out maintenance on electrical or mechanical equipment, the energy sources should be:

AIsolated, locked out and tagged
BReduced to half
CLeft on for testing
DSwitched on and off rapidly
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Gloves should NOT be worn while operating a drilling machine because:

AThey reduce accuracy of measurement
BThey can be caught by the rotating spindle
CThey increase cutting speed
DThey damage the drill
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Galvanised steel is protected even at small scratches because zinc:

AIs a non-metal
BIs cathodic to steel
CDoes not corrode at all
DIs anodic to steel and corrodes sacrificially
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Anodising is a surface treatment mainly applied to:

AMild steel
BAluminium
CCopper
DCast iron
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

The most important factor in the life of a paint coating is:

ASurface preparation
BBrush size
CNumber of painters
DColour of paint
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

In cathodic protection, the structure to be protected is made the:

AInsulator
BAnode
CCathode
DElectrolyte
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1100Ch 7 · Safety Precautions and Protective Coating

Which is NOT used as a sacrificial anode for steel?

ACopper
BMagnesium
CAluminium
DZinc
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Run-to-failure (breakdown) maintenance is most suitable for:

AAircraft engines
BCritical boiler feed pumps
CNuclear reactor cooling pumps
DLow-cost, non-critical items with standby
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Maintenance carried out at fixed time or usage intervals regardless of condition is:

ADesign-out maintenance
BPredictive maintenance
CPreventive maintenance
DBreakdown maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Maintenance performed only when monitoring shows signs of deterioration is:

ABreakdown maintenance
BPredictive (condition-based) maintenance
COpportunistic maintenance
DScheduled overhaul
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Redesigning equipment to eliminate the root cause of repeated failures is called:

AAutonomous maintenance
BBreakdown maintenance
CDesign-out maintenance
DCorrective maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Reliability-centred maintenance originated in the:

ACivil aviation industry
BConstruction industry
CFood industry
DTextile industry
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

TPM was developed in:

AGermany
BUSA
CUK
DJapan
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

The TPM pillar in which operators perform daily cleaning, inspection and lubrication is:

AOffice TPM
BPlanned maintenance
CEarly equipment management
DAutonomous maintenance (Jishu Hozen)
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

The '5S' foundation of TPM starts with:

ASustain (Shitsuke)
BSort (Seiri)
CShine (Seiso)
DStandardise (Seiketsu)
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Which of the following is one of the six big losses in TPM?

AEmployee training
BExcess profit
CPreventive maintenance
DReduced speed
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

In condition monitoring, the inspection interval should be:

AShorter than the P-F interval
BEqual to MTBF
CUnrelated to failure development
DLonger than the P-F interval
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

A vibration spectrum dominated by 1× running speed in the radial direction most likely indicates:

ALooseness
BUnbalance
CGear tooth wear
DMisalignment
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1100Ch 7 · Maintenance Strategy

Infrared thermography is most useful for detecting:

AHot spots in electrical connections and panels
BHardness of steel
COil viscosity
DInternal porosity in castings
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

For a constant failure rate λ, reliability over time t is:

A1 − λt²
B1/λt
Cλe−t
De−λt
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

A component has a constant failure rate of 0.002 per hour. Its MTBF is:

A500 h
B2000 h
C0.002 h
D50 h
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

The reliability of an item at t = MTBF (constant failure rate) is approximately:

A63.2%
B100%
C50%
D36.8%
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

In the bathtub curve, the failure rate during the useful-life period is:

ADecreasing
BIncreasing
CZero
DConstant
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

Early (infant-mortality) failures are best reduced by:

ABurn-in and quality control
BIncreasing operating load
CPreventive replacement of old parts
DRemoving redundancy
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

Wear-out failures in the bathtub curve are characterised by a failure rate that is:

AIncreasing
BZero
CDecreasing
DConstant
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

Two components each of reliability 0.9 are connected in series. System reliability is:

A0.9
B0.81
C0.99
D1.8
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

Two components each of reliability 0.9 are connected in parallel. System reliability is:

A0.99
B0.9
C0.45
D0.81
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

In FMEA, the Risk Priority Number is calculated as:

ASeverity × Cost
BSeverity + Occurrence + Detection
COccurrence / Detection
DSeverity × Occurrence × Detection
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

Fault tree analysis is a:

ABottom-up inductive method starting from components
BStatistical sampling technique
CTop-down deductive method starting from an undesired top event
DForward analysis from an initiating event
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

In a fault tree, an AND gate means the output event occurs when:

ANo input event occurs
BAll input events occur
CAny one input event occurs
DExactly one input event occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1100Ch 7 · System Safety and Reliability

The fishbone diagram was developed by:

AF. W. Taylor
BKaoru Ishikawa
CW. E. Deming
DWalter Shewhart
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

Risk is best defined as:

AThe combination of likelihood and severity of harm
BAnything with potential to cause harm
CThe number of employees exposed only
DThe cost of insurance
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

A hazard is:

AA source or situation with potential to cause harm
BA safety device
CAn insurance policy
DThe probability of an accident
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

A 5 × 5 risk matrix is an example of a:

APhysical test
BPurely quantitative method
CSemi-quantitative risk assessment tool
DFault tree
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

The principle that risk should be reduced until the cost of further reduction is grossly disproportionate to the benefit is:

AFMEA
BALARP
COEE
DHAZOP
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

HAZOP studies use:

AGuide words applied to process parameters
BRPN scores only
CMonte Carlo simulation only
DLogic gates
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

Transferring risk typically means:

AWearing PPE
BAccepting the risk
CEliminating the hazard
DBuying insurance or contracting the activity out
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

The MOST effective control in the hierarchy of controls is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPPE
DAdministrative controls
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

Personal protective equipment is considered:

AThe most effective control
BAn engineering control
CThe last line of defence
DA form of elimination
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

According to Heinrich's triangle, for every major injury there are about:

A29 minor injuries and 300 near misses
B1 minor injury and 10 near misses
C10 minor injuries and 100 near misses
D300 minor injuries and 29 near misses
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

The Swiss cheese model of accident causation was proposed by:

AH. W. Heinrich
BJames Reason
CFrank Gilbreth
DKaoru Ishikawa
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

A factory recorded 4 lost-time injuries in 2,000,000 man-hours. The frequency rate is:

A4
B8
C2
D0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1100Ch 7 · Risk Assessment

A blue circular safety sign indicates:

AProhibition
BWarning
CA mandatory action
DSafe condition
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

The frequency range typically used in ultrasonic testing of metals is:

A50 Hz
B20 Hz–20 kHz
C1–10 GHz
DAbout 0.5–25 MHz
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

In ultrasonic testing, a couplant is used to:

ADevelop the penetrant
BAbsorb X-rays
CEliminate the air gap between probe and test surface
DMagnetise the part
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

A pulse-echo reflection from a flaw returns after 20 μs in steel (v = 5900 m/s). The flaw depth is about:

A59 mm
B29.5 mm
C118 mm
D5.9 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

Ultrasonic testing is widely used in maintenance for:

AMeasuring hardness
BMeasuring remaining wall thickness of pipes and vessels
CFinding magnetic permeability
DDetecting surface colour
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

Dye penetrant testing can detect only defects that are:

AIn porous materials
BDeep inside the material
CParallel to the surface below it
DOpen to the surface
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

In dye penetrant testing, the purpose of the developer is to:

ADraw the penetrant out of defects to form a visible indication
BClean the surface
CFill the defects permanently
DMagnetise the part
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

Magnetic particle testing cannot be used on:

ALow-alloy steel
BAluminium
CCast iron
DMild steel
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

In magnetic particle testing, a defect is most easily detected when it is:

AFar below the surface
BFilled with oil
CPerpendicular to the magnetic flux lines
DParallel to the magnetic flux lines
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

On a radiograph, a gas pore in a weld appears:

AThe same as the surrounding metal
BLighter than the surrounding metal
CDarker than the surrounding metal
DInvisible
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

The radioactive isotope most commonly used for gamma radiography of steel up to about 60 mm is:

AUranium-235
BCarbon-14
CIridium-192
DRadium-226
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

Eddy current testing can be applied only to materials that are:

AElectrically conductive
BNon-metallic
CFerromagnetic only
DTransparent
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1100Ch 7 · Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

In eddy current testing, increasing the test frequency:

AReduces the depth of penetration
BHas no effect on depth
CIncreases the depth of penetration
DMakes the method work on plastics
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Precision of an instrument refers to:

AMaximum range of the instrument
BCloseness of reading to the true value
CCloseness of repeated readings to each other
DSmallest division of the scale
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

A set of readings that are closely grouped but far from the true value indicates:

APresence of systematic error
BPresence of only random error
CGross error only
DA perfectly accurate instrument
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Random errors in measurement can be minimised by:

AApplying a constant correction
BIgnoring outliers only
CUsing a larger scale
DTaking a large number of readings and averaging
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

The standard reference temperature for dimensional measurements is:

A15 °C
B20 °C
C0 °C
D25 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Which instrument obeys Abbe's principle?

ABevel protractor
BMicrometer
CVernier caliper
DSteel rule with calipers
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Slip gauges are examples of:

AWavelength standards
BAngle standards
CLine standards
DEnd standards
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

The process of joining slip gauges by sliding them together with light pressure is called:

AHoning
BLapping
CClamping
DWringing
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

A 200 mm sine bar is set with slip gauges of 100 mm height. The angle set is:

A60°
B26.6°
C30°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

According to Taylor's principle, a GO gauge should check:

AThe least-material condition
BThe maximum-material condition with the full form of the feature
CSurface roughness
DOnly one dimension at a time
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

An autocollimator is used for measuring:

ASmall angular deviations, straightness and flatness
BHardness
CScrew thread pitch only
DSurface roughness
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Calibration of an instrument means:

AComparing it with a standard of higher accuracy and correcting its readings
BIncreasing its range
CPainting its scale
DReplacing it with a new one
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1100Ch 8 · Metrology and Measurement

Acceptance tests on machine tools were systematised by:

AErnst Abbe
BHenry Ford
CF. W. Taylor
DGeorg Schlesinger
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

Which of the following is an active (self-generating) transducer?

ALVDT
BRTD
CThermocouple
DStrain gauge
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

An LVDT is used to measure:

AFlow rate
BHumidity
CLinear displacement
DTemperature
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

A piezoelectric pressure transducer is suitable for:

AVacuum measurement only
BStatic pressures only
CDynamic (rapidly changing) pressures only
DTemperature measurement
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

Pressure gauges are usually calibrated using a:

ARotameter
BDead-weight tester
CPyrometer
DPirani gauge
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

An electromagnetic flowmeter works on:

ABernoulli's principle
BFaraday's law of electromagnetic induction
CDoppler effect
DSeebeck effect
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

Electromagnetic flowmeters can be used only for liquids that are:

ASuperheated steam
BGases
CNon-conductive oils
DElectrically conductive
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

A flowmeter that directly measures mass flow rate is the:

ARotameter
BVenturi meter
CTurbine flowmeter
DCoriolis flowmeter
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

A thermocouple works on the:

AHall effect
BSeebeck effect
CPiezoelectric effect
DPeltier effect only
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

A Pt100 RTD has a resistance of 100 Ω at:

A25 °C
B0 °C
C20 °C
D100 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

For measuring the temperature of molten metal without contact, the suitable instrument is a:

ABimetallic thermometer
BRTD
CPyrometer
DThermistor
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

The gauge factor of a strain gauge is defined as:

AR/ΔR
B(ΔR/R)/strain
CΔR × strain
DStrain/(ΔR/R)
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1100Ch 8 · Sensors and Actuators

Which actuator is best suited for very high force in heavy earth-moving equipment?

APneumatic actuator
BHydraulic actuator
CSolenoid
DStepper motor
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

The number of SI base units is:

A6
B7
C9
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

Slip gauges and end bars are examples of:

ADerived standards
BWavelength standards
CEnd standards
DLine standards
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

Compared with line standards, end standards are:

ARead by viewing engraved lines
BLess accurate and quicker
CFree from wear
DMore accurate but time-consuming to use
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

For a normal distribution of errors, the percentage of readings within ±2σ of the mean is about:

A99.7%
B95.4%
C68.3%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

If a quantity is calculated as the product of two measurements with errors of 1% and 2%, the maximum error in the result is:

A1%
B2%
C3%
D0.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

The smallest input change from zero that produces a detectable output is called:

AResolution
BThreshold
CHysteresis
DDrift
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

The difference in output when the same input is approached from increasing and decreasing directions is:

ADrift
BSensitivity
CLinearity
DHysteresis
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

A potentiometric displacement sensor is an example of a:

AFirst-order system
BZero-order system
CSecond-order system
DThird-order system
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

A mercury-in-glass thermometer behaves as a:

AFirst-order system
BNon-linear third-order system
CZero-order system
DSecond-order system
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

A first-order instrument reaches what percentage of its final value in one time constant after a step input?

A98.2%
B63.2%
C100%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

A U-tube manometer is an example of a:

AStatic system only
BZero-order system
CFirst-order system
DSecond-order system
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1100Ch 8 · Measurement of Physical Quantity

Most measuring instruments are designed with a damping ratio of about:

A1.5
B5
C0
D0.6–0.7
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

A production system producing very large quantities of a standardised product on dedicated lines is:

AJob production
BProject production
CBatch production
DMass production
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

Construction of a hydropower dam is an example of:

AMass production
BProject production
CContinuous production
DBatch production
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

A layout in which similar machines are grouped together according to function is:

AFixed-position layout
BProduct layout
CProcess layout
DCellular layout
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

Ship building generally uses:

ALine layout
BFixed-position layout
CProduct layout
DProcess layout
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

In Muther's relationship chart, the closeness code 'X' means:

AOrdinary
BImportant
CAbsolutely necessary
DUndesirable
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

A plant must produce 480 units in an 8-hour shift. The cycle time is:

A60 minutes
B8 minutes
C1 minute
D0.5 minute
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

Total work content is 40 minutes and cycle time is 10 minutes. The theoretical minimum number of workstations is:

A10
B4
C400
D40
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

The material handling principle 'move materials in the largest practical quantity' is the:

AUnit-load principle
BGravity principle
CSpace-utilisation principle
DErgonomic principle
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

Material handling equipment that follows a variable path is:

AEOT crane
BBelt conveyor
CScrew conveyor
DForklift truck
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

The PPC function that determines the path and sequence of operations is:

AScheduling
BExpediting
CDispatching
DRouting
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

The PPC function concerned with releasing orders and issuing documents to start work is:

AForecasting
BRouting
CLoading
DDispatching
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1100Ch 8 · Design of Production Systems

The sequencing rule that minimises the average flow time of jobs on a single machine is:

AFirst come first served
BShortest processing time (SPT)
CEarliest due date
DLongest processing time
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

Annual demand is 1,000 units, ordering cost Rs 50 per order and carrying cost Rs 1 per unit per year. The EOQ is:

A50 units
B100 units
C1,000 units
D316 units
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

At the economic order quantity:

AAnnual ordering cost equals annual carrying cost
BCarrying cost is maximum
CShortage cost equals purchase cost
DOrdering cost is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

If annual demand D is multiplied by 4 (other things constant), the EOQ becomes:

A4 times
B16 times
CHalf
D2 times
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

Lead time in inventory control is the time between:

ATwo successive orders
BReceipt and consumption of goods
CPlacing an order and receiving the goods
DProduction and sale
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

Daily usage is 20 units, lead time 5 days and safety stock 40 units. The reorder point is:

A140 units
B40 units
C100 units
D25 units
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

Safety stock is maintained mainly to:

AEliminate carrying cost
BReduce ordering cost
CProtect against variability in demand and lead time
DIncrease EOQ
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

In ABC analysis, class A items typically represent:

AAbout 70% of items and 10% of value
BOnly non-moving items
CAbout 10–20% of items and 70–80% of consumption value
DEqual share of items and value
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

Classification of spare parts according to their criticality is called:

AABC analysis
BVED analysis
CHML analysis
DFSN analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

FSN analysis classifies inventory on the basis of:

ASource of supply
BCriticality
CUnit price
DRate of consumption (movement)
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

A forecasting method that obtains anonymous opinions from a panel of experts in several rounds is:

ADelphi method
BMoving average
CExponential smoothing
DRegression analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

With exponential smoothing, α = 0.3, last forecast 200 and actual demand 250, the next forecast is:

A230
B215
C200
D250
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1100Ch 8 · Inventory Control and Forecasting

The mean absolute deviation (MAD) of forecast errors is:

AΣ(actual − forecast)
BRSFE / n²
CΣ|actual − forecast| / n
DΣ(actual − forecast)² / n
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

The ratio of brake power to indicated power of an engine is its:

ABrake thermal efficiency
BRelative efficiency
CVolumetric efficiency
DMechanical efficiency
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

An engine consumes 10 kg/h of fuel (CV = 42,000 kJ/kg) and develops 35 kW brake power. Its brake thermal efficiency is:

A42%
B30%
C35%
D25%
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

Volumetric efficiency of an engine can exceed 100% when:

AThe exhaust is throttled
BIt runs at very low speed only
CIt is supercharged
DIt has a carburettor
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

In engine testing, an air box with an orifice is used to:

AMeasure brake power
BMeasure fuel consumption
CCool the engine
DMeasure air consumption while damping pulsations
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

The Morse test is used to determine the:

ABrake power of a single-cylinder engine
BVolumetric efficiency
CIndicated power of each cylinder of a multi-cylinder engine
DOctane number
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

Willan's line method of finding friction power is applicable to:

ACI engines
BSteam engines
CSI engines
DGas turbines
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

In a heat balance of an IC engine, the largest heat loss is usually to the:

ARadiation only
BExhaust gases
CFuel pump
DLubricating oil
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

The thermostat in a water-cooled engine:

ARemoves air from the system
BPumps the coolant
CKeeps coolant temperature near optimum and speeds up warm-up
DPressurises the radiator
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

Knocking in an SI engine is caused by:

AAuto-ignition of the end gas ahead of the flame front
BToo low compression ratio
CIgnition by a hot spot before the spark
DToo high cetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

Ignition of the charge by a hot carbon deposit before the spark occurs is called:

ABackfire
BDiesel knock
CPre-ignition
DDetonation
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

Which factor REDUCES knock in a CI engine but INCREASES knock in an SI engine?

AUsing a lower-octane fuel
BLower inlet air temperature
CHigher compression ratio
DRetarding the spark
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

In a carburettor, the choke valve is used to:

AControl engine power output
BProvide a rich mixture for cold starting
CMaintain constant fuel level
DAtomise the fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1100Ch 8 · Engine Performance and Testing

In a common-rail diesel injection system:

AA carburettor meters the fuel
BA high-pressure pump feeds a common rail supplying electronically controlled injectors
CEach cylinder has its own jerk pump
DFuel is injected with compressed air
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Heat transfer by radiation:

ARequires a solid medium
BOccurs only in liquids
CCan take place through vacuum
DRequires a fluid medium
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Fourier's law of heat conduction is:

Aq = hA(Ts − T∞)
Bq = εσAT⁴
Cq = mcΔT
Dq = −kA dT/dx
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Which material has the highest thermal conductivity?

AStainless steel
BCopper
CGlass
DWater
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Heat flow through a 0.2 m thick wall of area 10 m² with k = 1 W/mK and a temperature difference of 20 °C is:

A4000 W
B1000 W
C40 W
D100 W
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

The thermal resistance of a hollow cylinder of length L is:

A(r2 − r1)/(4πk r1r2)
B(r2 − r1)/(kA)
Cln(r2/r1)/(2πkL)
D1/(hA)
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

The critical radius of insulation for a cylindrical pipe is:

Ah/k
Bk/2h
Ck/h
D2k/h
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Lumped-system analysis of transient conduction is valid when the Biot number is:

AEqual to 1
BLess than 0.1
CGreater than 1
DGreater than 10
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

If the absolute temperature of a black body is doubled, its emissive power becomes:

A16 times
B4 times
C2 times
D8 times
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

According to Wien's displacement law, λmaxT equals about:

A5.67 μm·K
B273 μm·K
C1367 μm·K
D2898 μm·K
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

For an opaque body:

Aα = ρ = τ
Bα + ρ = 1
Cρ + τ = 1
Dα + τ = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

Kirchhoff's law of radiation states that at thermal equilibrium:

AEmissivity is zero
BEmissivity equals absorptivity
CAbsorptivity equals transmissivity
DEmissivity equals reflectivity
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1100Ch 9 · Heat Transfer

For a plane wall between two fluids, the overall heat transfer coefficient U is given by:

A1/U = h1 + h2
B1/U = 1/h1 + L/k + 1/h2
CU = h1 + k/L + h2
DU = h1h2/k
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

Natural (free) convection is caused by:

AA pump or fan
BRadiation from the surface
CBuoyancy forces due to density differences
DPressure difference from a compressor
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

The dimensionless number that governs free convection is the:

AMach number
BBiot number
CGrashof number
DReynolds number
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

For fully developed laminar flow in a tube with constant wall temperature, the Nusselt number is:

A3.66
B100
C0.023
D4.36
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

Dropwise condensation compared to filmwise condensation gives:

ANo heat transfer
BLower heat transfer coefficient
CSame heat transfer coefficient
DMuch higher heat transfer coefficient
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

Fins are most effective when attached to the side having:

ABoiling liquid
BLow heat transfer coefficient (gas side)
CCondensing steam
DHigh heat transfer coefficient (liquid side)
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

Fin effectiveness increases with:

AThicker fins
BHigher convective coefficient
CHigher thermal conductivity of fin material
DLower perimeter-to-area ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

The efficiency of a fin with an insulated tip is:

AmL·tanh(mL)
Be−mL
Ctanh(mL)/(mL)
D1/(mL)
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

The most effective flow arrangement in a heat exchanger is:

ACounter flow
BCross flow with both fluids mixed
CAll are equally effective
DParallel flow
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

In a counter-flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 150 °C and leaves at 100 °C; cold fluid enters at 50 °C and leaves at 100 °C. The LMTD is:

A100 °C
B25 °C
C75 °C
D50 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

For a condenser (one fluid at constant temperature), the effectiveness is:

A1 − e−NTU
Be−NTU
CNTU/(1 + NTU)
D0.5 always
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

A cooling tower is an example of a:

AShell-and-tube exchanger
BDirect-contact heat exchanger
CPlate heat exchanger
DRecuperator
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1100Ch 9 · Application of Heat Transfer

NTU of a heat exchanger is defined as:

AQ/Qmax
BUA/Cmin
CCmin/UA
DCmin/Cmax
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

Which of the following is a renewable energy resource?

ACoal
BNatural gas
CWind
DUranium
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

The coal with the highest carbon content and calorific value is:

APeat
BLignite
CAnthracite
DSub-bituminous
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

Proximate analysis of coal determines:

AMoisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon and ash
BCalorific value only
CC, H, N, S and O
DAsh fusion temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

The calorific value of gaseous fuels is measured using a:

ASeparating calorimeter
BThrottling calorimeter
CJunkers gas calorimeter
DBomb calorimeter
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

The main constituent of natural gas is:

AMethane
BHydrogen
CButane
DPropane
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

Solar photovoltaic cells convert sunlight into electricity using:

AA heat engine cycle
BThe photovoltaic effect in a semiconductor junction
CElectromagnetic induction
DThe Seebeck effect
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

The main combustible gas in biogas is:

AHydrogen sulphide
BEthane
CCarbon monoxide
DMethane
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

If wind speed doubles, the power available in the wind becomes:

A4 times
B8 times
C2 times
D16 times
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

The maximum theoretical power coefficient of a wind turbine (Betz limit) is:

A59.3%
B45%
C100%
D33.3%
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

A micro-hydro plant has Q = 0.1 m³/s, H = 50 m and overall efficiency 0.6. Its power output is about:

A29 kW
B49 kW
C300 kW
D3 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is to:

ASlow down fast neutrons
BAbsorb all neutrons
CShield radiation outside the plant
DCool the reactor only
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1100Ch 9 · Conventional and Non-Conventional Energy Resources

A fuel cell produces electricity by:

ARotating a generator with a turbine
BBurning fuel in a boiler
CDirect electrochemical reaction of fuel and oxidant
DNuclear fission
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The mass of oxygen required for complete combustion of 1 kg of carbon is:

A1 kg
B4/3 kg
C8/3 kg
D8 kg
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The mass of oxygen required for complete combustion of 1 kg of hydrogen is:

A16 kg
B1 kg
C8/3 kg
D8 kg
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

Air contains approximately what percentage of oxygen by mass?

A50%
B23%
C79%
D21%
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The stoichiometric air-fuel ratio for petrol is about:

A14.7 : 1
B9.5 : 1
C20 : 1
D34 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The three Ts necessary for good combustion are:

ATemperature, tension and time
BTurbulence, thrust and temperature
CTime, temperature and turbulence
DTime, torque and turbulence
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

In an Orsat apparatus, CO2 is absorbed by:

APotassium hydroxide solution
BAlkaline pyrogallol
CSulphuric acid
DCuprous chloride
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The period in a CI engine between the start of injection and the start of combustion is called:

AIgnition delay
BControlled combustion
CAfter-burning
DScavenging
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

Extinguishing a fire by shutting off the fuel supply is called:

AStarving
BSmothering
CBlanketing
DCooling
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

Carbon monoxide is dangerous mainly because it:

AIs a strong greenhouse gas only
BCombines with haemoglobin much more readily than oxygen
CCauses acid rain
DDepletes the ozone layer
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

Oxides of nitrogen are formed in engines mainly due to:

ALow combustion temperature
BHigh combustion temperature
CSulphur in fuel
DIncomplete combustion of carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

The main pollutants from diesel engines are:

ASO2 and CO only
BLead and CO
CCO and HC
DNOx and particulate matter
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1100Ch 9 · Combustion and Combustion Products

A three-way catalytic converter operates efficiently only when the air-fuel mixture is:

ANear stoichiometric
BVery lean
CPure air
DVery rich
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

Which hydrocarbon family has the best anti-knock quality for SI engines?

ANormal paraffins
BStraight-chain alkanes
CAromatics
DOlefins
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

Which hydrocarbons make the best diesel (CI) fuels?

AIso-paraffins
BStraight-chain (normal) paraffins
CBenzene
DAromatics
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

The octane number of iso-octane is:

A0
B100
C50
D120
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

The reference fuels for cetane number are:

ABenzene and toluene
BIso-octane and n-heptane
Cn-cetane and α-methylnaphthalene
DMethane and propane
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

Compared with MON, the RON of a petrol is usually:

ALower
BEqual
CHigher
DUnrelated
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

The refining process that converts naphtha into aromatics to raise octane number is:

ACatalytic reforming
BFractional distillation
CHydrocracking to diesel
DDewaxing
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

Amyl nitrate is added to diesel fuel to:

ALower the pour point
BRemove sulphur
CIncrease cetane number
DIncrease octane number
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

Before starting a diesel engine after the fuel system is opened, it is necessary to:

ADrain the fuel tank
BBleed air from the fuel system
CAdd oil to the fuel
DRemove the injectors
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

The lubrication system used in most automobile engines is:

APressure (forced-feed) lubrication
BPetroil lubrication
CGrease lubrication
DSplash lubrication only
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

In the oil grade SAE 20W-50, 'W' indicates:

AWeight of oil
BSuitability for winter (low-temperature) use
CWear index
DWater resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

In the API classification, engine oils for petrol (spark-ignition) engines carry the letter:

AW
BC
CG
DS
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1100Ch 9 · Engine Fuels

An engine has bsfc = 0.3 kg/kWh using fuel of CV 40,000 kJ/kg. Its brake thermal efficiency is:

A30%
B25%
C12%
D40%
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

ASulphur dioxide
BCarbon monoxide
CLead
DGround-level ozone
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

Photochemical smog is mainly formed by the reaction of:

ANOx and hydrocarbons in sunlight
BSO2 and fog
CCO2 and water vapour
DLead and dust
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

The most suitable device for removing fine fly-ash particles from power-plant flue gas with over 99% efficiency is:

AGravity settling chamber
BTall chimney
CElectrostatic precipitator
DSimple cyclone
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

SO2 in flue gases is commonly removed by:

AThree-way catalytic converter
BCyclone separator
CFlue-gas desulphurisation using limestone scrubbing
DElectrostatic precipitator
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

A temperature inversion in the atmosphere results in:

AStrong vertical mixing
BVery stable conditions that trap pollutants near the ground
CAcid rain formation only
DRapid dispersion of pollutants
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

The plume behaviour that brings pollutants down to ground level, considered the worst condition, is:

ALofting
BFanning
CFumigation
DConing
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

BOD is conventionally measured over:

A24 hours at 35 °C
B5 days at 20 °C
C1 hour at 100 °C
D10 days at 0 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

Excessive nitrogen and phosphorus in lakes lead to:

AAcid rain
BOzone depletion
CThermal inversion
DEutrophication
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

If two equal noise sources of 80 dB operate together, the combined level is about:

A160 dB
B86 dB
C80 dB
D83 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

The most preferred option in the solid waste management hierarchy is:

AIncineration
BWaste reduction (prevention)
COpen dumping
DSanitary landfill
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

The international treaty that phased out ozone-depleting substances is the:

ABasel Convention
BKyoto Protocol
CMontreal Protocol
DParis Agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

The Paris Agreement (2015) aims to limit global temperature rise to:

ANo specific limit
BExactly 3 °C
CWell below 2 °C, pursuing 1.5 °C
DBelow 5 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1100Ch 9 · Environment and Pollution Control

In Nepal, environmental assessment requirements (BES, IEE, EIA) are laid down by the:

ASolid Waste Management Act 2011 only
BNepal Engineering Council Act
CEnvironment Protection Act 2019 and Rules 2020
DLabour Act 2017
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1060 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1061 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1062 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1063 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1064 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1065 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1066 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1067 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1068 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1069 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 1070 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1071 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 1072 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1073 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1074 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1075 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 1076 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1077 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1078 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1079 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1080 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 1081 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 1082 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
Answer is hidden
Question 1083 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
Answer is hidden
Question 1084 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1085 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
Answer is hidden
Question 1086 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
Answer is hidden
Question 1087 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
Answer is hidden
Question 1088 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1089 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
Answer is hidden
Question 1090 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1091 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 1092 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1093 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
Answer is hidden
Question 1094 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1095 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1096 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
Answer is hidden
Question 1097 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1098 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 1099 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1100 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden