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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Information Technology Engineering

10 Chapters·946 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

When more resistors are connected in parallel, the total circuit resistance:

AIncreases
BDecreases
CStays the same
DDoubles
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A 12 V supply is connected across a 4 Ω resistor. What current flows?

A48 A
B8 A
C3 A
D0.33 A
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) states that the sum of voltages around any closed loop is:

AEqual to the supply voltage
BMaximum
CZero
DEqual to current
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Which of the following is a bilateral circuit element?

AResistor
BDiode
CNPN transistor
DMOSFET
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A 5 Ω resistor carries 2 A. The power dissipated is:

A10 W
B2.5 W
C40 W
D20 W
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Two resistors R₁ = 3 Ω and R₂ = 7 Ω are connected in series. Total resistance is:

A2.1 Ω
B10 Ω
C5 Ω
D21 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) is based on conservation of:

ACharge
BEnergy
CMass
DMomentum
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Two 8 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. Total resistance is:

A16 Ω
B8 Ω
C2 Ω
D4 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A circuit element that contains no energy source is called:

AActive
BPassive
CBilateral
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

In a series circuit, the quantity that is the same through all elements is:

AVoltage
BResistance
CCurrent
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Resistance of a wire is y. The wire is stretched to triple its length, then the resistance becomes:

Ay/3
B3y
C6y
Dy/6
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Consider a circuit with two unequal resistances in parallel, then:

ALarge current flows in large resistor
BCurrent is same in both
CSmaller resistance has smaller conductance
DPotential difference across each is same
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

In which of the following cases is Ohm's law not applicable?

AElectrolytes
BArc lamps
CInsulators
DVacuum ratio values
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Which of the following bulbs will have high resistance?

A220V, 60W
B220V, 100W
C115V, 60W
D115V, 100W
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ohm's law is not applicable to:

ADC circuits
BHigh currents
CSmall resistors
DSemi-conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Conductance is expressed in terms of:

Amho
Bmho/m
Cohm/m
Dm/ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Delta connection is also known as:

AY-connection
BMesh connection
CEither Y-connection or mesh connection
DNeither Y-connection nor mesh connection
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between B and C?

ARc+Rb+(Rc × Rb)/R
BRc+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
CR+Rb+(R × Rc)/Rb
DRc+Rb+(Rc × R)/Rb
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between A and C?

AR+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
BR+Rc+(R × Rc)/Rb
CR+Rb+(R × Rc)/R
DR+Rc+(R × Rb)/Rc
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Find the equivalent delta circuit for a star network with branches 4.53 ohm, 1.23 ohm, and 6.66 ohm:

A9.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
B10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
C9.69 ohm, 34.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
D10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 7.59 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Find the equivalent resistance between X and Y for the given network:

A3.33 ohm
B4.34 ohm
C5.65 ohm
D2.38 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between A and B?

ARc+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
BR+Rb+(R × Rc)/Rb
CR+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
DR+Rc+(R × Rc)/Rb
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

KCL is based on the fact that:

AThere is a possibility for a node to store energy.
BThere cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node.
CCharge accumulation is possible at node
DCharge accumulation may or may not be possible.
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a network is equal to:

AInfinity
B1
C0
DNegative polarity
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Relation between currents according to KCL for the node diagram is:

Ai=i=i=i=i
Bi+i+i=i+i
Ci-i=i-i-i
Di+i=i+i+i
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Solve and find the value of I for the series circuit:

A-0.5A
B0.5A
C-0.2A
D0.2A
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

All __________ are loops but __________ are not meshes:

ALoops, Meshes
BMeshes, loops
CBranches, loops
DNodes, Branches
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A junction where two (or) more than two network elements meet is known as a:

ANode
BBranch
CLoop
DMesh
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem replaces a complex network with a voltage source in:

ASeries with a resistance
BParallel with a resistance
CSeries with a capacitor
DParallel with a current source
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a purely capacitive AC circuit, the current:

ALags voltage by 90°
BIs in phase with voltage
CLeads voltage by 90°
DLags by 45°
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Maximum power is transferred to a load when its resistance equals:

AZero
BTwice the source resistance
CThe Thevenin source resistance
DInfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At series resonance, the circuit current is:

AZero
BMaximum
CMinimum
DEqual to reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Inductive reactance X as frequency increases:

ADecreases to zero
BStays constant
CBecomes negative
DIncreases
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is:

A2π√(LC)
B1/(2π√(LC))
C√(LC)/2π
D2πLC
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a purely inductive AC circuit, with respect to voltage, the current:

ALeads by 90°
BIs in phase
CLags by 90°
DLeads by 45°
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Reactive power is measured in:

AWatts (W)
BJoules (J)
CVA (Volt-Ampere)
DVAR (Volt-Ampere Reactive)
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton's theorem represents a network as a current source in parallel with:

AA voltage source
BA capacitor
CA resistance
DAn inductor
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Power factor is defined as:

AP/S = cosφ
BQ/S = sinφ
CS/P
DP × Q
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem converts a circuit into an equivalent form consisting of:

AA current source and a series resistance
BA voltage source and a parallel resistance
CA voltage source and a series resistance
DA current source and a parallel resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The application of Thevenin's theorem in a circuit results in:

AAn ideal voltage source
BAn ideal current source
CA current source and an impedance in parallel
DA voltage source and an impedance in series
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

While calculating Rth in Thevenin's theorem and Norton equivalent:

AAll independent sources are made dead
BOnly current sources are made dead
COnly voltage sources are made dead
DAll voltage and current sources are made dead
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem cannot be applied to:

ALinear circuit
BNon-linear circuit
CActive circuit
DPassive circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

While thevenizing a circuit between two terminals, Vth is equal to:

AShort circuit terminal voltage
BOpen circuit terminal voltage
CNet voltage available in the circuit
De.m.f. of the battery nearest to the terminals
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the Thevenin resistance across the terminal AB for the following circuit:

A4.34 ohm
B3.67 ohm
C3.43 ohm
D2.32 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the current across the 4 ohm resistor:

A0.86A
B1.23A
C2.22A
D0.67A
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The Thevenin voltage is the:

AOpen circuit voltage
BShort circuit voltage
COpen circuit and short circuit voltage
DNeither open circuit nor short circuit voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin resistance is found by:

AShorting all voltage sources
BOpening all current sources
CShorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
DOpening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem is true for:

ALinear neat networks
BNon-Linear networks
CBoth linear networks and nonlinear networks
DNeither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In Thevenin's theorem Vth is:

ASum of two voltage sources
BA single voltage source
CInfinite voltage sources
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Which of the following is also known as the dual of Thevenin's theorem?

ANorton's theorem
BSuperposition theorem
CMaximum power transfer theorem
DMillman's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The Norton current is the:

AShort circuit current
BOpen circuit current
COpen circuit and short circuit current
DNeither open circuit nor short circuit current
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton resistance is found by?

AShorting all voltage sources
BOpening all current sources
CShorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
DOpening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton's theorem is true for:

ALinear networks
BNon-Linear networks
CBoth linear networks and nonlinear networks
DNeither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In Norton's theorem ISC is:

ASum of two current sources
BA single current source
CInfinite current sources
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the Norton resistance for the following circuit if 5 ohm is the load resistance:

A10 ohm
B11 ohm
C12 ohm
D13 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Find the current in the 5 ohm resistance using Norton's theorem:

A1A
B1.5A
C0.25A
D0.5A
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Which of the following is also known as the dual of Norton's theorem?

AThevenin's theorem
BSuperposition theorem
CMaximum power transfer theorem
DMillman's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power drawn from source depends on:

AValue of source resistance
BValue of load resistance
CBoth source and load resistance
DNeither source or load resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power is delivered to a circuit when source resistance is __________ load resistance:

AGreater than
BEqual to
CLess than
DGreater than or equal to
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power is delivered to a circuit when source resistance is __________ load resistance:

AGreater than
BEqual to
CLess than
DGreater than or equal to
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate Eth:

A3.43V
B4.57V
C3.23V
D5.34V
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the maximum power transferred:

A1.79W
B4.55W
C5.67W
D3.78W
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Under the condition of maximum power efficiency is?

A100%
B0%
C30%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across R-L series circuit having R = X, the phase angle will be:

A90^\circ
B45^\circ lag
C45^\circ lead
D90^\circ leading
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A unit step voltage is applied at t=0 to a series R-L circuit with zero initial conditions:

AIt is possible for the current to be oscillatory
BThe voltage across the resistor at t = 0^+ is zero
CThe energy stored in the inductor in the steady-state is zero
DThe resistor current eventually falls to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At .......... frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive:

ALow
BVery low
CHigh
DVery high
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to........... of VR and VL:

APhasor sum
BArithmetic sum
CSum of the squares
DAlgebraic sum
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always............the applied voltage:

ALags
BLeads
CRemains in phase with
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely __________ circuit:

AResistive
BInductive
CCapacitive
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series of resonant circuit, with an increase in L:

AResonant frequency will decrease
BBand width will decrease
CQ will increase
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series resonant circuit with the increase in the value of C:

AResonant frequency will decrease
BQ will decrease
CBand width will increase
DBoth A and B
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In series as well as parallel resonance circuit, increase in resistance would cause:

AIncrease in bandwidth of both the circuits
BDecrease in bandwidth of both the circuits
CDecrease in bandwidth in series circuit and increase in bandwidth in parallel circuit
DIncrease in bandwidth in series circuit and decrease in bandwidth in parallel circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In order to tune a parallel resonant circuit to a lower frequency, the capacitance must:

ABe increased
BBe decreased
CBe zero
DRemain the same
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The dynamic resistance of a parallel resonant circuit is given by:

ALC/R
BLCR
CC/LR
DL/CR
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A parallel AC circuit in resonance will:

AHave current in each section equal to the line current
BHave a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
CAct like a resistor of low value
DHave a high impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Higher the Q of a series circuit:

ABroader its resonance curve
BNarrower its pass band
CGreater its bandwidth
DSharper its resonance
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A high Q coil has:

ALarge bandwidth
BHigh losses
CLow losses
DFlat response
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit is:

AZero
B0.08 lagging
C0.8 leading
DUnity
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit:

ADepends upon the magnitude of R
BDepends upon the magnitude of L
CDepends upon the magnitude of C
DDepends upon the magnitude of R, L and C
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a R-L-C circuit:

APower is consumed in resistance and is equal to I²R
BExchange of power takes place between Inductor and supply line
CExchange of power takes place between Capacitor and supply line
DExchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
EAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The quality factor of R-L-C circuit will increase if:

AR increases
BR decreases
CImpedance increases
DVoltage increases
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance:

Aω LC = 1
Bω² L² C² = 1
Cω² LC = 1
Dω L C² = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The power factor of a series R-L-C circuit at its half-power points is:

AUnity
BLagging
CLeading
DLagging or leading
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of a sinusoidal voltage with peak Vm is:

AVm / π
BVm / √2
C2Vm / π
DVm × √2
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

AC voltage is generated based on which law?

AFaraday's law of electromagnetic induction
BOhm's law
CKCL
DCoulomb's law
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The form factor of a pure sine wave is:

A0.707
B1.414
C1.11
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three-phase AC system, the three voltages are separated by:

A60°
B120°
C90°
D180°
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The period T of an AC waveform is related to frequency f by:

AT = f
BT = 2f
CT = f²
DT = 1/f
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a Star (Y) connected three-phase system, line voltage equals:

APhase voltage / √3
BPhase voltage
C√3 × phase voltage
D2 × phase voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The standard power supply frequency used in Nepal is:

A50 Hz
B60 Hz
C100 Hz
D25 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The average value of a sine wave over a positive half-cycle is approximately:

A0.5 Vm
B0.707 Vm
CVm
D0.637 Vm
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of an AC supply is significant because it is:

AAlways larger than the peak value
BThe same as the average value
CThe DC equivalent that produces the same heating effect
DUsed only in reactive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta (Δ) connection, line current equals:

APhase current / √3
BPhase current
CPhase current × 2
D√3 × phase current
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Power in a Three Phase Circuit =

AP = 3 × Vₚₕ × Iₚₕ × \cosφ
BP = √3 × V × I × \cosφ
CBoth A & B
DNone of The Above
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is:

AInfinite (∞)
BZero (0)
COne (1)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a star connected three phase AC circuit:

APhase voltage is equal to line voltage and phase current is three times the line current
BPhase voltage is 1/(√3) times line voltage and phase current is equal to line current
CPhase voltage is equal to line voltage and line current is equal to phase current
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase, delta connection:

ALine current is equal to phase current
BLine voltage is equal to phase voltage
CNone of the above
DLine voltage and line current is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a star connection network, consuming power of 1.8kW and power factor 0.5, the inductance and resistance of each coil at a supply voltage of 230 Volts, 60 Hz is:

A0.1H, 8 Ohms
B0.5H, 10 Ohms
C0.3H, 7.4 Ohms
D1H, 7 Ohms
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a three-phase delta connected load, fed from a star connected network, the power transferred to the load is:

A3 kW
B4.7 kW
C5 kW
D7 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a polyphase system, the number of Wattmeter required to measure power is equal to:

ANumber of wires
BOne less than number of wires
CNumber of phases
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

A polyphase system is generated by:

AHaving two or more generator windings separated by equal electrical angle.
BHaving generator windings at equal distances
CNone of the above
DA and C
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is:

AInfinite
BZero
COne
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase, delta connection:

ALine current is equal to phase current
BLine voltage is equal to phase voltage
CNone of the above
DLine voltage and line current is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In case of Short Circuit, Current will flow in the Circuit:

AZero
BVery Low
CNormal
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Ω (Ohm) is the Unit of:

AResistance (R)
BInductive Reactance (X)
CCapacitive Reactance (XC)
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Siemens or Mho (\mho) is the unit of?

AConductance
BAdmittance
CBoth A & B
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm's law?

ACapacitors
BInductors
CTransistors
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following is a correct representation of peak value in an AC Circuit?

ARMS value/Peak factor
BRMS value*Form factor
CRMS value/Form factor
DRMS value*Peak factor
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100 Hz?

A50
B100
C150
D200
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

What kind of quantity is an Electric potential?

AVector quantity
BTensor quantity
CScalar quantity
DDimensionless quantity
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following is a correct representation of average value in an AC Circuit?

ARMS value/Form factor
BRMS value*Form factor
CRMS value/Peak factor
DRMS value*Peak factor
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which type of semiconductor has holes as the majority charge carriers?

AIntrinsic
BN-type
CP-type
DMetal
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A silicon diode typically has a forward voltage drop of:

A0.3 V
B0.7 V
C1.2 V
D5.0 V
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The primary application of a diode in a power supply is:

AAmplification
BOscillation
CRectification (AC to DC)
DRegulation
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A BJT is classified as a ____ controlled device.

AVoltage
BCurrent
CLight
DMagnetic
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which BJT configuration gives the highest voltage gain and is most commonly used?

ACommon Base (CB)
BCommon Collector (CC)
CEmitter follower
DCommon Emitter (CE)
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Zener diode is operated in the ____ region to regulate voltage.

AForward bias
BSaturation
CReverse breakdown
DCutoff
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

CMOS technology is preferred in digital ICs primarily because of its:

AVery low power consumption
BHigh output impedance
CAbility to amplify RF signals
DHigh static power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A MOSFET is a ____ controlled device with very high input impedance.

ACurrent
BVoltage
CCharge
DTemperature
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The three terminals of a BJT are:

AGate, Source, Drain
BAnode, Cathode, Gate
CEmitter, Base, Collector
DSource, Sink, Base
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A PN junction diode blocks current when it is:

AForward biased
BAt room temperature
CShort circuited
DReverse biased
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How does a semiconductor behave at absolute zero?

AConductor
BInsulator
CSemiconductor
DProtection device
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Semiconductor acts as an insulator in the presence of impurities:

ATrue
BFalse
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How is the resistance of semiconductor classified?

AHigh resistance
BPositive temperature co-efficient
CNegative temperature co-efficient
DLow resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What are the charge carriers in semiconductors?

AElectrons and holes
BElectrons
CHoles
DCharges
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with pentavalent impurity?

AN-type semiconductor
BExtrinsic semiconductor
CP-type semiconductor
DInsulator
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with trivalent impurity?

AExtrinsic semiconductor
BInsulator
CN-type semiconductor
DP-type semiconductor
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance:

AGoes up
BGoes down
CRemains the same
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the semi-conductor:

ARemains the same
BIncreases
CDecreases
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The reverse current in a diode is of the order of:

AkA
BmA
CμA
DA
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about:

A2.5 V
B3 V
C10 V
D0.7 V
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A zener diode has:

AOne pn junction
BTwo pn junctions
CThree pn junctions
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A zener diode is used as:

AAn amplifier
BA voltage regulator
CA rectifier
DA multivibrator
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Why is there a sudden increase in current in Zener diode?

ADue to the rupture of ionic bonds
BDue to rupture of covalent bonds
CDue to viscosity
DDue to potential difference
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the semiconductor diode used as?

AOscillator
BAmplifier
CRectifier
DModulator
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is a Zener diode used as?

AOscillator
BRegulator
CRectifier
DFilter
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When a junction diode is reverse biased, what causes current across the junction?

ADiffusion of charges
BNature of material
CDrift of charges
DBoth drift and diffusion of charges
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

AActive region
BSaturation and cutoff regions
CBreakdown region
DLinear region
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

AAlpha
BBeta
CTheta
DNone of above
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

AStabilization
BAc signal bypass
CCollector bias
DHigher gain
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Question 141 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Voltage-divider bias provides:

AAn unstable Q point
BA stable Q point
CA Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
DA Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

AFixed resistor
BTuning device
CRectifier
DVariable resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which is beta's current ratio?

AIC/IB
BIC/I
CIB/I
DI/IB
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

AOut of the base lead
BInto the collector
CInto the emitter
DInto the base supply
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:

ACollector voltage
BBase current
CCollector resistance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Total emitter current is:

AI-IC
BIC+I
CIB+IC
DIB-IC
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the collector current for a C-E configuration with a beta of 100 and a base current of 30 μA?

A30\ μA
B.3\ μA
C3 mA
D3 MA
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following condition is true for cut-off mode?

AThe collector current is zero
BThe collector current is proportional to the base current
CThe base current is non zero
DAll of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a pnp transistor in the active region the value of Vce (potential difference between the collector and the base) is:

ALess than 0.3V
BLess than 3V
CGreater than 0.3V
DGreater than 3V
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Where should be the bias point set in order to make transistor work as an amplifier?

ACut off
BActive
CSaturation
DCut off and Saturation
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Q point can be set to work on active region requires particular conditions. What are they?

ABE reverse biased and BC forward biased
BBE reverse biased and BC reverse biased
CBE forward biased and BC reverse biased
DBE forward biased and BC forward biased
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a fixed bias circuit having RC=4.7KΩ and RB=1KΩ, VCC=10V and base current at Bias point was found to be 0.2μA, Find β?

A100
B106
C125
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Voltage divider bias circuit, having R1=R2=10 KΩ, RC=4.7 KΩ, R=1 KΩ, What is the value of collector current at saturation if VCC=10V?

A1A
B10mA
C0.87mA
D1mA
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Voltage divider circuit having RC=R1=R2=R=1KΩ, if VCC=20V, find IC when Vce=VCC?

A1mA
B2mA
C20mA
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is Stability factor?

ARatio of change in collector current to change in a current amplification factor
BRatio of change in collector current to change in base current
CCurrent amplification factor
DRatio of base current to collector current
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The collector current (IC) that is obtained in a collector to base biased transistor is:

A(VCC-VBE)/RB
B(VCC+VBE)/RB
C(VCE-VBE)/RB
D(VCE+VBE)/RB
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The demerit of a collector to base bias is:

AIts need of high resistance values
BIts dependence on β
CIts independence on β
DThe positive feedback produced by the base resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For emitter feedback bias, to make IC independent of DC current gain, which of the following condition is required?

AR \gg RB/dc current gain
BR \gg R/dc current gain
CRB \gg RC/dc current gain
DR \gg RC/dc current gain
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In order to make an amplifier which of the following biasing technique is used more?

AFixed bias
BSelf bias
CCollector to base bias
DEmitter feedback bias
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What will be the temperature changes effects on the emitter feedback circuit?

AIncreases voltage gain
BIncreases current gain
CDoes not affect the gain
DDecreases both current and voltage gain
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following statement is the main disadvantage of emitter feedback bias?

AReduces the gain
BPositive feedback
CDesign is difficult
DHigh output impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The thermal runway is avoided in a self-bias because:

Aof its independence of
Bof the positive feedback produced by the emitter resistor
Cof the negative feedback produced by the emitter resistor
Dof its dependence of β
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The stability factor for a self-biased transistor is:

ARB/R
BRₜₕ/R
C1 + Rₜₕ/R
D1 + R/Rₜₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following terminals does not belong to the MOSFET?

ADrain
BGate
CBase
DSource
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Question 166 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Choose the correct statement:

AMOSFET is an uncontrolled device
BMOSFET is a voltage controlled device
CMOSFET is a current controlled device
DMOSFET is a temperature controlled device
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Choose the correct statement:

AMOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, two terminal device
BMOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, three terminal device
CMOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, three terminal device
DMOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, two terminal device
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The controlling parameter in MOSFET is:

AVds
BIg
CVgs
DIs
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Question 169 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How does the MOSFET differ from the JFET?

AJFET has a p-n junction
BThey are both the same
CJFET is small in size
DMOSFET has a base terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The N-channel MOSFET is considered better than the P-channel MOSFET due to its:

ALow noise levels
BTTL compatibility
CLower input impedance
DFaster operation
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which factor/s play/s a crucial role in determining the speed of CMOS logic gate?

ALoad capacitance
BSupply voltage
CGain factor of MOS
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What will be the phase shift of feedback circuit in RC phase shift oscillator?

A360^\circ phase shift
B180^\circ phase shift
C90^\circ phase shift
D60^\circ phase shift
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How many RC stages are used in the RC phase shift oscillator?

ASix
BTwo
CFour
DThree
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Question 174 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Calculate the frequency of oscillation for RC phase shift oscillator having the value of R and C as 352 and 3.7μF respectively:

A1230 Hz
B204 Hz
C502Hz
D673 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The condition for zero phase shift in wein bridge oscillator is achieved by:

AConnecting feedback to non-inverting input terminal of op-amp
BBalancing the bridge
CApplying parallel combination of RC to the feedback network
DAll of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Only the condition β A = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ must be satisfied for self-sustained oscillations to result:

A0
B1
C-1
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

This stage network circuit diagram (with three cascading RC loops) is a __________ oscillator:

APhase-shift
BWien bridge
CColpitts
DHartley
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The feedback signal in a(n) __________ oscillator is derived from an inductive voltage divider in the LC circuit:

AHartley
BArmstrong
CColpitts
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a phase-shift oscillator, the gain of the amplifier stage must be greater than:

A19
B29
C30
D1
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Question 180 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the minimum frequency at which a crystal will oscillate?

ASeventh harmonic
BThird harmonic
CFundamental
DSecond harmonic
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The bridge circuit diagram showing an op-amp with components R1, C1, R2, C2 is a __________ oscillator:

APhase-shift
BWien bridge
CColpitts
DHartley
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How a triangular wave generator is derived from square wave generator?

AConnect oscillator at the output
BConnect Voltage follower at the output
CConnect differential at the output
DConnect integrator at the output
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Output of an integrator producing waveforms of unequal rise and fall time are called:

ATriangular waveform
BSawtooth waveform
CPulsating waveform
DSpiked waveform
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following is required for oscillation?

Aβ A > 1
BThe phase shift around the feedback network must be 180°.
CBoth β A > 1 and the phase shift around the feedback network must be 180°.
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator converts:

Aa.c. power into d.c. power
Bd.c. power into a.c. power
CMechanical power into a.c. power
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is:

ALC tank circuit
BBiasing circuit
CTransistor
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC circuit, when the capacitor energy is maximum, the inductor energy is..........

AMinimum
BMaximum
CHalf-way between maximum and minimum
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is __________ L or C:

AProportional to square of
BDirectly proportional to
CIndependent of the values of
DInversely proportional to square root of
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Question 189 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator produces.... oscillations:

ADamped
BUndamped
CModulated
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator employs...... feedback:

APositive
BNegative
CNeither positive nor negative
DData insufficient
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Question 191 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Hartley oscillator is commonly used in..

ARadio receivers
BRadio transmitters
CTV receivers
DNone of the above
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Question 192 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a phase shift oscillator, we use __________ RC sections:

ATwo
BThree
CFour
DNone of the above
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Question 193 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Wien bridge oscillator uses __________ feedback:

AOnly positive
BOnly negative
CBoth positive and negative
DNone of the above
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Question 194 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is..

AA voltage developed because of mechanical stress
BA change in resistance because of temperature
CA change in frequency because of temperature
DNone of the above
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Question 195 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal has __________ temperature coefficient:

APositive
BZero
CNegative
DNone of the above
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Question 196 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to __________ of the crystal:

ARigidity
BVibrations
CLow Q
DHigh Q
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it:

AHas more gain
BRequires no input signal
CRequires no D.C. supply
DAlways has the same input
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Question 198 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be:

A1
BGreater than 1
CLess than 1
DEqual to attenuation of feedback circuit
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Question 199 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A class A power amplifier uses:

ATwo transistors
BOne transistor
CThree transistors
DFour transistors
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Question 200 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class A power amplifier is:

A5%
B35%
C25%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power amplifier is:

A50%
B25%
C30%
D5%
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Power amplifiers handle __________ signals compare to voltage amplifiers:

ASmall
BLarge
CVery small
DEqual
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Question 203 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In class A operation, the operating point is generally located __________ of the D.C. load line:

AAt cut off point
BC. load line: A. At cut off point B.
Cload line: A. At cut off point B. At the middle C. At saturation point
DIn active region
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A power amplifier has comparatively __________ β:

ASmall
BLarge
CVery large
DSame
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Question 205 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A class A power amplifier is sometimes called:

AReciprocating
BSingle ended
CSymmetrical
DDifferential
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class A power amplifier is:

A25%
B10%
C0%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum A.C. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used?

A20W
BC. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used? A. 20W B.
Cpower output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used? A. 20W B. 5 W C. 25W
D50W
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The most costly coupling is __________ coupling:

ATransformer
BImpedance
CRC
DDirect
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Where does the Q point lie for class B amplifier?

AActive
BCut off
CSaturation
DBetween saturation and active
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What happens when class B amplifier is in a quiescent state?

ANo current flows through the transistor
BMaximum current flows through the transistor
CHalf of the maximum current flows through the transistor
DQuarter of the maximum current flows
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the value of the maximum efficiency of the class B amplifier?

A25%
B35%
C50%
D78.5% (Note: Written as 50% to 70% in text options, correct dynamic limit is 78.5%)
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What kind of design is used to avoid transformer usage?

AHigh resistance
BMatched load
CComplementary symmetry
DCapacitive Model
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is cross over distortion?

AEffect occurred during switching of transistor after every half cycle
BDistortion occurred due to resistors
CDistortion occurred due to Capacitors
DDistortion occurred due to Inductors
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How to avoid cross over distortion?

ABy using more resistance
BBy using more capacitance
CBy using more Inductance
DBy shifting the Q point above cut off
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Class B amplifier, the utilized lead power is 300W and the Dc power is 500W, find efficiency:

A30%
B60%
C90%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the conduction angle for Class B push-pull amplifier?

A0
B90
C180
D270
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A power transistor is a:

AThree layer, three junction device
BThree layer, two junction device
CTwo layer, one junction device
DFour layer, three junction device
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a power transistor, if base current IB is increased keeping Vce constant, then:

AIc increases
BIc decreases
CIc remains constant
DIc changes sinusoidal
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Insulated-gate bipolar transistor (IGBT) has combinational advantages of:

ABJTs and SITs
BBJTs and MOSFETS
CSITs and MOSFETS
DFETs and BJTs
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Gate Turn Off (GTO) can be turned on by applying:

APositive gate signal
BPositive drain signal
CPositive source signal
DNegative source signal
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The turn on time of an SCR with inductive load is 20 μs. The pulse train frequency is 2.5 KHz with mark/space ratio of 1/10, and then SCR will:

ATurn On
BNot turn on
CTurn on if inductance is removed
DTurn on if pulse frequency is increased to two times
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What are the three terminals of a power MOSFET called?

ACollector, emitter, Gate
BDrain, source, gate
CCollector, emitter, base
DDrain, emitter, base
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A thyristor can be termed as:

AAC switch
BDC switch
CWave switch
DSquare wave switch
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

An oscillator converts:

AAC to DC
BDC to AC (continuous waveform)
CCurrent to voltage only
DHigh frequency to low frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

For sustained oscillation, the Barkhausen criterion requires the loop gain |Aβ| to be:

AGreater than 1
BZero
CLess than 1
DEqual to 1
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Which oscillator provides the BEST frequency stability?

AHartley oscillator
BColpitts oscillator
CCrystal oscillator
DWien bridge oscillator
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Oscillators use which type of feedback to sustain oscillations?

APositive feedback
BNegative feedback
CNo feedback
DInverse feedback
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Question 228 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

RC oscillators are primarily used for:

AMicrowave frequencies
BRadio (RF) frequencies
CZero frequency (DC)
DLow (audio) frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

A Colpitts oscillator uses which component as the tapped (split) feedback element?

AInductor
BCapacitor
CResistor
DTransformer
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

LC oscillators are suitable for generating:

AAudio frequencies
BDC signals
CZero frequency
DHigh (radio) frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

A Hartley oscillator uses which component in a tapped configuration?

AInductor
BCapacitor
CResistor
DDiode
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

For sustained oscillation, the total phase shift around the feedback loop must be:

A45° or 90°
B0° or 360°
C180° only
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Crystal oscillators are commonly used in microprocessors because:

AThey are the cheapest option
BThey operate at DC
CThey provide highly stable and accurate frequency
DThey work only at audio range
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A Class A amplifier conducts for what portion of the input cycle?

ALess than 180°
B180°
C360° (full cycle)
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Which amplifier class is most efficient but only used in RF applications?

AClass C
BClass A
CClass AB
DClass B
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Crossover distortion is a characteristic problem of which amplifier class?

AClass A
BClass B
CClass C
DTuned amplifiers
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

An ideal op-amp has an open-loop gain that is:

AZero
BUnity (1)
C100
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Class AB amplifiers are designed to solve which problem of Class B?

ALow gain
BCrossover distortion
CHigh cost
DLow frequency response
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

The two input terminals of an operational amplifier are:

ASource and drain
BBase and emitter
CAnode and cathode
DInverting (−) and non-inverting (+)
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

An ideal op-amp has an input impedance that is:

AInfinite
BZero
CEqual to output impedance
D50 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A push-pull output stage uses:

AOne transistor for the whole cycle
BA diode as the active element
CAn LC tank circuit
DTwo transistors — one for each half-cycle
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

When negative feedback is applied to an op-amp, both inputs are driven to approximately the same voltage. This is called:

ACrossover effect
BVirtual short
CResonance
DSaturation
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A tuned amplifier amplifies signals:

AAt all frequencies equally
BOnly at DC
CWithin a narrow band around its resonant frequency
DOnly above 1 MHz
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

When a cylinder is unrolled (opened in rope form), what shape is formed?

AInvolute
BHelix
CCycloid
DRectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

How many transistors does a class B push-pull amplifier use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In which region does a class B amplifier operate?

ASaturation
BCut-off
CActive
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which quantity remains constant (same) throughout a series circuit?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In a star (Y) connected three-phase system, what is the relationship between line voltage (V) and phase voltage (Vₚₕ)?

AV = Vₚₕ
BV = √3 × Vₚₕ
CV = Vₚₕ / √3
DV = 3 × Vₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the primary advantage of CMOS logic technology?

AHighest switching speed
BMinimum power consumption
CHighest noise margin
DMaximum fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What type of feedback do oscillators use to sustain oscillations?

ANegative
BPositive
CZero
DMixed
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which theorem gives the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load?

ANorton's Theorem
BThevenin's Theorem
CMaximum Power Transfer Theorem
DSuperposition Theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

According to Ohm's Law, which relationship is correct?

ACurrent = Voltage / Resistance
BResistance = Voltage × Current
CVoltage = Current / Resistance
DPower = Voltage + Current
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three equal resistors in series dissipate 10 W. How much power do they dissipate when connected in parallel (same supply voltage)?

A10 W
B30 W
C90 W
D270 W
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A semiconductor is primarily used for:

AStoring electrical energy
BConverting AC to DC
CControlling electrical current
DAmplifying magnetic fields
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Two copper wires of the same length have cross-sectional area ratio 1 : 4. What is the ratio of their resistances (small : large)?

A1 : 4
B1 : 2
C4 : 1
D2 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A wire has resistance 40 Ω. Another wire of the same length has 4× the cross-sectional area. What is the resistance of the second wire?

A160 Ω
B40 Ω
C20 Ω
D10 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The Superposition Theorem is NOT applicable to which type of circuit analysis?

APower calculations
BVoltage calculations
CCurrent calculations
DResistive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The current through a capacitor is known as:

AConduction current
BLeakage current
CDisplacement current
DEddy current
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A bridge rectifier operating at 50 Hz produces an output of:

A50 Hz pulsating DC
B100 Hz pulsating DC
C25 Hz pulsating DC
DPure DC
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

An inductor and resistor are connected in series and a DC voltage V is applied. At steady state, what is the current?

AV/R
BV/(R+XL)
CZero
DV/XL
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected in delta. What is the equivalent resistance between any two terminals?

A2 Ω
B1.333 Ω
C6 Ω
D3 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A 1 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 3 Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance?

A4 Ω
B0.75 Ω
C2 Ω
D1.5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) when the reflection coefficient is 0.8?

A1.8
B4.5
C0.8
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A transmission line has Z₀ = 50 Ω and termination impedance Za = 75 Ω. What is the SWR and reflection coefficient?

ASWR = 1.5, RC = 0.2
BSWR = 2.5, RC = 0.4
CSWR = 1.5, RC = 0.5
DSWR = 3, RC = 0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The hexadecimal number F is equal to which decimal value?

A10
B12
C14
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates because:

AThey are the fastest gates
BAny logic function can be built using only one of them
CThey work on both AC and DC
DThey have the lowest power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The 2's complement of a binary number is used in digital systems to represent:

AFloating point numbers
BHexadecimal fractions
CNegative integers
DASCII characters
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

An XOR gate produces output 1 only when its inputs are:

ABoth 0
BBoth 1
CDifferent from each other
DThe same
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

How many binary bits does one hexadecimal digit represent?

A4
B8
C2
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

According to De Morgan's theorem, (A + B)' equals:

AA' + B'
BA · B
CA' · B'
D(A · B)'
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

A Karnaugh map simplifies Boolean expressions by:

AConverting decimal to binary
BGrouping adjacent 1s in powers of 2
CCounting logic gates
DImplementing flip-flops
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The decimal number 13 in binary is:

A1011
B1100
C1010
D1101
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

An AND gate with inputs A=1 and B=0 produces output:

A1
B0
CUndefined
DDepends on temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The 2's complement of the binary number 0110 is:

A1001
B1111
C0110
D1010
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A 4-to-1 multiplexer requires how many select lines?

A2
B4
C1
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

The Sum output of a half adder is produced by which gate?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A 3-to-8 decoder has 3 input lines and ____ output lines.

A3
B6
C8
D24
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

What distinguishes a full adder from a half adder?

AFull adder uses fewer gates
BFull adder accepts a carry-in input
CFull adder works with hexadecimal
DFull adder has only one output
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

The Carry output of a half adder is produced by which gate?

AXOR
BAND
COR
DNOT
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A demultiplexer routes data from:

AMany inputs to one output
BOne input to one of many outputs
CParallel to serial
DTwo inputs to one output
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

An 8-to-3 encoder has 8 input lines and how many output lines?

A8
B4
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

In hardware, binary subtraction is performed by:

AAdding 1's complement
BDirect subtraction gates
CShifting right
DAdding the 2's complement
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

Combinational circuits differ from sequential circuits in that they have:

AMore inputs
BNo memory — outputs depend only on current inputs
CAlways exactly two outputs
DA clock signal
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

In 2's complement signed numbers, a 1 in the most significant bit (MSB) indicates:

AAn overflow error
BA large positive number
CZero
DA negative number
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Sequential circuits produce outputs that depend on:

ACurrent inputs only
BCurrent inputs AND stored past state
CThe power supply level
DTemperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In an SR flip-flop, which input combination must never be applied?

AS=0, R=1
BS=1, R=0
CS=0, R=0
DS=1, R=1
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A JK flip-flop with J=1 and K=1 applied will:

ASet output to 1
BReset output to 0
CToggle its output
DEnter a forbidden state
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A D flip-flop's output Q on a clock edge will be:

AAlways 1
BEqual to the input D at that moment
CThe complement of D
DWhatever it was before
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A flip-flop differs from a latch in that a flip-flop is:

ASlower
BLevel-triggered
CEdge-triggered
DWithout any clock
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An n-bit binary counter can count how many distinct states?

An
B
C2n
D2ⁿ
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In a ripple (asynchronous) counter, each flip-flop is clocked by:

AA common external clock
BThe output of the previous flip-flop
CA separate crystal
DThe input data
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A register stores data using a group of:

ALogic gates only
BDiodes
CDecoders
DFlip-flops sharing a common clock
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Which flip-flop is most commonly used as the basic cell of a synchronous counter?

ASR flip-flop
BD flip-flop
CT (Toggle) flip-flop
DMaster-slave SR
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Synchronous counters are preferred over ripple counters mainly because they are:

ACheaper to build
BSimpler in design
CFaster (no cumulative propagation delay)
DSmaller in size
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Program Counter (PC) in a microprocessor holds:

AThe result of the last arithmetic operation
BThe address of the NEXT instruction to be fetched
CThe top of the stack
DThe current interrupt status
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The address bus in the 8085 microprocessor is:

A8-bit and bidirectional
B8-bit and unidirectional
C16-bit and bidirectional
D16-bit and unidirectional
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

Arithmetic and logic operations in a microprocessor are performed by the:

AALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
BProgram Counter
CStack Pointer
DControl bus
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

A microprocessor with 16 address lines can directly address how much memory?

A16 KB
B32 KB
C128 KB
D64 KB
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

Assembly language uses ____ in place of binary machine code.

AMnemonics (e.g., MOV, ADD, JMP)
BHigh-level constructs
CFlowcharts
DHexadecimal only
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Intel 8085 is classified as a(n) ____ microprocessor.

A4-bit
B16-bit
C8-bit
D32-bit
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Question 301 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Stack Pointer (SP) register points to:

AThe next instruction address
BThe top of the stack in memory
CThe last arithmetic result
DThe interrupt vector table
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The tool that translates assembly language into machine code is called a(n):

ACompiler
BInterpreter
CLinker
DAssembler
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

After a CALL instruction in 8085, where is the return address saved?

AIn the accumulator
BOn the stack
CIn the flag register
DIn ROM
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Question 304 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Zero flag in the 8085 flag register is set when:

AAn overflow occurs
BThe result is negative
CThe result of the last operation is zero
DA carry is generated
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

DRAM requires periodic refreshing because it stores bits as:

AMagnetic domains
BCross-coupled flip-flop states
CCapacitor charges that leak
DOptical patterns
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

DMA is used primarily to:

AIncrease CPU clock speed
BTransfer data between I/O and memory without CPU involvement
CReplace the operating system
DRefresh DRAM
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Which memory is used for the CPU cache?

ADRAM
BSRAM
CEEPROM
DFlash
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Asynchronous serial communication uses ____ to frame each transmitted character.

AA shared clock signal
BDMA handshaking
CParity words
DStart bit and stop bit(s)
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

The Intel 8255 PPI provides:

ASerial communication ports
BDMA transfer capability
CThree programmable parallel I/O ports
DInterrupt priority logic
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Which memory type retains data after the power is switched off?

ANon-volatile memory (ROM, Flash)
BDRAM
CSRAM
DCPU registers
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Parallel interface is preferred over serial when:

AVery long cable distances are involved
BFewer connector pins are available
CHigh speed transfer over short distances is needed
DLow pin count is critical
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

When a DMA controller takes over the system bus, the CPU:

AContinues executing instructions normally
BResets itself
CHalts or pauses (bus cycle stolen)
DStarts refreshing DRAM
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

The correct order from fastest to slowest in the memory hierarchy is:

ARAM → Cache → Registers → Disk
BCache → Registers → RAM → Disk
CRegisters → Cache → RAM → Disk
DDisk → RAM → Cache → Registers
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

RS-232 is a standard for which type of communication?

AParallel I/O
BSerial communication (asynchronous)
CDMA signalling
DMemory bus protocol
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

When an interrupt occurs, the CPU first:

AResets all registers
BImmediately jumps to the ISR
CIgnores all further instructions
DCompletes the current instruction, then saves PC and jumps to ISR
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Interrupts are more efficient than polling because:

AThey use less hardware
BThe CPU only responds when there is actually something to handle
CThey work without a clock
DThey are always faster to implement
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The routine that handles an interrupt is called the:

AInterrupt Service Routine (ISR)
BMain program
CBoot loader
DReset handler
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

In the Intel 8085, TRAP has the highest interrupt priority because it is:

AThe only software interrupt
BMaskable and vectored
CNon-maskable and vectored
DThe slowest to respond
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Before jumping to an ISR, the CPU saves the return address by pushing it onto the:

AAccumulator
BFlag register
CData bus
DStack
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A software interrupt in the 8085 is triggered by:

AAn external hardware signal
BA power failure
CAn RST instruction in the program
DA DMA request
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A maskable interrupt can be temporarily disabled by the CPU using:

AA hardware power switch
BA DI (Disable Interrupts) instruction
CRemoving the interrupt source
DResetting the program counter
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

In a vectored interrupt system, the address of the ISR is:

ARandomly generated each time
BStored in the accumulator
CFixed and predefined in hardware or a vector table
DSupplied by the interrupting device at runtime
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

After the ISR finishes, control returns to the interrupted program using a:

AJMP (Jump) instruction
BRET or RETI (Return) instruction
CHLT (Halt) instruction
DRESET signal
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The correct 8085 interrupt priority order from highest to lowest is:

AINTR > RST5.5 > RST6.5 > RST7.5 > TRAP
BRST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5 > TRAP > INTR
CTRAP > RST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5 > INTR
DTRAP > INTR > RST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many NOT gates are required to build a 2:1 Multiplexer?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many 2-input NAND gates are contained in a standard 7400 TTL IC?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In TTL logic, what is the input voltage range for a logic LOW (active LOW level)?

A0 V to 0.8 V
B0 V to 1.5 V
C2 V to 5 V
D0.8 V to 2 V
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

When an invalid BCD code (1010–1111) is detected and auto-corrected, what value is added?

A0110 (6)
B0001 (1)
C1010 (10)
D0100 (4)
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the terminal (reset) state of a MOD-10 (decade) counter?

A1010
B1001
C1000
D0111
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the minimum number of flip-flops (memory blocks) required to build a MOD-6 ripple counter?

A2
B3
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

An SR flip-flop is also called a:

AMonostable multivibrator
BBistable multivibrator
CAstable multivibrator
DSchmitt trigger
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

A JK flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 is clocked at 20 kHz. What is the output waveform and its frequency?

ASine wave at 20 kHz
BSquare wave at 20 kHz
CSine wave at 10 kHz
DSquare wave at 10 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the duty cycle of an ideal astable multivibrator?

A25%
B50%
C75%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which of the following is NOT a valid operation of flip-flops?

ASet
BReset
CToggle
DMultiply
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The TRAP interrupt in 8085 microprocessor is:

AEdge-triggered only
BLevel-triggered (high level)
CMaskable
DSoftware interrupt
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Small-Scale Integration (SSI) refers to ICs with how many transistors?

ALess than 10
B10–99
C100–999
D1000+
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, a signal that represents a bus (multi-bit connection) is declared as:

AVariable
BSignal
CConstant
DGeneric
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, the primary design unit that represents a hardware block's interface (ports and generics) is called:

AArchitecture
BPackage
CComponent
DEntity
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The shadow mask technique is used in:

ALCD panels
BCRT displays
COLED displays
DPlasma screens
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Left-shifting an unsigned binary number by 1 bit is equivalent to:

ADividing by 2
BMultiplying by 2
CAdding 1
DSubtracting 1
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The expression x << 3 is equivalent to:

Ax × 8
Bx × 3
Cx + 3
Dx / 8
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which logic gate is commonly used for parity checking and overflow detection?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

Which loop in C is guaranteed to execute its body at least once?

Afor loop
Bwhile loop
Cdo-while loop
DAll loops guarantee at least one execution
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

In C, the printf format specifier to print a floating-point number is:

A%f
B%d
C%c
D%s
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A recursive function without a base case will cause:

AA compilation error
BAn infinite loop producing correct output
CSlow but correct execution
DInfinite recursion leading to a stack overflow
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

In C, arrays are indexed starting from:

A1
B0
C-1
DDepends on declaration
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

The string "Hello" in C memory is stored as:

AH, e, l, l, o
BH, e, l, l, o, EOF
CH, e, l, l, o, \0
D5 bytes with no terminator
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

Which of the following is NOT a valid looping construct in C?

Arepeat-until
Bwhile
Cfor
Ddo-while
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

C passes function arguments by value, which means the function receives:

AA reference to the original variable
BThe original variable itself
CA pointer by default
DA copy of the argument
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

The switch statement in C works with which data types?

Afloat and double
Bint and char (integral types)
CAny data type
DOnly int
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

In a 2D array a[3][4], how many total elements are stored?

A7
B3
C12
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

The C function strcpy() is used to:

ACompare two strings
BCopy one string into another
CCalculate string length
DConcatenate strings
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

Which operator in C retrieves the memory address of a variable?

A* (dereference)
B& (address-of)
C-> (arrow)
D. (dot)
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

How does a C structure differ from a union?

AStructures can only hold int; unions can hold any type
BStructures use -> for access; unions use .
CThey are identical in behavior
DEach struct member has own memory; union members share memory
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

Passing a pointer to a function in C allows the function to:

AModify the original variable in the caller
BReceive a copy of the pointer only
CAccess only global variables
DReturn multiple return values through keywords
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

The expression a[i] in C is equivalent to:

A*a[i]
B&(a + i)
C*(a + i)
Da + i
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

To open a file for reading in C, the fopen() mode string is:

A"w"
B"r"
C"a"
D"rw"
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

The size of a union is determined by:

AThe size of its LARGEST member
BThe sum of all member sizes
CThe size of the first declared member
DAlways 8 bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

Which C function is used to move to a specific position in a file for random access?

Afread()
Bfscanf()
Cfgets()
Dfseek()
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

To access a structure member through a pointer in C, you use:

A. (dot operator)
B* (dereference)
C-> (arrow operator)
D& (address-of)
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

If int *p and sizeof(int) is 4 bytes, then p+1 points to the address:

A4 bytes after p
B1 byte after p
CSame address as p
D2 bytes after p
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, Structure and Data Files in C

Which declaration correctly defines a pointer to an integer in C?

Aint p;
Bint *p;
C*int p;
Dint& p;
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

Which OOP principle hides implementation details and exposes only the essential interface?

AInheritance
BPolymorphism
CEncapsulation
DAbstraction
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

A constructor in C++ is automatically called:

AOnly when explicitly invoked
BWhen the object is destroyed
CWhen an object is created
DOnly in derived classes
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

Which access specifier makes a member accessible from anywhere in the program?

Apublic
Bprivate
Cprotected
Dfriend
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

Inheritance in OOP represents which type of relationship?

AHAS-A relationship
BIS-A relationship
CUSES-A relationship
DPART-OF relationship
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

The this pointer in a C++ member function refers to:

AThe base class object
BThe static member
CThe object that invoked the member function
DThe most recently constructed object
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

A static data member in a C++ class is:

AShared across all objects of the class (one copy)
BPrivate to each individual object
CInitialized to zero only
DOnly accessible in the constructor
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

The destructor in C++ is called automatically when:

AAn object is created
BA constructor fails
CThe program starts
DAn object goes out of scope or is deleted
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

Polymorphism in OOP means:

AOne class inheriting from many base classes
BOne interface with multiple different implementations
CHiding data from external access
DCopying object state to another object
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

The JVM (Java Virtual Machine) is responsible for:

ACompiling Java source code to machine code directly
BStoring the Java development tools
CRunning Java bytecode on any platform
DManaging database connections
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 946Ch 3 · OOP Fundamentals and Frameworks

A friend function in C++ has which special privilege?

AIt becomes a member of the class
BIt can access the private and protected members of the class
CIt is inherited by all derived classes
DIt must be declared as static
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

Which email protocol is used to SEND outgoing email?

ASMTP
BPOP3
CIMAP
DFTP
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

HTTPS provides security over HTTP by:

AUsing port 80 instead of 443
BRemoving cookies
CEncrypting data in transit using TLS
DBlocking all GET requests
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

JavaScript code in a web application executes on the:

AWeb server
BClient's browser
CDatabase server
DDNS server
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

PHP is classified as a:

AClient-side scripting language
BMarkup language
CCompiled machine-code language
DServer-side scripting language
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

The DOM (Document Object Model) is used by JavaScript to:

AConnect to a MySQL database
BSend email via SMTP
CDynamically access and modify HTML elements
DManage PHP sessions
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

IMAP is preferred over POP3 for email because IMAP:

AKeeps emails on the server, enabling multi-device sync
BDeletes emails after download for efficiency
CWorks without an internet connection
DSends emails faster
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

Which HTTP method is used to submit form data to a web server?

AGET
BPOST
CPUT
DDELETE
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

A PHP session stores user data on the:

AClient's browser cookie
BClient's local storage
CDNS server
DWeb server
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

In web development, CRUD stands for:

ACreate, Run, Update, Deploy
BCode, Read, Use, Delete
CCreate, Read, Update, Delete
DCompile, Run, Upload, Debug
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 946Ch 3 · Fundamentals of Web Technology

A Content Management System (CMS) like WordPress is used to:

AConfigure DNS records
BManage and publish web content without manual coding
CCompile PHP to machine code
DMonitor network traffic
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

A virtual function in C++ enables:

ACompile-time function overloading
BStatic memory allocation
CRuntime polymorphism (dynamic dispatch)
DFile stream operations
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

An abstract class in C++ is one that:

AHas no data members
BContains at least one pure virtual function
CCannot have a constructor
DHas only static member functions
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

A pure virtual function in C++ is declared as:

Avirtual void f() = 0;
Bvoid virtual f();
Cpure virtual void f();
Dabstract void f();
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

To open a C++ file stream for APPENDING data, which mode flag is used?

Aios::in
Bios::out
Cios::trunc
Dios::app
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

Which C++ stream class is used specifically to READ from a file?

Aofstream
Bifstream
Ciostream
Dostream
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

Can an abstract class in C++ be directly instantiated?

AYes, always
BYes, if it has a public constructor
CNo — it cannot be instantiated
DYes, using dynamic allocation only
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

The <iomanip> manipulator setprecision(2) in C++ controls:

AThe number of decimal places shown in floating-point output
BThe minimum field width of output
CThe binary precision of a float
DThe text alignment (left or right)
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

The vtable (virtual table) in C++ stores:

AVariable names and types
BClass hierarchy names
CStatic member values
DPointers to virtual function implementations
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

In C++, to write a binary object directly to a file, you use:

Afprintf()
Bstream.write()
Cprintf()
Dstream <<
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 946Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Functions and File Handling in C++

In the C++ stream class hierarchy, which class is the ultimate base for all streams?

Aifstream
Bfstream
Cios
Dostream
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

The primary benefit of function templates in C++ is:

AAvoiding virtual functions
BWriting one function that works for multiple data types
CHandling runtime exceptions
DAccessing private class members
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

In C++ exception handling, the keyword used to signal an error is:

Athrow
Bcatch
Ctry
Draise
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

In the STL, iterators serve as the bridge between:

AClasses and objects
BConstructors and destructors
CInput and output streams
DContainers and algorithms
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

The catch(...) syntax in C++ catches:

AOnly integer exceptions
BOnly std::exception types
CAny type of exception
DOnly exceptions from the STL
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

A class template in C++ enables you to:

ACreate a single class that works with any data type
BOverride virtual functions
CHandle multiple exceptions
DAccess protected members
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

Inside a catch block, a bare throw; statement (no argument):

ARe-throws the currently caught exception
BTerminates the program immediately
CCreates a new default exception
DReturns to the try block
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

Which of the following is an STL container?

Asort()
Biterator
Cvector
Dfind()
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

When a thrown exception has no matching catch block anywhere in the call stack, C++ calls:

Aexit()
Babort()
Cunexpected()
Dterminate()
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

Multiple catch blocks after a single try block allow you to:

AHandle the same exception multiple times
BHandle different exception types with different logic
CPrevent exceptions from propagating
DCatch exceptions from all nested functions
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 946Ch 3 · Generic Programming and Exception Handling

The STL algorithm sort() belongs to which STL component?

AContainer
BIterator
CAlgorithm
DAdaptor
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

When an interrupt occurs, the CPU transfers execution to:

AInterrupt Service Routine (ISR)
BMain program counter
CStack pointer
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8086 microprocessor operates in which two modes?

AReal mode and Protected mode
BMinimum mode and Maximum mode
CUser mode and Kernel mode
DSingle-bus and Multi-bus mode
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Assembly language source code is translated to machine code by:

AAssembler
BCompiler
CInterpreter
DLinker
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI) provides which type of interface?

APhysical
BLogical
CSerial
DOptical
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) architecture is characterized by:

AComplex variable-length instructions and small register file
BLarge number of registers, fixed instruction size, and pipelining
CMicrocode-based execution and many addressing modes
DSlow clock speed and large instruction cache
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

What does the Address Generation Unit (AGU) in a CPU do?

AExecutes floating-point operations
BComputes effective memory addresses
CManages cache replacement
DDecodes instruction opcodes
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Pipelining in CPU design is also known as:

AParallel processing
BMultiprogramming
CAssembly-line operation / Instruction overlapping
DSuperscalar execution
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

How many signal wires does the I²C (Inter-Integrated Circuit) bus use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

A microprocessor fetches its next instruction from:

ACache memory
BRegister file
CMain memory (RAM)
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In an SPI bus running at 5 MHz with 8-bit frames, what is the time taken per bit?

A0.02 μs
B0.2 μs
C2 μs
D20 μs
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Which circuit inside the CPU performs arithmetic and logical operations?

AControl Unit
BALU
CRegister File
DMemory Controller
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In floating-point multiplication, the correct sequence of operations is:

AAdd exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize and round
BMultiply exponents, add mantissas, then normalize
CSubtract exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize
DMultiply mantissas, multiply exponents, then round
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

The CIA triad in information security stands for:

AConfidentiality, Integrity, Availability
BControl, Identification, Authentication
CConfidentiality, Integration, Access
DCompliance, Integrity, Auditing
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Which type of IS control detects incidents after or during they occur?

APreventive control
BDetective control
CCorrective control
DDeterrent control
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Authentication and authorization differ in that:

AAuthentication grants permissions; authorization verifies identity
BAuthorization comes before authentication
CAuthentication verifies identity; authorization determines what a user can do
DThey are synonymous terms
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Multi-factor authentication requires at least:

AOne factor (password)
BTwo factors from different categories
CThree biometric factors
DA hardware token only
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Which protocol is the current standard for encrypting web traffic?

ASSL 3.0
BSSH
CTLS
DIPsec
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for:

AEncrypting all web traffic
BIssuing digital certificates that bind a public key to an identity
CStoring private keys for all users
DManaging user passwords
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

An IS Audit primarily evaluates:

ASoftware code quality
BEmployee performance
CIS controls, security measures, and regulatory compliance
DHardware procurement costs
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Which risk response strategy involves purchasing insurance?

ARisk avoidance
BRisk mitigation
CRisk acceptance
DRisk transfer
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Which hash function produces a 256-bit digest and is widely used for data integrity?

AMD5
BSHA-256
CCRC32
DBase64
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Information System

Confidentiality in the CIA triad means:

AData is accurate and complete
BData is accessible whenever needed
CData is accessible only to authorized parties
DData is backed up regularly
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

Which enterprise system integrates internal processes like finance, HR, and manufacturing?

ACRM
BSCM
CERP
DDSS
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

OLAP is optimized for:

AHigh-frequency short INSERT/UPDATE transactions
BComplex analytical queries across large datasets
CReal-time payment processing
DManaging customer records one at a time
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

According to Inmon's definition, a Data Warehouse is NOT:

ASubject-oriented
BIntegrated
CUpdated frequently in real-time (volatile)
DTime-variant
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

Data Mining is best described as:

AStoring large volumes of historical data
BExtracting hidden patterns and knowledge from large datasets
CBacking up operational databases
DConverting tacit knowledge to explicit knowledge
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

Tacit knowledge differs from explicit knowledge in that tacit knowledge is:

AStored in manuals and databases
BEasily transferable and documented
CPersonal, experiential, and hard to articulate
DOnly available to top management
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

SCM manages the flow from:

ACustomer to manufacturer
BSupplier to end customer
CEmployee to manager
DDatabase to application
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

A Decision Support System (DSS) is designed to support:

ARoutine structured operational decisions
BSemi-structured and unstructured management decisions
CHardware procurement only
DEmployee payroll processing
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

CRM systems primarily focus on:

AManaging supplier relationships
BInternal HR processes
CCustomer interactions, sales, and service
DManufacturing workflows
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

Which property of a Data Warehouse means data is organized around major subjects like 'Sales' or 'Inventory'?

AIntegrated
BTime-variant
CNon-volatile
DSubject-oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 946Ch 4 · Enterprise Management Systems and Knowledge Management

OLTP is characterized by:

AComplex multi-table analytical joins
BHigh volume of short, atomic transactions with ACID properties
CStoring historical snapshots for trend analysis
DRead-only access to data cubes
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

The Balanced Scorecard has how many perspectives?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

In cloud computing, SaaS refers to:

ARenting virtual machines and storage
BA deployment platform where developers push code
CDelivering complete software applications over the internet
DStoring data in the cloud
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

In MapReduce, the Reduce phase:

ASplits input data into smaller chunks
BGroups key-value pairs by key
CAggregates values for each unique key
DDistributes tasks to worker nodes
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

Hadoop's HDFS stores data with a default replication factor of:

A1
B2
C3
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

Collaborative filtering recommends items based on:

AThe features and attributes of items
BWhat similar users have liked
CRandom suggestions from the catalog
DThe most recently added items
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

Which cloud service model gives the user the most control over the infrastructure?

ASaaS
BPaaS
CIaaS
DAll provide equal control
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

The 'V' in Big Data that refers to the speed of data generation is:

AVolume
BVariety
CVelocity
DVeracity
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

In SDLC, which model follows a strictly sequential phase-by-phase approach?

AAgile
BScrum
CWaterfall
DSpiral
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

A private cloud deployment is best described as:

AShared cloud infrastructure owned by a public provider
BCloud resources dedicated to a single organization
CMixing on-premises and public cloud resources
DCloud shared among organizations in the same industry
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 946Ch 4 · Implementation and Applications of Information Systems

Content-based filtering recommends items based on:

AWhat friends and similar users prefer
BThe attributes and features of items previously liked by the user
CTrending items across all users
DA hybrid of user preferences and item features
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

In A* search, the evaluation function f(n) is:

Af(n) = h(n) only
Bf(n) = g(n) + h(n)
Cf(n) = g(n) - h(n)
Df(n) = h(n) / g(n)
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

A* search is guaranteed to find the optimal solution when the heuristic is:

AConsistent (monotone)
BAdmissible (never overestimates)
CAlways equal to zero
DGreater than the actual cost
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

Alpha-Beta pruning improves Minimax by:

AFinding a better solution than Minimax
BEliminating branches that cannot affect the final decision
CUsing heuristics to estimate utility values
DExpanding nodes in breadth-first order
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

Which type of machine learning uses labeled training data?

AUnsupervised learning
BReinforcement learning
CSupervised learning
DSelf-supervised learning
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

A model that performs well on training data but poorly on new data is said to be:

AUnderfitting
BWell-generalized
COverfitting
DRegularized
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

kNN is called a 'lazy learner' because:

AIt requires very little memory
BIt performs no explicit training; all computation is at prediction time
CIt converges slowly during training
DIt uses random initialization
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

An intelligent agent's actuators are responsible for:

APerceiving the environment
BStoring learned knowledge
CActing upon the environment
DEvaluating the utility of states
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

Reinforcement learning differs from supervised learning in that:

AIt uses labeled input-output pairs
BThe agent learns by receiving rewards or penalties from its environment
CIt requires a larger dataset
DIt only handles classification tasks
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

Which search algorithm is complete and optimal for unit step costs?

ADFS
BGreedy Best-First
CBFS
DHill Climbing
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 946Ch 4 · Fundamentals of Artificial Intelligence

In the Minimax algorithm, the MAX player always:

AMinimizes the utility value
BMaximizes the utility value
CPrunes branches with low utility
DChooses moves randomly
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

A single-layer perceptron cannot solve which of the following problems?

AAND gate
BOR gate
CXOR gate
DNAND gate
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

Backpropagation computes gradients using:

AForward pass only
BRandom weight initialization
CThe chain rule of calculus applied backward through the network
DGenetic algorithm evolution
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

Which activation function is most commonly used in hidden layers of deep networks due to its resistance to the vanishing gradient problem?

ASigmoid
BTanh
CReLU
DSoftmax
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

A Bayesian Network is represented as:

AAn undirected cyclic graph
BA directed acyclic graph (DAG)
CA fully connected undirected graph
DA binary tree
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

In a Genetic Algorithm, crossover is used to:

AEvaluate the quality of a solution
BRandomly alter individual genes
CCombine genetic material from two parent solutions
DSelect the best individuals
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

Hidden Markov Models are used in speech recognition because:

AThe acoustic signals are directly observable states
BThe underlying phonemes (states) are hidden while sounds are observed
CThey use directed acyclic graphs
DThey require no training data
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

The vanishing gradient problem in deep networks is primarily caused by:

AToo many training examples
BGradients becoming exponentially small as they propagate through many sigmoid/tanh layers
CUsing ReLU activation
DLearning rate being too high
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

Softmax activation is typically used in the output layer for:

ABinary classification
BRegression tasks
CMulti-class classification
DHidden layer feature extraction
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

A Markov Network differs from a Bayesian Network in that it uses:

ADirected edges
BA DAG structure
CUndirected edges
DConditional probability tables only
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 946Ch 4 · Neural Networks and Probabilistic Models

In a Genetic Algorithm, the fitness function is used to:

AMutate genes randomly
BEvaluate how well an individual solution solves the problem
CCombine two parent solutions
DInitialize the population
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

The inference engine of an expert system:

AStores domain facts and rules
BProvides the user interface
CApplies rules to facts to derive conclusions
DExplains the reasoning to users
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

Forward chaining in an expert system is called data-driven because:

AIt starts with a goal and searches for supporting facts
BIt starts with available facts and fires rules to derive new facts
CIt only uses numeric data
DIt requires a database connection
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

MYCIN is an expert system designed for:

AStock market prediction
BChess playing
CDiagnosing bacterial blood infections and recommending antibiotics
DWeather forecasting
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

In Ant Colony Optimization, pheromone trails serve to:

ARepresent the ants' current position
BCommunicate good paths to other ants through positive feedback
CPenalize ants that take wrong paths
DInitialize the ant population
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

In Particle Swarm Optimization, each particle's velocity is influenced by:

ARandom mutations and crossover
BIts personal best (pbest) and the swarm's global best (gbest)
CPheromone levels on the path
DThe distance to the nearest particle
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

Fuzzy logic differs from classical Boolean logic in that:

AIt uses only true/false values
BIt assigns degrees of truth between 0 and 1
CIt requires exact numeric inputs
DIt cannot be used in control systems
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

Backward chaining in an expert system starts with:

AAll available facts in the knowledge base
BA hypothesis (goal) and works backward to find supporting evidence
CRandom rule selection
DUser input data
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

The explanation facility in an expert system is responsible for:

AStoring domain rules
BProviding the GUI
CExplaining the reasoning and conclusions to users
DConnecting to external databases
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

Swarm intelligence algorithms are characterized by:

AA central controller directing all agents
BDecentralized control with emergent collective behavior
CIndividual agents working in complete isolation
DExact mathematical optimization only
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 946Ch 4 · Expert Systems and Swarm Intelligence

The knowledge acquisition bottleneck in expert systems refers to:

ASlow database query performance
BLimited CPU processing speed
CDifficulty in extracting and encoding expert knowledge, especially tacit knowledge
DNetwork bandwidth limitations
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which feature of IPv6 is NOT supported (unlike IPv4)?

AUnicast
BMulticast
CBroadcast
DAnycast
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the maximum length of a hostname?

A255 characters
B128 characters
C64 characters
D512 characters
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which OSI layer is responsible for process-to-process (end-to-end) communication?

ANetwork Layer
BTransport Layer
CSession Layer
DApplication Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which cable type is used to directly connect two routers without a switch?

ACrossover cable
BStraight-through cable
CRollover cable
DCoaxial cable
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In hierarchical routing, each autonomous domain (cluster) is called a:

AGateway
BRegion
CNode
DZone
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

FTP uses how many TCP connections?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Heavy network traffic that slows down response time is called:

ACongestion
BCollision
CDeadlock
DLatency
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The default port number for HTTP is:

A21
B80
C443
D25
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which protocol is used for sending email from a client to a mail server?

AIMAP
BPOP3
CSMTP
DFTP
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the loopback address in IPv4?

A127.0.0.1
B192.168.0.1
C255.255.255.255
D0.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the network address of 192.10.16.32 with subnet mask /25?

A192.10.16.32
B192.10.16.0
C192.10.16.128
D192.10.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the Network ID of 203.17.10.7 with a /24 subnet mask?

A203.17.0.0
B203.17.10.0
C203.17.10.7
D203.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which function is NOT performed at the Transport Layer?

ASegmentation and reassembly
BFlow control
CRouting
DError detection
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

CDMA technology allows multiple users to:

AUse different frequency bands
BShare the same channel simultaneously using unique codes
CTake turns in time slots
DOperate on wired networks only
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A packet filter firewall operates at which OSI layer?

ALayer 2 (Data Link)
BLayer 3 (Network)
CLayer 4 (Transport)
DLayer 7 (Application)
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The most time-critical real-time network application is:

AEmail
BFile transfer
CInternet telephone (VoIP)
DWeb browsing
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A proxy server is implemented at which OSI layer?

AApplication Layer
BTransport Layer
CNetwork Layer
DData Link Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The correct order of network types from smallest to largest geographic scope is:

ALAN < PAN < MAN < WAN
BPAN < LAN < MAN < WAN
CLAN < MAN < PAN < WAN
DPAN < WAN < LAN < MAN
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The RIP routing protocol uses which metric to determine the best path?

ABandwidth
BDelay
CHop count
DCost
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In RIP, a hop count of 16 means:

A16 routers away
BNetwork is unreachable
CMaximum allowed path
DDirect connection
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The IEEE standard for Ethernet is:

AIEEE 802.11
BIEEE 802.3
CIEEE 802.15
DIEEE 802.1
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Distance vector routing protocols use which algorithm to compute shortest paths?

ADijkstra's algorithm
BBellman-Ford algorithm
CFloyd-Warshall algorithm
DA* algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

10Base5 Ethernet supports a maximum segment length of:

A100 m
B185 m
C500 m
D1000 m
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A typical LAN covers a geographic scope of up to:

A10 m
B1 km
C50 km
D500 km
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

The OSI model has how many layers?

A4
B5
C7
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

A network switch operates at which OSI layer?

ALayer 1 (Physical)
BLayer 2 (Data Link)
CLayer 3 (Network)
DLayer 4 (Transport)
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

ARP is used to resolve:

ADomain names to IP addresses
BIP addresses to MAC addresses
CMAC addresses to IP addresses
DPort numbers to services
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

CSMA/CA is used instead of CSMA/CD in wireless networks because:

AWireless networks are faster than wired
BCollisions cannot be detected in wireless due to the hidden node problem
CWireless devices do not have MAC addresses
DCSMA/CD is patented
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

IEEE 802.11 defines which wireless standard?

AEthernet
BBluetooth
CWi-Fi
DWiMAX
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

A hub differs from a switch in that a hub:

AForwards frames based on MAC addresses
BBroadcasts all incoming data to every connected port
COperates at Layer 3
DPerforms IP routing
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

A MAC address is:

A32 bits long, assigned by software
B128 bits long, used in IPv6
C48 bits long, hardware-burned into the NIC
D64 bits long, used by routers
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

The TCP/IP model combines OSI layers into how many layers?

A3
B4
C5
D7
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

CRC in an Ethernet frame is used for:

AEncryption of frame data
BError detection
CSource MAC address storage
DFlow control
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 946Ch 5 · Computer Networks, Physical and Data Link Layer

In CSMA/CD, when a collision is detected, the station:

AContinues transmission to completion
BImmediately retransmits without waiting
CStops transmitting, sends a jam signal, and retransmits after random backoff
DSends an RTS frame
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

IPv6 addresses are how many bits long?

A32 bits
B64 bits
C128 bits
D256 bits
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

Which IP address class has a first octet range of 128–191?

AClass A
BClass B
CClass C
DClass D
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

RIP's maximum hop count before a route is considered unreachable is:

A8
B15
C16
D255
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

TCP differs from UDP in that TCP:

AHas lower overhead and is faster
BIs used for real-time video streaming
CProvides reliable, ordered, connection-oriented delivery
DDoes not use port numbers
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

The TCP 3-way handshake sequence is:

ASYN → ACK → SYN
BSYN → SYN-ACK → ACK
CACK → SYN → FIN
DSYN → FIN → ACK
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

OSPF uses which algorithm to compute shortest paths?

ABellman-Ford
BFloyd-Warshall
CDijkstra's algorithm
DKruskal's algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

The loopback address 127.0.0.1 is used to:

AIdentify the default gateway
BTest the local host's network stack without sending traffic to the network
CBroadcast to all hosts on the subnet
DReserve addresses for ISPs
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

A socket is identified by:

AMAC address only
BIP address only
CIP address combined with a port number
DDomain name and service
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Question 517 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

ICMP is primarily used for:

AReliable data transfer
BNetwork error reporting and diagnostics (ping, traceroute)
CDynamic IP address assignment
DDomain name resolution
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 946Ch 5 · Network Layer and Transport Layer

UDP is preferred over TCP for real-time applications because:

AUDP guarantees packet delivery
BUDP maintains connection state
CUDP has lower overhead and does not add retransmission delays
DUDP handles congestion better
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

Which port does HTTPS use by default?

A80
B22
C443
D8080
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

DNS primarily uses which transport protocol and port?

ATCP port 80
BUDP port 53
CTCP port 443
DUDP port 67
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

AES is an example of which type of encryption?

AAsymmetric encryption
BHash function
CSymmetric encryption
DDigital signature
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

A digital signature is created by:

AEncrypting the message with the recipient's public key
BHashing the message and encrypting the hash with the sender's private key
CEncrypting the message with a symmetric key
DSending the message through a CA
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

DHCP automatically assigns to clients:

AMAC addresses
BIP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server
CSSH keys
DDigital certificates
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

RSA is an example of:

ASymmetric encryption
BHashing algorithm
CAsymmetric (public-key) encryption
DBlock cipher mode
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

A VPN provides security primarily through:

ABlocking all incoming connections
BEncrypting traffic through a secure tunnel over a public network
CAssigning private IP addresses
DCertificate validation only
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

A stateful firewall differs from a packet filter in that:

AIt only examines packet headers
BIt tracks the state of active connections and allows return traffic automatically
CIt operates at the application layer
DIt does not use rules
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

SSH uses which port?

A23
B21
C25
D22
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 946Ch 5 · Application Layer and Network Security

A DDoS attack aims to:

ASteal user credentials
BIntercept and modify network traffic
COverwhelm a service with traffic making it unavailable
DInject malicious SQL queries
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) uses fixed-size cells of:

A64 bytes
B53 bytes
C128 bytes
DVariable size
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Question 530 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

Asynchronous transmission uses which mechanism to frame characters?

AA shared clock signal
BStart and stop bits
CBlock headers and trailers
DPreamble bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

The correct order of TCP server socket calls is:

Abind() → socket() → listen() → accept()
Bsocket() → connect() → bind() → listen()
Csocket() → bind() → listen() → accept()
Dsocket() → listen() → bind() → accept()
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

The select() system call is used for:

ASelecting the fastest network interface
BMonitoring multiple socket file descriptors for I/O readiness
CSelecting the best routing path
DChoosing encryption algorithms
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

SNMP uses which port numbers?

A80 and 443
B22 and 23
C161 and 162
D53 and 67
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

NAT (Network Address Translation) primarily solves:

ASlow network speeds
BIPv4 address exhaustion by sharing a public IP among many private devices
CSecurity vulnerabilities in TCP
DDNS resolution failures
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

A network daemon is best described as:

AA malicious background process
BA background process that listens on a port for incoming connections
CA network monitoring tool
DA type of firewall
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

Synchronous transmission is preferred over asynchronous when:

AIndividual characters need to be sent intermittently
BNo shared clock is available
CLarge continuous data blocks are transmitted at high speed
DLow-speed serial connections are used
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

X.25 evolved into which network technologies over time?

AEthernet, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth
BFrame Relay, ATM, MPLS
CIPv4, IPv6, IPsec
DTCP, UDP, ICMP
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 946Ch 5 · Synchronization, Network Management and Socket Programming

PAT (Port Address Translation) allows:

AOne private IP to map to one public IP
BMany private IPs to share a single public IP using different port numbers
CPublic IPs to be converted to private IPs
DPort numbers to be assigned dynamically
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

The Control Unit (CU) of the CPU is responsible for:

APerforming arithmetic operations
BStoring data permanently
CFetching, decoding, and controlling instruction execution
DManaging virtual memory
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

The Program Counter (PC) register holds:

AThe result of the last ALU operation
BThe current instruction being executed
CThe address of the next instruction to be fetched
DThe memory address currently being accessed
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

RISC architecture uses which type of control unit?

AMicroprogrammed
BHardwired
CCached
DPipelined
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

Which architecture is used in x86 (Intel/AMD) processors?

ARISC
BVLIW
CCISC
DHarvard
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

A data hazard in pipelining occurs when:

ATwo instructions need the same hardware resource simultaneously
BA branch instruction changes the instruction flow
CAn instruction depends on a result not yet produced by a previous instruction
DThe pipeline has too many stages
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

Flynn's taxonomy category MIMD represents:

AA single core executing one instruction on one data item
BMultiple processors each executing different instructions on different data
CGPU vector processing
DPipelined execution
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

The address bus is:

ABidirectional, carrying data between CPU and memory
BUnidirectional, carrying memory addresses from CPU to memory
CUsed for interrupt signals
DBidirectional, carrying control signals
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

Pipelining improves CPU performance by:

AExecuting instructions faster individually
BOverlapping execution stages of multiple instructions
CReducing the number of instructions needed
DIncreasing clock speed
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

SIMD in Flynn's taxonomy is exemplified by:

AA single-core CPU
BA multiprocessor cluster
CGPU vector processing and multimedia instructions
DFault-tolerant redundant systems
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 946Ch 5 · Control Unit and Central Processing Unit

The MDR (Memory Data Register) holds:

AThe address of the next instruction
BThe current instruction being executed
CData just read from or about to be written to memory
DThe stack pointer value
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

From fastest to slowest, the correct memory hierarchy order is:

ARAM → Cache → Registers → Hard Disk
BHard Disk → RAM → Cache → Registers
CRegisters → Cache → RAM → Hard Disk
DCache → Registers → RAM → Hard Disk
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

In direct-mapped cache, each main memory block:

ACan be placed in any cache line
BMaps to exactly one specific cache line
CMaps to a set of cache lines
DIs stored in multiple cache lines
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

LRU cache replacement policy evicts:

AThe most recently accessed block
BThe first block loaded into cache
CThe block that was least recently accessed
DA randomly chosen block
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

DMA (Direct Memory Access) improves I/O performance because:

AIt increases CPU clock speed
BIt transfers data between devices and RAM without CPU involvement
CIt caches I/O data in the CPU
DIt uses a faster bus protocol
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

Interrupt-driven I/O is more efficient than programmed I/O (polling) because:

AInterrupts are faster than polling
BThe CPU doesn't waste cycles repeatedly checking device status
CInterrupts require less hardware
DPolling causes data corruption
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

Memory-mapped I/O means:

AI/O devices use separate IN/OUT instructions
BI/O device registers are accessed using the same load/store instructions as regular memory
CI/O data is cached in RAM
DVirtual memory is used for I/O
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

A page fault occurs when:

AA cache miss happens
BThe TLB cannot translate an address
CA requested page is not currently in physical RAM
DThe page table is corrupted
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

The TLB (Translation Lookaside Buffer) is used to:

AStore frequently used data
BCache recent virtual-to-physical address translations
CStore the page table
DBuffer DMA transfers
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

Set-associative cache mapping is a compromise between:

AFIFO and LRU replacement
BDirect mapping (simple, conflict-prone) and fully associative (flexible, expensive)
CL1 and L2 cache
DWrite-back and write-through policies
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 946Ch 5 · Memory System and Input/Output Organization

Spatial locality in cache design means:

ARecently accessed data will likely be accessed again soon
BData near recently accessed locations is likely to be accessed soon
CThe most frequently used data should be cached
DCache is physically close to the CPU
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

What condition indicates a circular queue is FULL (size = N, front and rear start at 0)?

ARear = Front
BRear = N − 1
CRear = (Front + 1) MOD N
DFront = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

Class P problems are solvable in polynomial time by which machine?

ANon-deterministic Turing Machine
BProbabilistic Turing Machine
CDeterministic Turing Machine
DOracle Turing Machine
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The thesis that states any algorithm computable by a person can be computed by a Turing Machine is:

AGödel's Incompleteness Theorem
BChurch-Turing Thesis
CRice's Theorem
DHalting Problem
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A Finite Automaton (FA) recognises languages described by which grammar type?

ARegular Grammar (Type 3)
BContext-Free Grammar (Type 2)
CContext-Sensitive Grammar (Type 1)
DUnrestricted Grammar (Type 0)
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The key characteristic of a Universal Turing Machine (UTM) is:

AIt runs on quantum hardware
BIt solves the halting problem
CIt can simulate any other Turing Machine
DIt operates in parallel
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A language is Turing-recognisable (recursively enumerable) if:

AA TM enumerator lists all strings in the language
BA finite automaton accepts it
CA PDA accepts it
DIt is decidable by a TM
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A Pushdown Automaton (PDA) that has at most one possible move for any input symbol and stack symbol is called:

ANon-deterministic PDA
BDeterministic PDA (DPDA)
CTwo-stack PDA
DTuring Machine
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The cardinality of the power set of a set with 4 elements, |P(1,2,3,4)|, is:

A4
B8
C16
D24
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

What grammar notation uses meta-symbols to formally define the syntax of programming languages?

ABNF (Backus-Naur Form)
BRegular Expression
CFinite Automaton
DTruth Table
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

Bresenham's line drawing algorithm is preferred over DDA because:

AIt produces smoother curves
BIt uses integer arithmetic only, making it faster and eliminating rounding errors
CIt can draw circles and ellipses
DIt requires less memory
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

A raster scan display stores the screen image in:

AA vector database
BThe CPU registers
CA frame buffer (video RAM)
DThe hard disk
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

Vector scan displays are best suited for:

ADisplaying photographic images
BCAD drawings and line-based graphics requiring sharp lines at any scale
CHigh-resolution video playback
DGaming with complex textures
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

Bresenham's Circle algorithm exploits:

A2-way symmetry
B4-way symmetry
C8-way symmetry
D16-way symmetry
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

The scan-line fill algorithm is most appropriate for:

AFilling irregularly shaped fractal regions
BFilling defined polygons efficiently
CFilling regions bounded by a specific boundary color
DAnti-aliasing edges
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

A pixel in computer graphics is:

AA mathematical point with infinite resolution
BThe smallest addressable element in a raster display
CA vector path segment
DA unit of screen resolution equal to 1 inch
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

OpenGL is best described as:

AA programming language for graphics
BA cross-platform API for 2D and 3D hardware-accelerated graphics
CA proprietary Microsoft graphics library
DA file format for vector graphics
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

DDA (Digital Differential Analyzer) computes line pixels by:

AUsing only integer addition and comparison
BComputing incremental float steps (dx/steps, dy/steps)
CMirroring pixels using symmetry
DSampling the continuous line equation at pixel centers
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

Flood fill algorithm fills all pixels that:

AAre adjacent to a boundary color
BHave the same color as the seed pixel, replacing them with the fill color
CAre on a horizontal scan line
DHave a value above a threshold
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Computer Graphics

Double buffering in graphics prevents:

APixelation of images
BScreen tearing caused by reading a frame while it's being written
CColor depth limitations
DMemory overflow in the frame buffer
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

Homogeneous coordinates are used in 2D graphics to:

AAdd a third dimension to all 2D objects
BRepresent all 2D transformations including translation as matrix multiplication
CStore color information in transformation matrices
DConvert between raster and vector formats
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

To rotate an object around an arbitrary point P (not the origin), you must:

AApply the rotation matrix directly
BTranslate P to origin, rotate, then translate back
CScale the object before rotating
DUse perspective projection
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

3D transformations are represented using matrices of size:

A2×2
B3×3
C4×4
D3×4
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

Perspective projection differs from parallel projection in that:

AParallel lines always remain parallel in perspective
BPerspective preserves true shape and size
CPerspective produces foreshortening — farther objects appear smaller
DPerspective is used only for engineering drawings
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

Cohen-Sutherland line clipping uses:

APolygon edge testing
BRegion codes assigned to line endpoints
CScan-line intersection
DZ-buffer depth comparison
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

The window-to-viewport transformation is used to:

AConvert 3D scenes to 2D projections
BMap the visible world coordinate region to a screen region
CClip objects outside the view frustum
DConvert between coordinate systems in 3D
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

In 2D transformation, matrix multiplication order matters because:

AMatrices are always symmetric
BMatrix multiplication is not commutative — different orders produce different results
COnly rotation matrices are non-commutative
DTranslation matrices commute with all other transformations
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

Sutherland-Hodgman algorithm is used for clipping:

ALine segments
BPolygons against a rectangular clip window
C3D objects against the view frustum
DCurved surfaces
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

Shear transformation in 2D:

AFlips an object across an axis
BScales an object uniformly
CSlants an object by displacing points proportional to their distance from an axis
DRotates an object around the origin
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 946Ch 6 · Two and Three-Dimensional Transformations

In 2D scaling transformation with sx=2, sy=2, the object:

ARotates by 2 degrees
BMoves 2 units in each direction
CDoubles in size in both x and y directions
DReflects across the origin
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

A cubic Bezier curve is defined by how many control points?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

The Z-buffer algorithm stores:

AThe color of the polygon nearest to each pixel
BThe depth (z) value of the nearest surface for each pixel
CA list of all polygons in the scene
DThe normal vectors of all surfaces
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

Back-face culling removes polygons that:

AAre outside the view frustum
BHave a z-value farther than other polygons
CHave normal vectors pointing away from the viewer
DAre too small to render
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

The Painter's Algorithm limitation is that it cannot correctly handle:

AOpaque surfaces
BCyclic polygon overlaps and intersecting polygons
CPolygons with different colors
DScenes with more than 1000 polygons
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

A Bezier curve always stays within its:

ABounding box
BConvex hull of control points
CArea defined by the first and last control points
DCircular arc defined by adjacent control points
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

B-Spline curves offer which advantage over Bezier curves?

AThey always pass through all control points
BThey have local control — moving one point affects only a local region of the curve
CThey require fewer control points
DThey are easier to compute
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

The A-buffer algorithm improves upon the Z-buffer by:

AUsing less memory
BHandling transparency and anti-aliasing through per-pixel fragment lists
CSorting polygons by depth
DUsing ray tracing for reflections
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

The Z-buffer algorithm is classified as:

AObject-space algorithm
BImage-space algorithm
CWorld-space algorithm
DScreen-space ambient algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

Ray tracing produces realistic images by:

ARendering polygons front-to-back
BCasting rays from the eye and simulating reflections, refractions, and shadows
CUsing Z-buffer with ambient light
DInterpolating vertex normals
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 946Ch 6 · 3D Object Representation and Visible Surface Detection

A Hermite curve is defined by:

AFour interior control points
BTwo endpoints and two tangent vectors at those endpoints
CA set of B-spline basis functions
DThe convex hull of control points
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

The Phong illumination model computes surface color as the sum of:

ADiffuse + Specular only
BAmbient + Diffuse + Specular
CAmbient + Specular only
DEmissive + Ambient + Diffuse
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Diffuse reflection intensity depends on:

AThe angle between the reflected ray and the viewer
BThe angle between the surface normal and the light direction
CThe shininess exponent of the material
DThe ambient light coefficient
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Gouraud shading interpolates:

ANormals across the polygon
BColors/intensities computed at vertices across the polygon
COne constant color for the entire polygon
DTexture coordinates
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Phong shading (the shading model, not the illumination model) interpolates:

AColors computed at vertices
BA single normal for the entire polygon
CSurface normals across the polygon, computing lighting per pixel
DTexture coordinates
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Flat shading is limited because:

AIt is computationally too expensive
BIt produces abrupt color discontinuities between adjacent faces (faceted look)
CIt cannot handle directional lighting
DIt requires per-pixel computation
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Specular highlight sharpness is controlled by:

AThe ambient coefficient k
BThe diffuse coefficient kd
CThe shininess exponent n in (R·V)
DThe light source intensity
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

RGB color model is additive because:

AColors are absorbed from white light
BAdding Red, Green, and Blue light at full intensity produces white
CColors are mixed by subtracting wavelengths
DIt uses a perceptual hue-saturation model
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Ambient lighting in the Phong model represents:

ADirectional light from the sun
BMirror-like reflections
CUniform background light approximating indirect/scattered illumination
DLight emitted by the surface itself
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Texture mapping uses UV coordinates because:

AUV ensures textures fit any polygon shape exactly
BUV (0 to 1 range) provides resolution-independent texture coordinate space
CUV is faster to compute than XY
DUV is the standard for bump mapping
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 946Ch 6 · Illumination Models and Surface Rendering

Comparing shading methods, which provides the highest quality?

AFlat shading
BGouraud shading
CPhong shading
DConstant shading
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

The Nyquist theorem states that the sampling rate must be at least:

AEqual to the maximum frequency in the signal
BTwice the maximum frequency in the signal
CHalf the maximum frequency in the signal
DFour times the maximum frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

MIDI files store:

ASampled audio waveforms
BMusical instructions (notes, pitch, duration, velocity)
CCompressed audio using DCT
DUncompressed PCM audio
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

JPEG compression is classified as:

ALossless — original data perfectly recoverable
BLossy — some image data is permanently discarded
CRun-length encoding
DLossless with optional transparency
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

PNG format supports which feature that JPEG does not?

ALossy compression for smaller files
BAnimation
CTransparency (alpha channel)
DProgressive rendering
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

Which image format supports animation and is limited to 256 colors?

AJPEG
BPNG
CGIF
DBMP
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

Keyframe animation works by:

ARecording every frame of motion
BDefining key poses at specific times and interpolating (tweening) the in-between frames
CUsing motion capture sensors
DRunning physics simulations
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

24-bit color depth allows how many distinct colors?

A65,536
B1,048,576
C16,777,216 (approximately 16.7 million)
D4,294,967,296
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

Multimedia differs from traditional media primarily because it:

AUses only digital data
BIntegrates multiple media types and often supports interactivity
CRequires internet connectivity
DIs limited to video content
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

WAV files are large because:

AThey include video data
BThey store uncompressed PCM audio samples
CThey use lossless compression
DThey store both audio and MIDI instructions
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 946Ch 6 · Introduction to Multimedia

In video, frame rate (fps) refers to:

AThe resolution of each video frame
BThe number of still images displayed per second
CThe compression ratio of the video
DThe bitrate of the video stream
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

Huffman coding assigns shorter codes to:

ALess frequent symbols
BMore frequent symbols
CAll symbols equally
DThe longest symbols
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

Run-Length Encoding (RLE) is most effective for:

AAudio files with varying frequencies
BText files with random character distribution
CImages with large areas of uniform color
DVideo files with rapid scene changes
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

JPEG compression uses which mathematical transform?

AFast Fourier Transform (FFT)
BDiscrete Cosine Transform (DCT)
CDiscrete Wavelet Transform (DWT)
DHuffman Transform
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

MPEG video compression reduces file size by exploiting:

AOnly spatial redundancy within frames
BBoth spatial redundancy (within frames) and temporal redundancy (between frames)
COnly differences between non-adjacent frames
DHuffman coding only
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

In MPEG, an I-frame is:

AAn interpolated frame referencing two other frames
BA predicted frame based on the previous frame
CA complete intra-coded frame with no reference to other frames
DAn audio frame
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

LZW compression builds a:

AHuffman tree of symbol frequencies
BDictionary of recurring patterns found during encoding
CRun-length table of repeated sequences
DDCT coefficient matrix
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

The UI design principle of 'affordance' means:

AThe UI should be affordable to build
BUI elements should visually suggest how they are used
CThe system should respond to all user inputs
DThe interface should use minimal colors
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

Which compression is classified as lossless?

AMP3
BJPEG
CMPEG
DPNG
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

DCT in JPEG discards high-frequency components because:

AHigh frequencies are easier to compress
BHuman vision is less sensitive to high-frequency detail (fine texture)
CHigh-frequency data takes more bits to store
DLow-frequency components cause more compression
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 946Ch 6 · Data Compression, User Interfaces and Applications

HCI (Human-Computer Interaction) evaluation using heuristic evaluation involves:

AReal users performing tasks with the system
BExperts reviewing the UI against established usability principles
CAutomated testing of UI components
DStatistical analysis of user logs
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The activation function used in a Hopfield Network is:

ASigmoid
BReLU
CTanh
DSign (Signum)
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Machine learning using labelled training data (input-output pairs) is called:

ASupervised learning
BUnsupervised learning
CReinforcement learning
DSemi-supervised learning
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In an AI agent, which component carries out actions on the environment?

ASensors
BKnowledge base
CActuators
DInference engine
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Which UML diagram describes the vocabulary (classes and relationships) of a system?

ASequence Diagram
BClass Diagram
CUse Case Diagram
DActivity Diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

To translate a circle to a new position in 2D graphics, what must be translated?

AThe centre point only
BEvery pixel on the circumference
CThe bounding box
DThe radius
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In 2D scaling, if both scale factors sx < 1 and sy < 1, the object:

AGrows larger
BShrinks (becomes smaller)
CReflects about the origin
DStays the same size
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

How many distinct reflection planes exist in 3D space?

A3
B4
C6
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The complexity of an Artificial Neural Network primarily depends on:

ANumber of input nodes only
BTraining data size only
CNumber of hidden layers only
DAll of the above (architecture, data, training)
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

A crossword-puzzle solving environment is best described as:

APartially observable, multi-agent, stochastic
BFully observable, single-agent, deterministic
CPartially observable, single-agent, stochastic
DFully observable, multi-agent, deterministic
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In an expert system, the component that stores all facts, rules, and domain knowledge is the:

AKnowledge Base
BInference Engine
CWorking Memory
DUser Interface
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

MYCIN, the medical expert system, used how many rules and which reasoning strategy?

A500 rules, Backward chaining
B500 rules, Forward chaining
C200 rules, Backward chaining
D1000 rules, Forward chaining
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Which concept is central to Fuzzy Logic?

ABoolean truth values
BProbability distributions
CCrisp set membership
DMembership Function (degree of truth 0–1)
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The A* search algorithm is NOT admissible when:

AThe heuristic overestimates the true cost to goal
BThe heuristic underestimates the true cost
CThe heuristic equals zero
DThe search space is finite
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Greedy Best-First Search selects the next node to expand based on:

Ag(n) only (cost from start)
Bg(n) + h(n)
Ch(n) only (estimated cost to goal)
DBreadth from root
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The key components of a search problem in AI are:

AInitial state, goal state, and operators (transition function)
BStart node, heuristic function, and path cost only
CDatabase, inference engine, and user interface
DAgent, environment, and reward function
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The transformation matrix [[1,0,0],[0,5,0],[0,0,2]] represents:

ATranslation
BScaling
CRotation
DShearing
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

DDA stands for:

ADirect Drawing Algorithm
BDigital Differential Analyzer
CDynamic Display Adapter
DDiscrete Drawing Approach
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The OOAD methodology that features macro and micro development processes is:

ABooch Method
BRumbaugh OMT
CJacobson OOSE
DRUP
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The NLP processing pipeline in correct order is:

ATokenization → POS Tagging → Parsing → Semantic Analysis
BParsing → Tokenization → Semantic Analysis → POS Tagging
CSemantic Analysis → Tokenization → POS Tagging → Parsing
DPOS Tagging → Tokenization → Parsing → Semantic Analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The Turing Test extension that requires a robot to interact physically with the world is:

AChinese Room Test
BTotal Turing Test
CWinograd Schema Test
DCAPTCHA
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

A stack follows which principle?

AFIFO
BLIFO
CRandom
DPriority
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

A queue follows which principle?

ALIFO
BFIFO
CLILO
DRandom
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

Which traversal of a Binary Search Tree gives elements in sorted order?

APre-order
BIn-order
CPost-order
DLevel-order
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

Big-O notation describes the ____ of an algorithm.

ABest case
BWorst-case upper bound
CExact memory usage
DSource code length
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

In a doubly linked list, each node has:

AOne pointer (to next)
BTwo pointers (to next and previous)
CNo pointers
DThree data fields
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

An AVL tree is a:

ASelf-balancing binary search tree
BLinked list
CHash table
DStack
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

The postfix expression for (A + B) is:

A+AB
BAB+
CA+B
DBA+
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

Stacks are commonly used to evaluate:

AInfix expressions directly
BPostfix expressions
CSQL queries
DGraphs
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

In a Binary Search Tree, for any node, the left child is:

AGreater than the node
BLess than the node
CEqual to the node
DUnrelated to the node
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 946Ch 7 · Data Structures, Lists, Linked Lists & Trees

Which data structure provides O(1) random access by index?

ALinked list
BArray
CBinary tree
DQueue
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

The average time complexity of merge sort is:

AO(n)
BO(n²)
CO(n log n)
DO(log n)
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

Binary search requires the data to be:

AUnsorted
BSorted
CStored as a linked list
DHashed
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

BFS (Breadth-First Search) is implemented using a:

AStack
BQueue
CTree
DHeap
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

DFS (Depth-First Search) typically uses a:

AQueue
BStack or recursion
CHash table
DPriority queue
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

Which algorithm finds the shortest path from a source in a weighted graph with non-negative weights?

AKruskal's algorithm
BDijkstra's algorithm
CBubble sort
DWarshall's algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

Prim's and Kruskal's algorithms are used to find a:

AShortest path
BMinimum spanning tree
CHash table
DSorted list
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

The average-case time complexity of a well-designed hash table lookup is:

AO(n)
BO(log n)
CO(1)
DO(n²)
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

When two keys map to the same hash index, it is called a:

AHit
BCollision
COverflow
DFault
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

The worst-case time complexity of quick sort is:

AO(n log n)
BO(n)
CO(n²)
DO(log n)
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 946Ch 7 · Sorting, Searching & Graphs

Topological sorting can be applied only to a:

ACyclic graph
BDirected acyclic graph (DAG)
CComplete undirected graph
DUndirected graph
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

A key that uniquely identifies each row and cannot be NULL is the:

AForeign key
BPrimary key
CSuper key
DCandidate key
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

Which normal form removes transitive dependencies?

A1NF
B2NF
C3NF
D0NF
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

The SQL command SELECT belongs to which category?

ADDL
BDML
CDCL
DTCL
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

CREATE, ALTER, and DROP are examples of:

ADML
BDDL
CDCL
DTCL
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

A foreign key is used to:

AUniquely identify a row in the same table
BReference the primary key of another table
CSort data in ascending order
DEncrypt sensitive data
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

A table is in 1NF if all its attribute values are:

AComposite and multi-valued
BAtomic (indivisible)
CEncrypted
DForeign keys
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

An entity that cannot be uniquely identified by its own attributes is a:

AStrong entity
BWeak entity
CSuper entity
DPrimary entity
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

A virtual table derived from a query is called a:

AIndex
BView
CTrigger
DSchema
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

GRANT and REVOKE are part of which SQL category?

ADDL
BDML
CDCL
DTCL
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 946Ch 7 · Data Models, Normalization & SQL

In BCNF, every determinant must be a:

AForeign key
BCandidate key
CComposite attribute
DNULL value
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

The ACID properties of a transaction are:

AAtomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
BAccess, Control, Integrity, Data
CAdd, Copy, Insert, Delete
DAtomic, Concurrent, Indexed, Distributed
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

The 'all-or-nothing' property of a transaction is:

AConsistency
BAtomicity
CIsolation
DDurability
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

Once a transaction commits, its changes persist even after a crash. This is:

AAtomicity
BIsolation
CDurability
DConsistency
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

Two-Phase Locking (2PL) is used to ensure:

ADeadlock prevention
BSerializability
CData redundancy
DEncryption
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

A situation where two transactions wait indefinitely for each other's locks is:

AStarvation
BDeadlock
CRollback
DCheckpoint
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

In log-based recovery, reapplying committed transactions is called:

AUNDO
BREDO
CCOMMIT
DLOCK
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

Which lock allows multiple transactions to read simultaneously?

AExclusive lock
BShared lock
CWrite lock
DDeadlock
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

A checkpoint in recovery is used to:

AEncrypt the transaction log
BReduce the amount of recovery work needed after a crash
CDelete the entire database
DCreate new indexes automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

Isolation in ACID ensures that:

ATransactions are permanently stored after commit
BConcurrent transactions don't interfere with each other
CData is encrypted during transmission
DAll operations in a transaction complete
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 946Ch 7 · Transaction Processing, Concurrency & Recovery

UNDO operation in recovery is applied to:

ACommitted transactions
BUncommitted (incomplete) transactions
CDatabase indexes
DVirtual views
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

A process is best defined as:

AA stored program on disk
BA program in execution
CA file in the file system
DA CPU register value
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

Which scheduling algorithm is preemptive and uses a time quantum?

AFCFS
BSJF
CRound Robin
DNon-preemptive Priority
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

The core component of an operating system is the:

AShell
BKernel
CCompiler
DDevice driver
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

Which structure stores all information about a process?

AFile Allocation Table
BProcess Control Block (PCB)
CPage table only
DCPU cache
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

A condition where the result depends on the timing of concurrent processes is a:

ADeadlock
BRace condition
CPage fault
DInterrupt
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

A binary semaphore is also called a:

AMonitor
BMutex
CThread
DPipe
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

Which scheduling algorithm gives the minimum average waiting time?

AFCFS
BShortest Job First (SJF)
CRound Robin
DPriority scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

A lightweight unit of execution that shares memory with others in the same process is a:

AProcess
BThread
CKernel
DDaemon
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

The interface through which a program requests OS services is the:

ACompiler
BSystem call
CSystem bus
DCPU cache
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 946Ch 7 · Operating System & Process Management

The Dining Philosophers problem illustrates issues of:

ASorting algorithms
BSynchronization and deadlock
CData compression
DNetwork routing
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Dividing memory into fixed-size pages and frames is called:

ASegmentation
BPaging
CSwapping
DCompaction
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

A page fault occurs when:

AThe CPU fails
BA required page is not in main memory
CThe disk is completely full
DA process terminates
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Which page replacement algorithm replaces the page not used for the longest time?

AFIFO
BLRU
COptimal
DRandom
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Wasted space inside an allocated memory block is called:

AExternal fragmentation
BInternal fragmentation
CSwapping
DThrashing
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Virtual memory is most commonly implemented using:

AMemory compaction
BDemand paging
CData compression
DCPU caching only
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

The theoretically optimal page replacement algorithm replaces the page:

AThat was loaded first
BNot needed for the longest future time
CThat was used most recently
DSelected at random
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

FIFO page replacement may suffer from:

ADeadlock
BBelady's anomaly
CStarvation
DRace conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Moving a process between main memory and disk is called:

APaging
BSwapping
CHashing
DIndexing
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

Which file allocation method stores file blocks in consecutive disk locations?

ALinked allocation
BIndexed allocation
CContiguous allocation
DHashed allocation
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 946Ch 7 · Memory Management, File Systems & Administration

External fragmentation can be reduced by:

AAdding more CPU registers
BCompaction or using paging
CDisabling the CPU cache
DIncreasing the CPU clock speed
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which entity has its own memory space, program counter, and code segment?

AProcess
BThread
CCoroutine
DInterrupt handler
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

An OS that groups similar jobs together for batch execution is a:

AReal-time OS
BTime-sharing OS
CBatch Processing OS
DDistributed OS
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

In DBMS, which component is responsible for maintaining concurrency control?

ATransaction Manager
BBuffer Manager
CDisk Manager
DCatalog Manager
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which DBMS component estimates and minimises the cost of query execution?

AParser
BQuery Optimizer
CBuffer Manager
DCatalog
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

A semaphore in OS represents:

AA synchronisation mechanism for shared resources
BA type of scheduling algorithm
CA memory management unit
DA file system structure
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

BFS (Breadth-First Search) uses which data structure?

AStack
BQueue
CPriority Queue
DHeap
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

DFS (Depth-First Search) uses which data structure (or property)?

AQueue (FIFO)
BStack (LIFO)
CPriority Queue
DHash Table
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

For an AVL tree with 7 nodes, what is the maximum possible height?

A2
B3
C4
D7
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which array correctly represents a min-heap?

A[4, 3, 2, 1]
B[1, 3, 2, 4]
C[3, 1, 2, 4]
D[2, 4, 1, 3]
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The time complexity of the enqueue operation in a queue implemented with a linked list is:

AO(1)
BO(n)
CO(log n)
DO(n²)
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The average time complexity of sequential (linear) search is:

AO(1)
BO(n)
CO(log n)
DO(n²)
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The basic classification of computer memory is:

AVolatile (RAM) and Non-volatile (ROM/Flash)
BPrimary and Secondary
CCache and Main memory
DStatic and Dynamic
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Which SDLC model is best described as sequential and rigid?

ASpiral
BWaterfall
CAgile
DPrototype
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Response time and scalability are examples of:

AFunctional requirements
BNon-functional requirements
CDesign constraints
DTest cases
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

A Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document:

AContains only UML diagrams
BCompletely describes what the software should do
CIs written after deployment
DReplaces the source code
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Which process model is primarily driven by risk analysis?

AWaterfall
BBig Bang
CV-Model
DSpiral
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

In the V-Model, each development phase is paired with a corresponding:

ACoding phase
BTesting phase
CDesign phase
DDeployment phase
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Unlike hardware, software:

AWears out with use
BDoes not wear out but may degrade over time without maintenance
CGets physically damaged
DImproves automatically over time
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

'The system shall authenticate users' is an example of a:

ANon-functional requirement
BFunctional requirement
CDesign constraint
DTechnical specification
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

The prototype model in software development is used to:

AWrite final production code quickly
BClarify and validate requirements through an early working model
CSkip the testing phase
DDeploy software with no testing
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Agile software development emphasises:

AStrict documentation over working software
BIterative delivery and customer collaboration
CA single delivery at the end of the project
DNo testing
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 946Ch 8 · Software Process & Requirements Engineering

Which is the FIRST step in the requirements engineering process?

AValidation
BElicitation
CSpecification
DManagement
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Good software design aims for:

ALow cohesion and low coupling
BHigh cohesion and high coupling
CHigh cohesion and low coupling
DLow cohesion and high coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Cohesion measures the:

ADependencies between different modules
BRelatedness of responsibilities within a single module
CNumber of lines of code
DNumber of developers on the team
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Question 732 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Coupling measures the:

AInternal logic within a module
BDegree of interdependence between different modules
CDatabase schema design
DNumber of test cases
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

The design principle of hiding module internals from other modules is called:

AInheritance
BInformation hiding
CPolymorphism
DNormalization
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Which type of cohesion is considered the BEST (highest)?

ACoincidental cohesion
BFunctional cohesion
CTemporal cohesion
DLogical cohesion
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Which type of coupling is considered the WORST?

AData coupling
BContent coupling
CControl coupling
DExternal coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Dividing software into smaller, independent, manageable units is called:

ANormalization
BModularity
CCoupling
DEncryption
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

In the Client-Server architecture:

AAll clients run independently
BThe server provides services and clients consume them
CThere are no network connections
DDatabase is eliminated
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

Building systems by composing pre-built, reusable software components is called:

ABig Bang development
BWaterfall development
CComponent-Based Software Engineering (CBSE)
DBlack-box testing
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 946Ch 8 · Software Design

The principle of progressively elaborating a design from abstract to detailed is called:

AStepwise refinement
BInformation hiding
CCoupling
DReverse engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

Which testing level tests individual modules in isolation?

AAcceptance testing
BUnit testing
CIntegration testing
DSystem testing
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

White-box testing is based on:

AExternal requirements only
BKnowledge of the internal code structure
CUser feedback
DRandom inputs
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

'Are we building the right product?' is the question answered by:

AVerification
BValidation
CCompilation
DRefactoring
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

COCOMO is used to estimate software:

AUI design complexity
BEffort and cost based on lines of code
CDatabase schema
DNetwork bandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

How many maturity levels does CMMI have?

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

Black-box testing is based on:

ACode inspection
BSystem requirements and specifications, without knowledge of internals
CDatabase indexes
DHardware specifications
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

Integration testing verifies:

ASingle functions in isolation
BInteractions between combined modules
CHardware compatibility
DEnd-user acceptability
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

Software Configuration Management (SCM) includes:

ADesigning UML diagrams
BVersion control, change control, and release management
CCPU scheduling
DNetwork design
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

'Are we building the product right?' is answered by:

AValidation
BVerification
CIntegration testing
DAcceptance testing
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 946Ch 8 · Software Testing, Cost Estimation, Quality & Configuration Management

ISO 9001 is related to:

ASorting algorithms
BQuality management systems
CNetwork protocols
DDatabase normalization
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

UML stands for:

AUnified Modeling Language
BUniversal Markup Language
CUnified Method Language
DUnit Management Language
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

An actor in a use case diagram is:

AA database table
BAn external entity that interacts with the system
CA method in a class
DA programming variable
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

Which UML diagram shows classes, attributes, and their relationships?

AUse case diagram
BSequence diagram
CClass diagram
DActivity diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

Which UML diagram models the dynamic behavior and time-ordered interactions?

AClass diagram
BSequence diagram
CDeployment diagram
DComponent diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

The relationship 'Dog IS-A Animal' in OO design is an example of:

AAggregation
BComposition
CGeneralization (Inheritance)
DDependency
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

The relationship 'University HAS-A Department' where Department can exist independently is:

AGeneralization
BAggregation
CDependency
DComposition
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

A use case diagram primarily shows:

AInternal code structure
BWhat the system does from the user's perspective
CHardware configuration
DDatabase schema
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

The OO development cycle starts with:

ACoding
BRequirements gathering followed by OO Analysis
CDeployment
DTesting
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Question 758 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

In Composition (strong HAS-A), the part:

ACan exist independently of the whole
BCannot exist without the whole
CIs always an abstract class
DInherits from the whole
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Fundamentals & Analysis

Activity diagrams in UML are used to model:

AStatic class structures
BPhysical deployment of software
CDynamic workflows and business processes
DDatabase relationships
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

OO Design focuses on:

AWhat the problem is
BHow to build the solution in software
CHardware selection
DNetwork topology
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Question 761 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

A sequence diagram emphasises:

APhysical deployment of software
BThe time ordering of messages between objects
CDatabase schema
DClass attributes only
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

A design pattern that ensures only one instance of a class exists is the:

AObserver
BFactory
CSingleton
DStrategy
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

In UML class diagrams, '+' before an attribute means it is:

APrivate
BProtected
CPackage
DPublic
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

A collaboration (communication) diagram emphasises:

AThe time ordering of messages
BThe structural organisation of objects and their links
CHardware components
DDatabase tables
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Question 765 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

Singleton, Factory, and Observer are examples of:

ATest cases
BDesign patterns
CDatabase triggers
DSDLC models
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

'-' before a class attribute in UML indicates:

APublic visibility
BProtected visibility
CPrivate visibility
DPackage visibility
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

Which symbol in UML indicates protected visibility?

A#
B+
C-
D~
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

Sequence and collaboration diagrams are both types of:

AStructural diagrams
BInteraction diagrams
CDeployment diagrams
DState diagrams
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design

GRASP is a set of patterns for:

ATest case generation
BNetwork configuration
CDatabase normalization
DAssigning responsibilities to classes in OO design
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

In OO implementation, design class diagram attributes become:

ADatabase tables
BFields or instance variables in a class
CTest cases
DNetwork protocols
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Question 771 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Messages in a collaboration/sequence diagram are translated into code as:

AClass declarations
BMethod calls in the receiver object's method body
CDatabase queries
DHTML elements
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Forward engineering refers to:

AGenerating models from existing code
BTesting old software
CGenerating code from design models
DRefactoring only
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Question 773 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Reverse engineering refers to:

AGenerating test cases automatically
BRecovering design models from existing source code
CDeploying software
DNormalizing a database
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Exception handling in OO languages uses keywords:

Astart / stop / pause
Btry / catch / throw
Cpush / pop / peek
Dbegin / end / error
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

A uni-directional association from Class A to Class B is implemented as:

AA reference attribute in Class A pointing to Class B
BA database trigger
CA method in Class B
DAn abstract method
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Design class diagram operations become:

ADatabase columns
BMethods (functions) in the implementation class
CHTML forms
DTest suites
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Question 777 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Round-trip engineering keeps:

ASource code and test cases synchronized
BDesign models and source code synchronized
CDatabases and UI synchronized
DNetworks and servers synchronized
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

Improving the internal structure of code without changing its external behaviour is called:

AReverse engineering
BRefactoring
CForward engineering
DTesting
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 946Ch 8 · Object-Oriented Design Implementation

In OO implementation, the design is updated iteratively because:

ACode never changes
BNew insights during implementation may reveal design improvements
CTesting is not needed
DModels are written in Java
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which statement is TRUE about static member functions in C++?

AStatic functions can be overloaded
BStatic functions can access non-static members directly
CStatic functions require an object to be called
DStatic functions cannot have return values
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

For multiple inheritance in C++, how many base classes are required at minimum?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which direction flag for the seekg()/seekp() stream functions is NOT valid in C++?

Aios::beg
Bios::cur
Cios::end
Dios::set
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

When does the Spiral Model of software development terminate?

AAfter the first prototype
BAfter all requirements are met
CAfter a fixed number of iterations
DWhen the product is cancelled or dies
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

SQA (Software Quality Assurance) combined with SQM (Software Quality Management) forms:

ASoftware Testing
BSoftware Verification
CSoftware Configuration Management
DSoftware Quality Processes
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Software is best defined as:

AA set of executable programs only
BA set of programs, associated documentation, and configuration data
CHardware instructions stored in ROM
DAn operating system and its utilities
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

A Use Case describes interaction between:

AClasses and objects
BModules and components
CActor and the system (product)
DDatabase and application
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

CASE (Computer-Aided Software Engineering) tools are primarily used for:

AOnly code compilation
BOnly testing
CSupporting all phases of software development and project management
DDatabase administration only
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Vertical lines (lifelines) in a UML Sequence Diagram represent:

AMethod calls
BObjects or actors
CTime intervals
DReturn values
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Question 789 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

In C++ templates, in the declaration template <class T>, T represents:

AA specific class name
BA template type parameter (placeholder for any type)
CA typedef alias
DA global variable
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The primary purpose of C++ namespaces is to:

AAvoid naming conflicts and encapsulate code
BSpeed up compilation
CReplace header files
DManage memory allocation
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Runtime polymorphism (late binding) in C++ is achieved through:

AFunction overloading
BVirtual functions
COperator overloading
DTemplates
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Question 792 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The three main phases of Object-Oriented development are:

AAnalysis, Design, and Implementation
BRequirements, Coding, and Testing
CPlanning, Execution, and Closure
DModelling, Prototyping, and Deployment
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which SDLC model explicitly pairs each development phase with a testing phase in a V-shape?

AWaterfall Model
BV-Model (Verification and Validation)
CSpiral Model
DAgile Model
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Version control systems are used primarily to:

ACompile source code
BTrack and manage multiple versions of code and files
CDebug runtime errors
DManage database schemas
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The arrow notation in UML represents which relationship?

AAssociation
BAggregation
CGeneralisation (Inheritance)
DDependency
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which C/C++ keyword CANNOT be used as an identifier (variable name)?

Awhile
Bcount
Cvalue
Ddata
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The operator used to access a member of a structure through a pointer in C is:

A.
B->
C::
D*
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Given classes A, B: public A, C: public B, the type of inheritance demonstrated is:

AMultiple inheritance
BMultilevel inheritance
CHierarchical inheritance
DHybrid inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Information theory was founded by:

AAlan Turing
BClaude Shannon
CDennis Ritchie
DNyquist
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Question 800 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

The information content of an event with probability p is:

Alog₂(p)
Blog₂(1/p)
C
D1/p
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Question 801 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Entropy of a source is maximum when the symbols are:

AAll identical
BEqually likely
CHighly correlated
DZero probability
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Question 802 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

The Shannon-Hartley channel capacity formula is:

AC = B + S/N
BC = B·log₂(1 + S/N)
CC = S/N
DC = B/2
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Entropy is measured in:

AHertz
BBits per symbol
CWatts
DVolts
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Question 804 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

A Fourier transform converts a signal from:

ATime domain to frequency domain
BAnalog to digital
CDigital to analog
DBits to bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Increasing the signal-to-noise ratio of a channel:

ADecreases capacity
BIncreases capacity
CHas no effect
DRemoves bandwidth
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Question 806 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Power Spectral Density describes how a signal's power is distributed over:

ATime
BFrequency
CAmplitude
DPhase
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Question 807 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

A continuous signal is classified as:

ADigital
BAnalog
CDiscrete
DBinary
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Question 808 of 946Ch 9 · Introduction to Information Theory & Signals

Bandwidth of a signal refers to its range of:

AAmplitudes
BFrequencies
CPhases
DBits
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Question 809 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

The Nyquist sampling theorem states that the sampling rate must be at least:

AEqual to the highest frequency
BTwice the highest frequency
CHalf the highest frequency
DFour times the bandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

PCM stands for:

APulse Code Modulation
BPulse Carrier Method
CPhase Coded Modulation
DPower Control Mode
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Question 811 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

The three steps to convert analog to digital are:

AFilter, amplify, transmit
BSampling, quantization, encoding
CEncrypt, compress, send
DModulate, mix, detect
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Question 812 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

Delta modulation uses how many bits per sample?

A1
B2
C4
D8
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Question 813 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

Error introduced by rounding sampled values is called:

AAliasing
BQuantization noise
CCrosstalk
DAttenuation
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

Multiple signals sharing a channel using time slots is:

AFDM
BTDM
CCDM
DPCM
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

Overlapping of adjacent pulses causing detection errors is:

AQuantization
BInter-Symbol Interference (ISI)
CSampling
DCompanding
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

DPCM encodes the ____ between successive samples.

ASum
BDifference
CProduct
DRatio
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Question 817 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

A Phase-Locked Loop (PLL) is used to:

AStore data
BSynchronize output phase/frequency to an input
CCompress files
DDetect collisions
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Circuits

If a signal's highest frequency is 4 kHz, the minimum sampling rate is:

A2 kHz
B4 kHz
C8 kHz
D16 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

Which source coding technique produces an optimal prefix code?

AShannon-Fano coding
BHuffman coding
CRun-length coding
DASCII coding
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

Huffman coding builds its tree in a ____ manner.

ATop-down
BBottom-up
CRandom
DLeft-to-right
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

In source coding, more frequent symbols are assigned:

ALonger codes
BShorter codes
CEqual codes
DNo codes
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

The average code length of a source can never be less than its:

ABandwidth
BEntropy
CPower
DFrequency
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

A signal with finite average power and infinite energy is a:

AEnergy signal
BPower signal
CDigital signal
DRandom signal
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Question 824 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

Shannon-Fano coding splits symbols in a ____ manner.

ABottom-up
BTop-down
CCircular
DRecursive only
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

A fully predictable signal is classified as:

ARandom
BDeterministic
CStochastic
DNoisy
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Question 826 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

Coding efficiency is defined as:

AEntropy × average length
BEntropy / average code length
CAverage length / bandwidth
DPower / noise
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Question 827 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

Reliable transmission is possible (Shannon) when the data rate is:

AGreater than channel capacity
BLess than channel capacity
CEqual to bandwidth
DEqual to noise
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 946Ch 9 · Principles of Signaling & Source Coding

A signal with finite total energy is called a/an:

APower signal
BEnergy signal
CPeriodic signal
DRandom signal
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Question 829 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

Loss of signal strength as it travels along a medium is called:

ADistortion
BAttenuation
CCrosstalk
DNoise
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Question 830 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

Which code can both DETECT and CORRECT a single-bit error?

AParity bit
BHamming code
CChecksum
DSimple CRC (detection only)
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

CRC error detection is based on:

AAddition only
BPolynomial division
CMultiplication
DSorting
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Question 832 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

The Hamming distance between two codewords is the number of:

ACommon bits
BDiffering bit positions
CTotal bits
DParity bits
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

To correct 'd' errors, the minimum Hamming distance must be at least:

Ad
Bd+1
C2d+1
D2d
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Question 834 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

Interference of a signal from one channel onto another is called:

AAttenuation
BCrosstalk
CDistortion
DAliasing
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Question 835 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

A single parity bit can:

ACorrect two errors
BDetect a single-bit error
CCorrect all errors
DCompress data
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Question 836 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

Forward Error Correction (FEC) corrects errors:

ABy retransmission
BAt the receiver without retransmission
CBy ignoring them
DUsing parity only
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

To DETECT 'd' errors, the minimum Hamming distance must be at least:

Ad
Bd+1
C2d
D2d+1
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 946Ch 9 · Impairments, Error Handling & Compression

Which is a lossless compression technique?

AJPEG
BMP3
CHuffman coding
DMPEG
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

ARQ stands for:

AAutomatic Repeat reQuest
BAutomatic Reliable Queue
CAcknowledged Recovery Query
DAsync Repeat Queue
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Question 840 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

In Go-Back-N ARQ, when an error occurs the sender retransmits:

AOnly the erroneous frame
BThe erroneous frame and all subsequent frames
CNothing
DThe first frame only
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Which flow control method sends only one frame and waits for an ACK?

ASliding window
BStop-and-Wait
CGo-Back-N
DSelective Repeat
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Question 842 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Selective Repeat ARQ retransmits:

AAll frames
BOnly the specific erroneous frame
CNo frames
DThe last frame
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Question 843 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

The sliding window protocol improves performance by:

ASending one frame at a time
BAllowing multiple frames before an ACK
CRemoving ACKs
DDisabling flow control
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Question 844 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Asynchronous transmission frames each character with:

AA shared clock
BStart and stop bits
CCRC only
DSliding windows
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Question 845 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Which ARQ protocol is the most efficient but most complex?

AStop-and-Wait
BGo-Back-N
CSelective Repeat
DSimplex
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Question 846 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Flow control is used to prevent:

AData encryption
BThe receiver from being overwhelmed
CRouting loops
DCompression
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Question 847 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

Synchronous transmission sends data as:

ASingle bits with parity
BBlocks of characters with a shared clock
COne character with start/stop bits
DRandom pulses
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Question 848 of 946Ch 9 · Data Link Control & Protocols

ARQ protocols rely on ____ to signal successful receipt.

AEncryption keys
BAcknowledgements (ACK)
CHash values
DSubnet masks
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Question 849 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

In ASK (Amplitude Shift Keying), the carrier's ____ varies with data.

AFrequency
BAmplitude
CPhase
DWavelength
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Question 850 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

In FSK, the carrier's ____ is changed to represent data.

AAmplitude
BFrequency
CPhase
DPower
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Question 851 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

In PSK, the carrier's ____ is varied.

AAmplitude
BFrequency
CPhase
DBandwidth
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Question 852 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

QPSK transmits how many bits per symbol?

A1
B2
C4
D8
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Question 853 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

A modem performs:

AEncryption only
BModulation and demodulation
CRouting
DCompression only
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Question 854 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

Manchester encoding is notable for being:

ALossy
BSelf-clocking (mid-bit transition)
CAnalog only
DAsynchronous only
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Question 855 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

In Frequency Modulation (FM), the carrier's ____ changes with the message.

AAmplitude
BFrequency
CPhase
DPolarity
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Question 856 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

Encoding converts digital data into:

AAnalog carriers
BDigital signals
CLight only
DPure noise
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Question 857 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

Which modulation carries multiple bits per symbol using both amplitude and phase?

AASK
BFSK
CQAM
DNRZ
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Question 858 of 946Ch 9 · Data Encoding & Modulation

Differential PSK (DPSK) encodes data based on:

AAbsolute phase
BPhase changes between symbols
CAmplitude only
DFrequency only
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Question 859 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Fourier Transform is used to:

AConvert a signal from the time domain to the frequency domain
BConvert a signal from the frequency domain to the time domain
CCompress digital signals
DEncrypt data transmissions
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

When a square wave is applied to an integrator op-amp circuit, the output is:

ASquare wave
BSine wave
CTriangle wave
DSawtooth wave
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Question 861 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Z-transform is primarily used for:

AAnalysing continuous-time signals
BAnalysing discrete-time signals and systems
CImage compression
DFrequency modulation
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Interleaving in digital communications provides what type of diversity?

ATime diversity
BFrequency diversity
CSpace diversity
DPolarization diversity
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In FDM, increasing the modulation index results in:

ADecreased bandwidth requirements
BIncreased bandwidth requirements
CNo change in bandwidth
DIncreased signal-to-noise ratio without bandwidth change
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Adding zeros to the end of a discrete signal before taking its DFT is called:

AZero Padding
BWindowing
CDecimation
DInterpolation
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Question 865 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In TDM (Time Division Multiplexing), the component essential for recovering individual channels at the receiver is:

AEqualizer
BFrame synchronization
CBandwidth filter
DDemodulator
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In a common-collector (emitter follower) BJT amplifier, the phase relationship between input and output is:

A180 degrees (inverted)
B90 degrees
C0 degrees (in phase)
D45 degrees
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

In an isometric projection, the three axes are drawn at:

A90 degrees
B120 degrees
C45 degrees
D60 degrees
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Question 868 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A scale of 1:2 means the drawing is:

ATwice the object size
BHalf the object size
CEqual to the object
DFour times the size
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Hidden edges in an engineering drawing are shown using:

AContinuous thick lines
BDashed lines
CCentre lines
DDimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Which projection shows true dimensions using front, top and side views?

AIsometric
BOrthographic
CPerspective
DOblique
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Which standard drawing sheet size is the largest?

AA4
BA2
CA0
DA1
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Question 872 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A sectional view is used to show:

AThe exterior only
BInternal features of an object
CColor
DMaterial cost
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Question 873 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A scale of 2:1 indicates the drawing is:

AHalf size
BFull size
CEnlarged (twice the object)
DOne quarter size
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Question 874 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Nepal and most of Europe use which projection system?

AThird-angle
BFirst-angle
CIsometric only
DOblique only
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Question 875 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Centre lines in a drawing are typically shown as:

AThick continuous lines
BChain (dash-dot) lines
CDashed lines
DWavy lines
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Question 876 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A pictorial projection primarily provides:

AA 2D multiview
BA 3D-like single view of the object
CCost data
DA circuit diagram
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Question 877 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The principle that money available now is worth more than the same amount later is the:

AInflation rate
BTime value of money
CDepreciation
DSalvage value
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Question 878 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is generally acceptable if its Net Present Value (NPV) is:

ALess than zero
BEqual to zero
CGreater than zero
DNegative
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Question 879 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate at which NPV equals:

AOne
BZero
CInfinity
DThe investment
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Question 880 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The compound interest future value formula is:

AF = P + i + n
BF = P(1 + i)ⁿ
CF = P·i·n
DF = P / n
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Question 881 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR stands for:

AMaximum Allowed Return Rate
BMinimum Acceptable Rate of Return
CMean Average Return Rate
DMarginal Asset Recovery Rate
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Question 882 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The payback period measures the time required to:

ADouble the investment
BRecover the initial investment
CPay taxes
DDepreciate fully
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Question 883 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Straight-line depreciation is calculated as:

A(Cost + Salvage) / Life
B(Cost − Salvage) / Useful life
CCost × Life
DCost / Salvage
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Question 884 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project with an IRR greater than the MARR should generally be:

ARejected
BAccepted
CIgnored
DDelayed indefinitely
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Question 885 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A benefit-cost (B/C) ratio greater than 1 indicates the project is:

AUnacceptable
BEconomically acceptable
CBreak-even only
DLoss-making
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Question 886 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The decrease in the value of an asset over time is called:

AAppreciation
BDepreciation
CInflation
DInterest
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Question 887 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A horizontal bar chart used to show a project schedule is a:

APERT chart
BGantt chart
CPie chart
DFlow chart
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Question 888 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path in a project network is the:

AShortest path
BLongest path determining minimum duration
CCheapest path
DPath with most resources
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Question 889 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Tasks on the critical path have a float (slack) of:

AMaximum
BZero
COne day
DNegative
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Question 890 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT uses how many time estimates for each activity?

AOne
BTwo
CThree
DFour
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Question 891 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The PERT expected time is calculated as:

A(O + M + P)/3
B(O + 4M + P)/6
C(O + P)/2
DO × M × P
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Question 892 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Which technique is deterministic (uses single time estimates)?

APERT
BCPM
CMonte Carlo
DGantt only
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Question 893 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Float (slack) is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without:

AIncreasing cost
BDelaying the project
CAdding resources
DChanging scope
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Question 894 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The final phase of the project life cycle is:

AInitiation
BPlanning
CExecution
DClosure
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Question 895 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is best described as a ____ scheduling technique.

ADeterministic
BProbabilistic
CFinancial
DGraphical only
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Question 896 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Smoothing resource usage over the project duration is called:

ACrashing
BResource levelling
CFast-tracking
DOutsourcing
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Question 897 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

The triple constraint (iron triangle) of project management consists of:

AScope, Time, Cost
BPeople, Process, Product
CRisk, Reward, Resource
DPlan, Do, Check
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Question 898 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A formal invitation to contractors to submit bids is called a:

AContract
BTender
CWarranty
DLicense
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Question 899 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Transferring a risk to a third party (e.g., insurance) is a risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CAcceptance
DMitigation
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Question 900 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A legally binding agreement between client and contractor is a:

ATender
BContract
CBid
DNotice
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Question 901 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

In a lump-sum contract, the contractor is paid:

APer unit of work
BA fixed total price
CCost plus a fee
DHourly only
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Question 902 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Which is NOT a standard risk response strategy?

AAvoid
BTransfer
CMitigate
DIgnore permanently
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Question 903 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

The first step in risk management is to:

ARespond to risk
BIdentify risks
CClose the project
DSign the contract
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Question 904 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

In project management, quality typically sits:

AOutside the triangle
BAt the centre of the triple constraint
CAbove scope only
DBelow cost only
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Question 905 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A cost-plus contract pays the contractor:

AA fixed lump sum
BActual cost plus an agreed fee
CPer item rate only
DNothing until completion
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Question 906 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Evaluating submitted bids to select a contractor is part of the:

AClosure phase
BTender/procurement process
CDepreciation calculation
DDrawing process
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Question 907 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The paramount obligation of an engineer is to:

AMaximise profit
BHold public safety, health and welfare paramount
CPlease the employer
DFinish quickly
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Question 908 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

EIA in engineering practice stands for:

AEngineering Investment Analysis
BEnvironmental Impact Assessment
CEconomic Inflation Adjustment
DElectrical Installation Audit
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Question 909 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Meeting present needs without compromising future generations defines:

ADepreciation
BSustainable development
COutsourcing
DPrivatisation
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Question 910 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer should practise:

AIn any field regardless of training
BOnly within their area of competence
CWithout regulation
DOnly for profit
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Question 911 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

OHS in the workplace stands for:

AOffice Hardware Standards
BOccupational Health and Safety
COperational Hazard System
DOverhead Service
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Question 912 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

NEA stands for:

ANepal Electricity Authority
BNepal Engineers' Association
CNational Engineering Audit
DNepal Energy Agency
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Question 913 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A situation where personal interest conflicts with professional duty is a:

AConflict of interest
BSustainable practice
CTender
DContract
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Question 914 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Offering or accepting bribes in engineering practice is:

AAcceptable if small
BUnethical and prohibited
CEncouraged
DRequired
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Question 915 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Engineering ethics primarily deals with:

AProfit maximisation
BMoral principles governing professional conduct
CTax calculation
DDrawing scales
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Question 916 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Maintaining client confidentiality is:

AOptional
BAn ethical responsibility of the engineer
CIllegal
DOnly for managers
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Question 917 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the NEC Act:

A2050
B2055
C2060
D2047
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Question 918 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Which body is the statutory regulator of engineering practice in Nepal?

ANEA
BNEC
CCIAA
DNRB
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Question 919 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

To legally practise as an engineer in Nepal, one must be:

AA member of NEA only
BRegistered/licensed with NEC
COver 30 years old
DA government employee
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Question 920 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Which examination does the NEC conduct?

AUniversity entrance
BRegistration (licence) examination
CCivil service exam
DScholarship exam
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Question 921 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The main difference between NEC and NEA is that NEC is a:

AProfessional association
BStatutory regulatory body
CPrivate company
DBank
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Question 922 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

A registered engineer who violates the code of conduct may face:

AA promotion
BSuspension or cancellation of registration
CA tax refund
DNothing
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Question 923 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Maintaining professional standards and recognising qualifications is a function of the:

ANEA
BNEC
CMinistry of Finance
DLocal municipality
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Question 924 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The NEC primarily regulates:

AEngineering education and professional practice
BBanking
CAgriculture
DTourism
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Question 925 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Registration with NEC is:

AOptional for all engineers
BMandatory to practise engineering in Nepal
COnly for foreigners
DOnly for students
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Question 926 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The NEC code of ethics binds:

AOnly government engineers
BAll registered engineers
COnly contractors
DOnly students
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Question 927 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
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Question 928 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
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Question 929 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
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Question 930 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
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Question 931 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
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Question 932 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
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Question 933 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
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Question 934 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
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Question 935 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
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Question 936 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
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Question 937 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
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Question 938 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 939 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
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Question 940 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
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Question 941 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
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Question 942 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
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Question 943 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
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Question 944 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
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Question 945 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 946 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
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