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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Industrial Engineering

10 Chapters·1128 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BTo the right of the side view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

Hidden edges on a machine drawing are shown by:

AContinuous thick lines
BThin dashed lines
CThin chain lines
DContinuous thin lines
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The throat thickness of a fillet weld of leg size s is:

A0.5 s
Bs
C1.414 s
D0.707 s
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

According to Unwin's formula, rivet diameter d (mm) for plate thickness t (mm) is:

Ad = 2√t
Bd = 6√t
Cd = 6t
Dd = 1.5t
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of:

ALeast of tearing, shearing and crushing strengths to strength of solid plate
BStrength of solid plate to least strength
CShearing strength to crushing strength
DTearing strength to shearing strength
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A double-start thread has a pitch of 2 mm. Its lead is:

A8 mm
B2 mm
C1 mm
D4 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The thread best suited for a bench vice, where heavy axial force acts in one direction, is:

AWhitworth thread
BKnuckle thread
CButtress thread
DSquare thread
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A key which transmits torque only by friction is the:

AWoodruff key
BSunk key
CSaddle key
DFeather key
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

A key that permits axial movement of the hub along the shaft is the:

ASaddle key
BGib-head key
CKennedy key
DFeather key
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The difference between the minimum size of a hole and the maximum size of the mating shaft is called:

ALimit
BDeviation
CAllowance
DTolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

The fit H7/p6 is an example of:

ARunning fit
BClearance fit
CInterference fit
DTransition fit
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

On a surface-texture symbol, a horizontal bar added to the basic tick means:

ASurface must be polished to N1
BAny process may be used
CRemoval of material by machining is required
DRemoval of material is prohibited
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

Interchangeability of parts in mass production is achieved mainly by:

AHand fitting each assembly
BWelding parts together permanently
CManufacturing parts within specified limits and fits
DUsing larger tolerances than the drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Drawing

As the tolerance specified on a component is made tighter, the manufacturing cost generally:

AIncreases
BDecreases
CBecomes zero
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The property that allows a metal to be drawn into wires is:

ADuctility
BMalleability
CResilience
DHardness
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The energy absorbed by a material up to the elastic limit is called:

AToughness
BHardness
CCreep
DResilience
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In a Vickers hardness test, the indenter is a:

A10 mm steel ball
B120° diamond cone
CTungsten carbide cylinder
DSquare-based diamond pyramid of 136°
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In the Izod impact test, the specimen is held as a:

ACantilever
BFixed-fixed beam
CSimply supported beam
DColumn
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Duralumin is an alloy of aluminium mainly with:

ATin
BCopper
CNickel
DZinc
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Brass is an alloy of:

AIron and nickel
BCopper and tin
CCopper and nickel
DCopper and zinc
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The minimum chromium content for a steel to be called stainless is about:

A5%
B25%
C2%
D10.5–12%
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Fatigue failure occurs under:

AA single static load above UTS
BConstant load at high temperature
CPure compressive static load
DRepeated or fluctuating stresses below the ultimate strength
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Which process improves fatigue strength by inducing compressive residual stress?

AAnnealing
BElectroplating with chromium
CShot peening
DGrinding with a coarse wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

The creep stage used as the basis for design is:

APrimary creep
BTertiary creep
CSecondary (steady-state) creep
DInstantaneous elastic strain
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

In galvanic corrosion between zinc and steel, the metal that corrodes is:

ANeither
BSteel
CBoth equally
DZinc
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Dezincification of brass is an example of:

AUniform corrosion
BPitting corrosion
CSelective leaching
DFretting corrosion
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Testing of a welded pressure vessel without damaging it is carried out by:

ANon-destructive testing such as ultrasonic or radiographic testing
BFatigue testing to failure
CCharpy impact testing of the vessel
DTensile testing of the vessel
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 1128Ch 1 · Engineering Materials

Value analysis of a component mainly aims to:

ATighten all tolerances
BIncrease the weight of the part
CUse the most expensive material available
DProvide the required function at the lowest total cost
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

The number of atoms per unit cell in an FCC structure is:

A1
B2
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

The atomic packing factor of a BCC structure is:

A0.52
B0.74
C0.90
D0.68
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

γ-iron (austenite) has which crystal structure?

AHCP
BBCC
CBCT
DFCC
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

In an edge dislocation, the Burgers vector is:

AParallel to the dislocation line
BAt 45° to the dislocation line
CPerpendicular to the dislocation line
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

According to Gibbs' phase rule at constant pressure, the degrees of freedom at the eutectic point of a binary alloy are:

A0
B1
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

The reaction Liquid + Solid α → Solid β on cooling is called:

AMonotectic
BEutectoid
CEutectic
DPeritectic
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

The eutectoid composition in the iron-carbon diagram is about:

A4.3% C
B2.1% C
C0.02% C
D0.8% C
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

Pearlite is a lamellar mixture of:

AAustenite and ferrite
BAustenite and cementite
CFerrite and martensite
DFerrite and cementite
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

The hardest micro-constituent obtained by rapid quenching of steel is:

APearlite
BMartensite
CFerrite
DAustenite
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

In spheroidal graphite (ductile) cast iron, graphite nodules are produced by adding:

ALead
BMagnesium or cerium
CSulphur
DPhosphorus
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

ABakelite
BNylon
CPolyethylene
DPVC
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

According to the Hall-Petch relation, decreasing grain size:

AIncreases yield strength
BHas no effect on strength
CDecreases yield strength
DOnly increases ductility and lowers strength
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

Annealing is often carried out between stages of deep drawing in order to:

AReduce the ductility of the sheet
BRemove work hardening so that further deformation is possible
CAdd carbon to the surface
DIncrease the hardness before the next draw
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 1128Ch 1 · Material Science

Replacing several machined metal parts by a single injection-moulded plastic part is attractive mainly when:

AOnly a few pieces are required
BTooling cost is ignored
CProduction volume is large enough to recover the mould cost
DThe part must carry very high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law is based on the conservation of:

AMass
BEnergy
CMomentum
DCharge
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Two 10 Ω resistors connected in parallel have an equivalent resistance of:

A10 Ω
B20 Ω
C2.5 Ω
D5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The form factor of a sinusoidal wave is:

A0.637
B1.11
C1.414
D0.707
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

In a star-connected three-phase system, line voltage equals:

APhase voltage/√3
B3 × phase voltage
C√3 × phase voltage
DPhase voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The synchronous speed of a 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor is:

A750 rpm
B1500 rpm
C1000 rpm
D3000 rpm
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rpm. Its slip is:

A1.5%
B2%
C6%
D4%
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The DC motor best suited for electric traction and cranes is the:

APermanent-magnet motor
BSeries motor
CShunt motor
DSeparately excited motor
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

The direction of induced EMF in a generator is found by:

AFleming's right-hand rule
BCork-screw rule
CFleming's left-hand rule
DLenz's law only
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A transformer has maximum efficiency when:

ACopper loss equals iron loss
BCopper loss is zero
CIt runs at no load
DIron loss is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Transformer cores are laminated mainly to reduce:

AEddy-current loss
BLeakage reactance
CHysteresis loss only
DCopper loss
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

A Zener diode is mainly used as a:

ARectifier
BAmplifier
CVoltage regulator
DOscillator
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

For a BJT with α = 0.98, the current gain β is:

A50
B98
C0.98
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Power-factor improvement capacitors are installed in an industrial plant mainly to:

AConvert AC into DC
BIncrease the active power consumed
CIncrease the maximum demand
DReduce line current, losses and demand (kVA) charges
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 1128Ch 1 · Basic Electrical and Electronics

Fitting a variable-frequency drive to a centrifugal pump saves energy because pump power varies approximately as:

AThe square root of the speed
BThe cube of the speed
CThe speed
DIt does not vary with speed
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

While operating a lathe or drilling machine, the operator should NOT:

AWear safety goggles
BUse a brush to remove chips
CStop the machine before measuring
DWear gloves or loose clothing
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The correct extinguisher for a fire on live electrical equipment is:

ASoda-acid
BWater jet
CSand mixed with water
DCO2 extinguisher
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

A micrometer with 0.5 mm pitch and 50 thimble divisions has a least count of:

A0.01 mm
B0.02 mm
C0.05 mm
D0.001 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In a lathe, the lead screw is used for:

AThread cutting
BHolding the tailstock
CRotating the chuck
DPlain turning feed
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The cutting speed when turning a 50 mm diameter bar at 200 rpm is approximately:

A31.4 m/min
B62.8 m/min
C10 m/min
D100 m/min
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

Long, gentle tapers on a lathe are best produced by:

AForm tool
BCompound rest swivelling
CKnurling
DTailstock set-over method
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The quick-return mechanism is used in a:

ADrilling machine
BLathe
CGrinding machine
DShaper
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In down (climb) milling, the cutter rotates:

APerpendicular to the feed
BIn the same direction as the feed
COpposite to the feed
DWithout any feed
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

Number of crank turns on a dividing head (40:1) to cut a 20-tooth gear is:

A0.5
B2
C40
D20
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

For grinding a very hard material, the wheel should be:

AHard grade
BOf coarsest possible grit
CMetal-bonded only
DSoft grade
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The standard point angle of a general-purpose twist drill is:

A135°
B60°
C90°
D118°
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

In DC arc welding with straight polarity (DCSP), the electrode is connected to the:

AAC transformer
BEarth only
CNegative terminal
DPositive terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The oxy-acetylene flame used for welding brass is:

ANeutral flame
BOxidising flame
CReducing flame
DCarburising flame
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

A bar is turned over a length of 300 mm at a feed of 0.2 mm/rev and 500 rpm. The machining time is:

A1.5 minutes
B0.3 minute
C6 minutes
D3 minutes
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 1128Ch 1 · Mechanical Workshop

The main industrial-engineering benefit of using jigs and fixtures is:

AElimination of inspection forever
BLonger set-up for every piece
CHigher scrap rate
DReduced cycle time and consistent quality without skilled setting
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

An organisation structure in which an employee reports to two bosses is:

ACommittee organisation
BLine organisation
CFunctional organisation
DMatrix organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Functional organisation was introduced by:

AMax Weber
BPeter Drucker
CF. W. Taylor
DHenri Fayol
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Who is known as the father of modern (administrative) management theory?

AElton Mayo
BHenri Fayol
CAbraham Maslow
DF. W. Taylor
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

The Hawthorne experiments are associated with:

AHenry Gantt
BMax Weber
CDouglas McGregor
DElton Mayo
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Management by Objectives (MBO) was popularised by:

AFrederick Herzberg
BWilliam Ouchi
CVictor Vroom
DPeter Drucker
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

In Blake and Mouton's Managerial Grid, the ideal (team management) style is:

A9,9
B5,5
C1,1
D9,1
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

The informal channel of communication in an organisation is called:

ADownward communication
BScalar chain
CGrapevine
DChain of command
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

According to Herzberg, salary and working conditions are:

AHygiene factors
BMotivators
CSelf-actualisation needs
DGrowth needs
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

The highest level need in Maslow's hierarchy is:

AEsteem
BSelf-actualisation
CSafety
DSocial
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Selection in HRM is generally called a negative process because it:

AReduces salaries
BAttracts many candidates
CRejects unsuitable candidates
DRemoves existing employees
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Fixed cost Rs 50,000, selling price Rs 25/unit, variable cost Rs 15/unit. Break-even quantity is:

A5,000 units
B10,000 units
C2,000 units
D3,333 units
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

An information system that integrates finance, HR, production and sales on a common database is:

ADSS
BExpert system
CTPS
DERP
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

The Delphi method is used for:

ATechnology forecasting using anonymous expert opinion
BPerformance appraisal
CInventory control
DPlant layout
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

Time study, standardisation of tools and methods, and the differential piece-rate system were introduced by:

AF. W. Taylor
BElton Mayo
CMax Weber
DAbraham Maslow
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1128Ch 1 · Organization Management

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, salary and working conditions are:

ASelf-actualisation needs
BMotivators that create satisfaction
CHygiene factors that prevent dissatisfaction
DTheory Y assumptions
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

A system that allows both mass and energy to cross its boundary is:

AAn adiabatic system
BAn isolated system
CA closed system
DAn open system
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Which of the following is an intensive property?

AVolume
BTemperature
CEnthalpy
DInternal energy
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Heat and work are:

APath functions
BExact differentials
CPoint functions
DProperties of the system
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis of:

AEntropy
BTemperature measurement
CInternal energy
DHeat engines
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The temperature at which Celsius and Fahrenheit scales read the same value is:

A0°
B−273°
C−40°
D40°
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The value of the universal gas constant is:

A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B8.314 kJ/kg·K
C1.005 kJ/kg·K
D8.314 kJ/kmol·K
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

For air, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg·K and cv = 0.718 kJ/kg·K. The gas constant R is:

A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B1.4 kJ/kg·K
C0.718 kJ/kg·K
D1.723 kJ/kg·K
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

A real gas behaves most like an ideal gas at:

AHigh pressure and high temperature
BHigh pressure and low temperature
CCritical point
DLow pressure and high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Dryness fraction of dry saturated steam is:

A0.5
B0
C1
DInfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Wet steam at a pressure where hf = 500 kJ/kg and hfg = 2200 kJ/kg has x = 0.9. Its enthalpy is:

A2480 kJ/kg
B2700 kJ/kg
C2200 kJ/kg
D1980 kJ/kg
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

At the critical point of water, the latent heat of vaporisation is:

AMaximum
BEqual to hg
C2257 kJ/kg
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

The Mollier chart is a plot of:

AEnthalpy vs entropy
BTemperature vs entropy
CPressure vs enthalpy
DPressure vs volume
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

Specific energy consumption of a plant is normally expressed as:

AEnergy consumed per unit of production
BMaximum demand in kVA
CBoiler pressure per hour
DTotal annual energy bill
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics

One kilowatt-hour of energy is equal to:

A3 600 kJ
B1 000 kJ
C3 600 kW
D4 187 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

For a closed system, the first law of thermodynamics is expressed as:

AQ + W = ΔH
BQ − W = ΔS
CQ − W = ΔU
DQ = W
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of:

APressure only
BVolume only
CTemperature only
DPressure and volume
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In a constant-volume process, the work done is:

AEqual to heat supplied × γ
BP(V2 − V1)
CZero
DmRT ln(V2/V1)
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In an isothermal process of an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is:

AEqual to work done
BMaximum
CZero
DEqual to m·cp·ΔT
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

The polytropic index n for a reversible adiabatic process is:

A0
B∞
C1
Dγ
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

0.5 m³ of air at 1 bar is compressed isothermally to 0.1 m³. The work done (magnitude) is approximately:

A160 kJ
B40 kJ
C80.5 kJ
D50 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

During a throttling process, which property remains constant?

AEnthalpy
BPressure
CTemperature (for steam)
DEntropy
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

Steam enters a nozzle with negligible velocity and an enthalpy drop of 100 kJ/kg. The exit velocity is about:

A44.7 m/s
B447 m/s
C1000 m/s
D100 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

In an adiabatic steam turbine with negligible KE and PE changes, work output per kg equals:

Ah1 − h2
BZero
Ch2 − h1
Du1 − u2
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

A perpetual motion machine of the first kind violates:

AThe first law of thermodynamics
BThe zeroth law
CThe third law
DThe second law
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

Air is freely expanded into an insulated vacuum. For the air:

AQ = 0, W > 0, ΔU < 0
BQ > 0, W = 0, ΔU > 0
CQ = W, ΔU = 0 only if reversible
DQ = 0, W = 0, ΔU = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

When an evacuated, insulated rigid tank is filled with an ideal gas from a supply line at Tline, the final gas temperature is:

AZero
BTline
CTline/γ
Dγ·Tline
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

The indirect (heat-loss) method of finding boiler efficiency is preferred because it:

AAlways gives a higher efficiency
BNeeds no measurement
CIgnores flue-gas temperature
DShows where the individual losses occur
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1128Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics

An economiser in a boiler plant recovers waste heat to:

ARaise the steam pressure directly
BPre-heat the lubricating oil
CPre-heat the feed water using flue gases
DCool the flue gas with fresh fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The Kelvin-Planck statement implies that:

AEntropy of the universe decreases
BHeat always flows from cold to hot
CNo heat engine can have 100% thermal efficiency
DEnergy can be created
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A perpetual motion machine of the second kind violates:

ALaw of conservation of mass
BFirst law of thermodynamics
CKelvin-Planck statement
DZeroth law
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A Carnot engine works between 527 °C and 27 °C. Its efficiency is:

A62.5%
B37.5%
C94.9%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The Carnot cycle consists of:

ATwo isothermal and two isochoric processes
BTwo isobaric and two isentropic processes
CTwo reversible isothermal and two reversible adiabatic processes
DTwo isochoric and two isentropic processes
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:

ASource and sink temperatures only
BThe engine size
CThe working fluid
DThe pressure ratio only
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

A refrigerator operates between −3 °C and 27 °C. Its maximum (Carnot) COP is:

A10
B1.11
C9
D0.9
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

For the same temperature limits, COP of a heat pump is related to COP of a refrigerator by:

ACOPHP = COPR
BCOPHP = 1/COPR
CCOPHP = COPR − 1
DCOPHP = COPR + 1
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Which of the following is NOT a cause of irreversibility?

AHeat transfer through a finite temperature difference
BFriction
CQuasi-static frictionless compression
DFree expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

For an irreversible cycle, the Clausius inequality gives ∮δQ/T:

A= ∞
B= 0
C> 0
D< 0
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

The entropy of an isolated system undergoing a real process:

AMay increase or decrease
BAlways increases
CAlways decreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

An isentropic process is:

AReversible and isothermal
BConstant enthalpy
CIrreversible and adiabatic
DReversible and adiabatic
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Isentropic efficiency of a compressor is defined as:

A(h1 − h2a)/(h1 − h2s)
B(h2a − h1)/(h2s − h1)
C(h2s − h1)/(h2a − h1)
Dh2s/h2a
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

One tonne of refrigeration is equal to:

A1 kW
B100 kcal/h
C3.5 kW of refrigerating effect
D3 600 kJ/h
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1128Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics

Cogeneration (combined heat and power) raises overall energy utilisation because it:

AEliminates the second law of thermodynamics
BProduces work without fuel
CIncreases the condenser temperature only
DUses the rejected heat of power generation for process heating
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The Otto cycle consists of two isentropic processes and two:

AConstant-volume processes
BIsothermal processes
CConstant-enthalpy processes
DConstant-pressure processes
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The air-standard efficiency of an Otto cycle with r = 8 and γ = 1.4 is approximately:

A65%
B40%
C56.5%
D87.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

For the same compression ratio and heat input, the most efficient cycle is:

ADual
BAll equal
COtto
DDiesel
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

For the same maximum pressure and temperature, the most efficient cycle is:

ADual
BDiesel
CBrayton
DOtto
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The efficiency of a Diesel cycle, for a fixed compression ratio, increases when:

ACut-off ratio increases
BCut-off ratio decreases
Cγ decreases
DLoad increases
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The Brayton cycle is the ideal cycle for:

ASteam power plants
BVapour absorption refrigerators
CGas turbines
DPetrol engines
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

The efficiency of an ideal Brayton cycle depends on:

AWorking fluid mass
BPressure ratio only
CHeat supplied only
DMaximum temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a Rankine cycle, the process in the condenser is:

AThrottling
BConstant-pressure heat rejection
CConstant-volume heat addition
DIsentropic expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

Reheating in a Rankine cycle is mainly used to:

AReduce pump work
BIncrease condenser pressure
CReduce moisture content at turbine exhaust
DReduce boiler pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the expansion process is:

AIsenthalpic (throttling)
BIsochoric
CIsothermal
DIsentropic
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

One ton of refrigeration is equal to about:

A3.5 kW
B211 kW
C1 kW
D12 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

In a lithium bromide–water absorption system, the refrigerant is:

AHydrogen
BAmmonia
CWater
DLithium bromide
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

A back-pressure steam turbine is used in industry mainly to:

AProduce refrigeration directly
BCompress air for the plant
CGenerate power while supplying exhaust steam for process heating
DCondense all the steam at vacuum
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1128Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles

A vapour-absorption refrigeration system is attractive in a plant that has:

AVery low cooling demand only
BOnly surplus electricity
CCheap waste heat or process steam available
DNo heat source at all
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a four-stroke engine, the number of power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft is:

A4
B1
C2
D0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The camshaft of a four-stroke engine rotates at:

AHalf the crankshaft speed
BFour times the crankshaft speed
CTwice the crankshaft speed
DThe crankshaft speed
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a CI engine, fuel is ignited by:

AA glow plug during normal running
BHeat of compressed air
CA spark plug
DA magneto
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The typical compression ratio of a diesel engine is:

A6–10
B4–6
C30–40
D14–22
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

Load in an SI engine is controlled by varying the quantity of mixture using the throttle. This is called:

AHit-and-miss governing
BQuality governing
CQuantity governing
DCombination governing
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The anti-knock quality of petrol is expressed by:

AFlash point
BCalorific value
COctane number
DCetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

To reduce knocking in a CI engine, one should:

AUse a fuel with high cetane number
BLower the compression ratio
CReduce intake air temperature
DUse a fuel with high octane number
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

Engine swept volume 500 cc and clearance volume 50 cc. The compression ratio is:

A10
B11
C12
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

An engine has IP = 50 kW and BP = 40 kW. Its mechanical efficiency is:

A125%
B90%
C20%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In a two-stroke petrol engine, the ports are opened and closed by:

AThe piston
BPoppet valves
CThe camshaft
DThe spark plug
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The component that converts reciprocating motion of the piston to rotary motion is the:

AConnecting rod and crank
BGudgeon pin
CFlywheel
DCamshaft
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

The function of a flywheel in an IC engine is to:

AIncrease fuel economy by 50%
BReduce fluctuation of speed during a cycle
COperate the valves
DControl the mean speed with load
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

A diesel generating set gives its best specific fuel consumption when loaded to about:

ANo load
B60–80% of its rating
C10–20% of its rating
DExactly 100% continuously
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1128Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines

In selecting the rating of a DG set for a factory, the most important additional consideration beyond the running load is:

AThe number of employees
BThe floor area of the store
CThe colour of the enclosure
DStarting (inrush) current of the largest motor
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Summer air-conditioning generally involves:

AHeating and humidification
BHeating and dehumidification
CCooling and humidification
DCooling and dehumidification
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

In a fire-tube boiler:

ANo tubes are used
BSteam passes through tubes
CHot gases pass through tubes surrounded by water
DWater passes through tubes surrounded by hot gases
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Which of the following is a water-tube boiler?

ACochran boiler
BLancashire boiler
CBabcock and Wilcox boiler
DLocomotive boiler
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

The Benson boiler is characterised by:

AA single large flue tube
BNatural circulation at low pressure
CBeing a fire-tube boiler
DOperation at supercritical pressure without a steam drum
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

An economiser in a boiler is used to:

APreheat feedwater using flue gases
BHeat combustion air
CRelease excess pressure
DSuperheat steam
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Which of the following is a boiler mounting (not an accessory)?

AFusible plug
BEconomiser
CAir preheater
DSuperheater
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

For minimum work in a two-stage air compressor with perfect intercooling, compressing from 1 bar to 16 bar, the intermediate pressure is:

A8 bar
B2 bar
C8.5 bar
D4 bar
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

The work required for compressing air is minimum when compression is:

APolytropic with n = 1.3
BAdiabatic
CIsochoric
DIsothermal
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Refrigerant R-717 is:

ACarbon dioxide
BAmmonia
CWater
DFreon-12
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

R-134a replaced R-12 mainly because R-134a has:

AZero ozone depletion potential
BLower cost than all refrigerants
CZero global warming potential
DHigher toxicity
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

For saturated air:

ADBT > WBT > DPT
BDBT < WBT < DPT
CWBT = 0
DDBT = WBT = DPT
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

During evaporative cooling (desert cooler), which remains approximately constant?

AWet-bulb temperature
BSpecific humidity
CDry-bulb temperature
DRelative humidity
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Specific humidity of moist air is given by:

A0.622 ps/P
B(P − pv)/pv
Cpv/ps
D0.622 pv/(P − pv)
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

In a compressed-air system, reducing the compressor discharge pressure by 1 bar typically saves about:

AOnly pipe cost
B50% of compressor power
CNo power at all
D6–8% of compressor power
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1128Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics

Humidity control is essential in a textile spinning mill mainly because:

AHumidity has no effect on yarn
BIt reduces electricity cost
CHigh humidity increases machine speed
DLow humidity causes static and yarn breakage
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid is a substance that:

AHas zero viscosity
BAlways flows in a laminar manner
CCannot be compressed
DDeforms continuously under the action of a shear stress, however small
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The no-slip condition states that at a solid wall the fluid:

AHas maximum velocity
BHas zero pressure
CHas zero velocity relative to the wall
DSlips with free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The Eulerian method of describing fluid flow:

AFollows each fluid particle along its path
BIs applicable only to solids
CObserves flow properties at fixed points in space
DIgnores velocity field
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

One poise is equal to:

A1 N·s/m²
B0.1 N·s/m²
C0.01 N·s/m²
D10 N·s/m²
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of a liquid:

AFirst increases then decreases
BIncreases
CDecreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Blood and paints are examples of:

APseudoplastic (shear-thinning) fluids
BIdeal fluids
CDilatant fluids
DNewtonian fluids
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid which requires a minimum yield stress before it flows, like toothpaste, is a:

ABingham plastic
BNewtonian fluid
CDilatant fluid
DThixotropic fluid only
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of diameter d is:

Aσ/d
B4σ/d
C2σ/d
D8σ/d
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Mercury in a clean glass capillary tube shows:

ACapillary rise
BCapillary depression (falls)
CNo change in level
DRise equal to water
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

Standard atmospheric pressure is equivalent to a water column of about:

A0.76 m
B10.33 m
C13.6 m
D1.033 m
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A piezometer cannot be used to measure:

APressure in a water pipe
BGauge pressure of liquid
CGas pressure and vacuum pressure
DLow positive pressure of water
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

For a vertical rectangular gate of depth d with its top at the free surface, the centre of pressure is at depth:

A2d/3
Bd/3
Cd/2
D3d/4
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A fluid such as sewage sludge or toothpaste, which needs a minimum shear stress before it begins to flow, is called a:

ADilatant fluid
BNewtonian fluid
CIdeal fluid
DBingham plastic
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics

A rising differential pressure across an industrial filter or bag house indicates that:

AThe fan has stopped
BThe fluid has become less viscous
CThe filter is getting clogged and needs cleaning
DFlow rate is increasing
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

A flow in which velocity at a point does not change with time is called:

ASteady flow
BUniform flow
CLaminar flow
DIrrotational flow
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Flow through a long straight pipe of constant diameter at a constant rate is:

ASteady non-uniform flow
BUnsteady non-uniform flow
CSteady uniform flow
DUnsteady uniform flow
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Reynolds number is the ratio of:

AInertia force to gravity force
BInertia force to viscous force
CPressure force to inertia force
DViscous force to surface tension
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Flow in a circular pipe is generally laminar when the Reynolds number is less than about:

A10000
B5 × 10⁵
C4000
D2000
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Water (ν = 1 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s) flows at 0.1 m/s in a 10 mm pipe. The flow is:

ATurbulent (Re = 10000)
BTurbulent (Re = 100000)
CTransitional (Re = 3000)
DLaminar (Re = 1000)
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Air flow may be treated as incompressible when the Mach number is less than about:

A5
B0.3
C1.0
D0.8
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The line traced by dye injected continuously at a fixed point in a flow is a:

AStreamline
BEquipotential line
CStreakline
DPathline
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In steady flow, streamlines, pathlines and streaklines:

ANever meet
BAre perpendicular
CCoincide
DForm a flow net
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The stream function ψ exists for:

AUnsteady flow only
BTwo-dimensional incompressible flow (rotational or irrotational)
CIrrotational flow only
DThree-dimensional compressible flow only
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The velocity potential function exists only when the flow is:

AIrrotational
BViscous
CRotational
DUnsteady
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Streamlines and equipotential lines intersect each other at:

A0° (parallel)
B90°
C60°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In a free vortex flow, velocity varies with radius as:

AV is constant
BV × r = constant
CV = ωr
DV × r² = constant
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Turbulent flow is generally desirable in a heat exchanger because it:

AMakes the flow laminar
BReduces the pressure drop
CEliminates fouling completely
DIncreases the heat-transfer coefficient by mixing
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1128Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Sudden closing of a valve in a long water pipeline causes:

AA steady drop in pressure
BNo pressure change
CWater hammer (pressure surge)
DCavitation in the tank only
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Bernoulli's equation is based on the conservation of:

AMomentum
BAngular momentum
CEnergy
DMass
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Which is NOT an assumption of Bernoulli's equation?

AFlow is steady
BFluid is incompressible
CThe fluid is viscous
DFlow is along a streamline
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Water flows from a 200 mm pipe into a 100 mm pipe. If velocity in the larger pipe is 1 m/s, velocity in the smaller pipe is:

A0.25 m/s
B2 m/s
C8 m/s
D4 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter is about:

A1.2
B0.62
C0.5
D0.98
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

A pitot tube is used to measure:

ADischarge in open channels directly
BViscosity
CPressure difference in pipes only
DVelocity of flow at a point
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The theoretical velocity of a jet from an orifice under a head of 5 m is about:

A3.1 m/s
B9.9 m/s
C5 m/s
D49 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

For a sharp-edged orifice, Cd = Cc × Cv is approximately:

A0.85
B1.0
C0.98
D0.62
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Discharge over a triangular notch is proportional to:

AH1/2
BH²
CH3/2
DH5/2
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The force exerted by a jet on a stationary flat plate held normal to it is:

Aρa(V − u)²
BρaV²/2
C2ρaV²
DρaV²
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

According to Buckingham's π-theorem, a problem with 7 variables and 3 fundamental dimensions has:

A4 π-terms
B3 π-terms
C10 π-terms
D7 π-terms
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Ship models and spillway models are designed using:

AReynolds model law
BFroude model law
CMach model law
DWeber model law
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

In a Froude-scaled model with length ratio 1:25, the discharge ratio (model/prototype) is:

A1:25
B1:3125
C1:625
D1:125
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

Compared with an orifice plate, a venturi meter has:

ANo need for a pressure difference
BA much lower permanent pressure loss
CA lower installation cost
DA higher permanent pressure loss
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1128Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations

The flow meter that measures mass flow rate directly and is used for costly process fluids is the:

AOrifice meter
BCoriolis meter
CPitot tube
DRotameter
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For laminar flow in a circular pipe, the maximum velocity is:

AEqual to the average velocity
B1.5 times the average velocity
C1.2 times the average velocity
D2 times the average velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The friction factor for laminar flow in a pipe at Re = 1600 is:

A0.4
B0.016
C0.04
D0.064
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

In laminar pipe flow, the shear stress is:

AConstant across the section
BMaximum at the centre
CZero at the centre and maximum at the wall
DZero at the wall
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

According to Hagen-Poiseuille, for a given pressure drop the discharge through a pipe varies as:

AD²
BD⁴
CD
DD⁵
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, umax/Vavg is:

A2
B1
C1.5
D1.2
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The Darcy-Weisbach equation gives head loss as:

AfLV²/(2gD)
BfL²V/(2gD)
CfLV/(2gD)
D32μVL/D²
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For pipes connected in parallel:

AHead loss in each pipe is the same
BDischarge in each pipe is the same
CTotal head loss is the sum of individual losses
DVelocity in each pipe is the same
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

The head loss due to sudden expansion from velocity V1 to V2 is:

A0.5 V2²/2g
BV1²/2g
C(V1² − V2²)/2g
D(V1 − V2)²/2g
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the friction head loss equals:

AThe total head
BOne-third of the total head
CTwo-thirds of the total head
DHalf of the total head
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the wall where velocity reaches:

AThe free-stream velocity exactly
BZero
C50% of free-stream velocity
D99% of free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

For a laminar boundary layer on a flat plate, thickness varies with distance x as:

Ax1/2
Bx4/5
Cx
Dx²
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Flow separation occurs when:

APressure gradient is adverse (dp/dx > 0) and wall shear becomes zero
BReynolds number is very low only
CPressure gradient is favourable (dp/dx < 0)
DFlow is irrotational
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Controlling the flow of a centrifugal pump by throttling a discharge valve is inefficient because it:

AEliminates friction losses
BIncreases the pump efficiency
CReduces the pump speed
DWastes energy as pressure drop across the valve
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1128Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer

Frictional head loss in a pipe carrying a given fluid varies approximately with:

AThe velocity
BThe square root of velocity
CThe pipe length only
DThe square of the mean velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A Pelton wheel is a:

ARadial-flow reaction turbine
BAxial-flow reaction turbine
CTangential-flow impulse turbine
DMixed-flow impulse turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A Kaplan turbine is best suited for:

AMedium head and medium discharge
BVery high head only
CLow head and large discharge
DHigh head and small discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Which turbine is most suitable for a head of 500 m?

AFrancis turbine only
BPelton wheel
CPropeller turbine
DKaplan turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The specific speed of a turbine is given by:

AN√P / H5/4
BN P / H5/4
CN√Q / H3/4
DN√P / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

In a Pelton wheel, the flow of water is regulated by:

ADraft tube
BAdjustable runner blades
CSpear (needle) in the nozzle
DGuide vanes
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The function of the casing of a Pelton wheel is to:

APrevent splashing and guide water to the tailrace (no hydraulic function)
BConvert pressure energy into kinetic energy
CRegulate the flow
DCreate suction head
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

In a Francis turbine, the guide vanes (wicket gates) serve to:

ARecover kinetic energy at exit
BRegulate flow and direct water onto runner at correct angle
CSupport the generator
DConvert all head into velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Double regulation (adjustable guide vanes and runner blades) is a feature of the:

AKaplan turbine
BPropeller turbine
CFrancis turbine
DPelton wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The main function of a turbine governor is to:

AReduce the specific speed
BIncrease the head
CPrevent cavitation
DKeep the speed of the turbine constant under varying load
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Cavitation in a reaction turbine is most likely at the:

ARunner blade outlet / draft tube inlet
BTailrace outlet
CSpiral casing inlet
DPenstock entrance
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

A draft tube is used in:

AReaction turbines only
BReciprocating pumps
CBoth Pelton and Francis turbines
DImpulse turbines only
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The cone angle of a conical draft tube should not exceed about:

A20°
B30°
C45°
D8°
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

The turbine most widely used in Nepali micro-hydro schemes because it is simple and can be made locally is the:

AKaplan turbine
BBulb turbine
CCross-flow (Banki-Mitchell) turbine
DGas turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1128Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines

Cavitation in a hydraulic machine occurs when the local pressure falls:

ABelow the discharge pressure only
BBelow atmospheric but above vapour pressure
CAbove atmospheric pressure
DBelow the vapour pressure of the liquid
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

A centrifugal pump works on the principle of:

AImpulse only
BFree vortex
CForced vortex
DPositive displacement
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

The most commonly used impeller blade shape in centrifugal pumps is:

AForward-curved
BStraight axial
CRadial
DBackward-curved
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

Priming of a centrifugal pump is necessary because:

AIt reduces the speed of the pump
BIt lubricates the bearings
CIt increases the vapour pressure
DThe head developed depends on the density of the fluid in the impeller
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

Which pump does NOT require priming?

ACentrifugal pump
BAxial-flow pump
CReciprocating pump
DMixed-flow pump
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

A centrifugal pump should be started with the delivery valve:

AHalf open
BRemoved
CClosed
DFully open
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

To avoid cavitation in a pump:

ALiquid temperature must be raised
BNPSH required must exceed NPSH available
CSuction lift must be maximised
DNPSH available must exceed NPSH required
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

Which action INCREASES the available NPSH?

AIncreasing suction lift
BHeating the liquid
CUsing a smaller suction pipe
DLowering the pump relative to the sump
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the head developed becomes:

AHalf
B2 times
C8 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

If pump speed is doubled, the power required becomes:

A16 times
B8 times
C2 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

Two identical pumps connected in parallel will:

ADouble the head at the same discharge
BReduce the discharge
CHave no effect
DIncrease the discharge at the same head
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

The specific speed of a pump is given by:

AN√Q / H3/4
BN√Q / H5/4
CN√P / H5/4
DN Q / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

Negative slip in a reciprocating pump means:

AActual discharge exceeds theoretical discharge
BValves are leaking badly
CActual discharge is less than theoretical
DThe pump is not primed
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

According to the affinity laws, if the speed of a centrifugal pump is reduced to half, the power required becomes about:

AOne-half
BOne-quarter
COne-eighth
DDouble
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1128Ch 3 · Pumps

A pump running far away from its best efficiency point typically suffers:

AVibration, recirculation and early seal or bearing failure
BNo effect at all
CHigher efficiency
DLower power consumption always
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The principle of transmissibility of forces is applicable to:

ADeformable bodies only
BRigid bodies only
CBoth rigid and deformable bodies
DFluids only
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

Lami's theorem applies to:

AThree concurrent coplanar forces in equilibrium
BNon-concurrent forces
CAny number of parallel forces
DTwo forces in equilibrium
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The moment of a couple about any point in its plane is:

AMaximum at the centre of the couple
BZero
CConstant and equal to force × arm
DDependent on the point chosen
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

A hinged (pin) support in a 2-D structure provides:

AOnly a moment
BOne reaction component
CThree reaction components
DTwo reaction components
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles. Their resultant is:

A1 N
B7 N
C5 N
D12 N
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The angle of repose is equal to:

AZero for rough surfaces
B90° minus the angle of friction
CThe angle of friction
DTwice the angle of friction
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The force of friction between two dry surfaces is:

ADirectly proportional to the area of contact
BGreater for kinetic than static friction
CIndependent of the apparent area of contact
DIndependent of the normal reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

D'Alembert's principle converts a dynamic problem into:

AA problem of static equilibrium by adding inertia force
BA problem of kinematics only
CA problem without mass
DAn energy problem
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is obtained when it is projected at:

A90°
B30°
C45°
D60°
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The work-energy theorem states that the net work done on a body equals the change in its:

AImpulse
BMomentum
CPotential energy
DKinetic energy
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

A ball dropped from 4 m rebounds to 1 m. The coefficient of restitution is:

A0.75
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

In a perfectly plastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is:

AInfinity
B1
C0.5
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

The tension ratio of a flat belt about to slip on a pulley is given by:

AT1/T2 = μθ
BT1/T2 = eμθ
CT1 − T2 = μW
DT1T2 = eμ
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1128Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics

As the included angle between two sling legs lifting a load increases, the tension in each sling:

ARemains the same
BIncreases
CDecreases
DBecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Hooke's law is valid up to the:

AProportional limit
BBreaking point
CUltimate stress
DYield point
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A steel bar 2 m long, area 100 mm², carries 20 kN. With E = 200 GPa, the elongation is:

A2 mm
B20 mm
C0.2 mm
D1 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The elongation of a bar hanging under its own weight W is:

AWL/(AE)
B2WL/(AE)
CWL/(2AE)
DWL/(4AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A bar is fully restrained and heated by ΔT. The thermal stress is:

AαLΔT
BEαΔT, independent of length
CEαΔT/L
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The theoretical maximum value of Poisson's ratio for an isotropic material is:

A0.33
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The relation between E, G and μ is:

AE = 3G(1 − 2μ)
BE = 2G(1 + μ)
CE = G(1 + 2μ)
DE = 2G(1 − μ)
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

If E = 200 GPa and μ = 0.25, the modulus of rigidity G is:

A80 GPa
B100 GPa
C50 GPa
D160 GPa
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Volumetric strain of a rectangular bar subjected to axial load P is:

Aε(1 − 2μ)
Bε(1 + 2μ)
Cε(1 − μ)
D3ε
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

For a material with Poisson's ratio 0.5, the bulk modulus is:

AEqual to E
BInfinite
CZero
DEqual to G
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The strain energy stored in a bar under axial load P is:

AP²L/(2AE)
BPL/(2AE)
CPL²/(2AE)
DP²L/(AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The maximum stress due to a suddenly applied load compared to the same load applied gradually is:

AFour times
BTwice
CHalf
DEqual
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

Modulus of resilience is:

ATotal strain energy up to fracture
BRatio of stress to strain
CStrain energy per unit volume up to the elastic limit
DArea under the entire stress-strain curve
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

A load applied suddenly (but without impact velocity) produces a stress approximately:

AEqual to the gradually applied stress
BHalf the gradually applied stress
CTwice the stress of the same load applied gradually
DTen times the stress
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity

The factor of safety used for lifting equipment such as chains and slings is usually:

AAlways exactly 1
BZero
CLower than for static members
DMuch higher than for static structural members
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The centroid of a triangle of height h lies at a distance from its base of:

Ah/4
Bh/3
C2h/3
Dh/2
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The centroid of a semicircular area of radius r from its diameter is:

A3r/8
B4r/(3π)
C2r/π
Dr/2
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The moment of inertia of a rectangle b × d about its base is:

Abd³/3
Bdb³/12
Cbd³/12
Dbd³/36
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is:

Aπd³/16
Bπd⁴/64
Cπd³/32
Dπd⁴/32
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

Bending moment in a beam is maximum where the shear force:

AIs equal to the load
BIs constant
CIs maximum
DIs zero or changes sign
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A simply supported beam of span L carries a UDL w. The maximum bending moment is:

AwL²/12
BwL²/2
CwL²/4
DwL²/8
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A cantilever of length L carries a point load W at the free end. The maximum deflection is:

AWL³/48EI
B5WL³/384EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/8EI
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam with a central point load W is:

A5WL³/384EI
BWL³/192EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/48EI
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

For a rectangular beam section, the maximum shear stress is:

AEqual to the average shear stress
B4/3 times the average shear stress
C2 times the average shear stress
D1.5 times the average shear stress
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A plane truss with j joints is perfect if the number of members m is:

Aj − 3
B2j − 3
C3j − 2
D2j + 3
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of diameter d transmitting torque T is:

A16T/(πd⁴)
BT/(πd³)
C16T/(πd³)
D32T/(πd³)
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A shaft subjected to bending moment M and torque T has an equivalent torque of:

A½[M + √(M² + T²)]
B√(M² + T²)
C√(M² − T²)
DM + T
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

A shaft transmitting 15 kW at 300 rpm carries a torque of about:

A48 N·m
B4 780 N·m
C478 N·m
D150 N·m
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1128Ch 4 · Strength of Materials

The load capacity of a pallet-rack beam is often limited not by stress but by:

AAllowable deflection
BNumber of pallets stored in the plant
CRack height only
DColour of the paint
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Which of the following is a higher pair?

ACam and follower
BPiston and cylinder
CShaft in a bearing
DNut and screw
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

A kinematic chain becomes a mechanism when:

AAll links are fixed
BOne of its links is fixed
CIt transmits no motion
DIt has no links fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

According to Kutzbach's criterion, a planar linkage with 4 links and 4 binary lower pairs has DOF:

A1
B0
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

A planar linkage has 5 links and 6 binary joints. Its degree of freedom is:

A−1
B0 (structure)
C2
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Grashof's law for a four-bar chain having at least one fully rotating link is:

As + p ≤ l + q
Bs × l ≤ p × q
Cs + l ≥ p + q
Ds + l ≤ p + q
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Whitworth quick-return mechanism is an inversion of the single slider-crank chain obtained by fixing the:

AConnecting rod
BCylinder (frame)
CCrank
DSlider
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

An elliptical trammel is an inversion of the:

ASingle slider-crank chain
BGear train
CDouble slider-crank chain
DFour-bar chain
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The number of instantaneous centres in a six-link mechanism is:

A6
B30
C12
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Kennedy's theorem states that the three instantaneous centres of three bodies in relative motion:

ACoincide
BLie on a straight line
CForm an equilateral triangle
DLie on a circle
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Coriolis component of acceleration is present in:

ASimple pendulum
BSlider-crank with fixed cylinder only
CCrank and slotted lever quick-return mechanism
DFour-bar mechanism with pin joints only
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

Oldham's coupling is used to connect two shafts that are:

ACoaxial and rigidly joined
BParallel with a small lateral offset
CPerpendicular and non-intersecting
DIntersecting at an angle
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The Ackermann steering gear is preferred over the Davis steering gear because it:

ANeeds no linkage
BUses only turning pairs, so has less friction and wear
CIs exact at all positions
DUses sliding pairs
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The mechanism that gives a very large mechanical advantage near the end of its stroke, used in presses and clamping devices, is the:

AOldham coupling
BToggle mechanism
CPantograph
DScotch yoke
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1128Ch 4 · Theory of Machines

The quick-return motion of a shaper is obtained from a:

ACam and follower
BWorm and worm wheel
CSimple four-bar chain with equal links
DCrank and slotted-lever mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The gyroscopic couple on a body spinning with angular velocity ω and precessing with ωp is:

AIωωp
BIω/ωp
CIωp²
DIω²
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A ship's rolling motion produces:

APitching effect
BNo gyroscopic effect
CMaximum gyroscopic couple
DSteering effect
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The function of a governor is to:

ABalance reciprocating masses
BReduce speed fluctuations within a cycle
CControl the mean speed of the engine according to load
DStore energy
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A governor is said to be isochronous when:

AIts equilibrium speed is the same for all radii of rotation
BIts radius increases with speed
CIt has maximum friction
DIt is spring loaded
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The height of a Watt governor running at 60 rpm is approximately:

A0.5 m
B0.1 m
C0.25 m
D1 m
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is:

AIω²Cs
BIω Cs
C½Iω²
DIω²/Cs
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

For complete dynamic balancing of several rotating masses in different planes:

AΣm = 0
BΣmr = 0 and Σmrl = 0
COnly Σmrl = 0
DOnly Σmr = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The frequency of the secondary unbalanced force of a reciprocating engine is:

AEqual to the crank speed
BFour times the crank speed
CTwice the crank speed
DHalf the crank speed
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

For high-speed cams, the preferred follower motion is:

ACycloidal motion
BSimple harmonic motion
CUniform acceleration and retardation
DUniform velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

In a cross-belt drive, the driven pulley rotates:

AIn the direction opposite to the driver
BIn the same direction as the driver
COnly when slip is zero
DAt the same speed always
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

Power transmitted by a belt is maximum when centrifugal tension equals:

AHalf of the maximum tension
BThe maximum tension
CTwo-thirds of the maximum tension
DOne-third of the maximum tension
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A gear train in which the first and last gears are on the same axis is a:

AEpicyclic gear train
BWorm gear train
CReverted gear train
DSimple gear train
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

The standard pressure angle of modern involute gears is:

A20°
B25°
C14.5°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A flywheel is fitted to a punching press mainly to:

ASupply the large energy needed during punching so that a smaller motor can be used
BReduce the press capacity
CReplace the clutch
DIncrease the punch force indefinitely
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanisms

A worm gear reducer used for continuous duty is often avoided in energy-saving projects because:

AIt cannot give a high speed ratio
BIts efficiency is lower than that of a helical reducer
CIt is always noisier than gears
DIt cannot transmit torque
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

On principal planes, the shear stress is:

AHalf the normal stress
BZero
CEqual to normal stress
DMaximum
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The maximum shear stress planes are inclined to the principal planes at:

A45°
B90°
C0°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

For σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa and τxy = 40 MPa, the maximum principal stress is:

A100 MPa
B80 MPa
C120 MPa
D50 MPa
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a state of pure shear τ, the principal stresses are:

A+τ and 0
Bτ/2 and −τ/2
C+τ and −τ
D2τ and 0
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The theory of failure most suitable for brittle materials is:

ATotal strain energy theory
BMaximum principal stress theory (Rankine)
CMaximum shear stress theory
DDistortion energy theory
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

According to the von Mises (distortion energy) theory, the shear yield strength is:

A0.5 σy
Bσy
C0.707 σy
D0.577 σy
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

Which of the following is statically indeterminate?

ACantilever
BSimply supported beam
COverhanging beam
DPropped cantilever
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

The effective length of a column with both ends fixed (actual length L) is:

AL
B2L
CL/2
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thin cylindrical shell under internal pressure, hoop stress is:

AEqual to the longitudinal stress
BTwice the longitudinal stress
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DFour times the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

A cylinder is treated as thin when its wall thickness is less than about:

AEqual to its diameter
B1/20 of its diameter
C1/2 of its diameter
D1/5 of its diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thick cylinder under internal pressure, the maximum hoop stress occurs at the:

AMid-length only
BInner surface
COuter surface
DMean radius
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

For a rectangular shaft under torsion, the maximum shear stress occurs at the:

AMiddle of the longer side
BCentre of the section
CMiddle of the shorter side
DCorners
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

In a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, the hoop stress is:

ATwice the longitudinal stress
BZero
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DEqual to the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1128Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids

Replacing an open channel section of a machine frame by a closed box section mainly improves its:

ATorsional stiffness
BBending flexibility
CWeight only
DSurface finish
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

Slip gauges are combined to build a required size by the process of:

ABrazing
BWelding
CClamping with screws
DWringing
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

The standard reference temperature for dimensional measurement is:

A25 °C
B20 °C
C37 °C
D0 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

The height of the slip-gauge pile for setting a 100 mm sine bar at 30° is:

A50 mm
B100 mm
C86.6 mm
D57.7 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

A sine bar is considered unsuitable for measuring angles greater than about:

A45°
B5°
C10°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

According to Taylor's principle, the GO gauge should check:

AAll the dimensions and form together at the maximum material condition
BOnly the surface finish
COnly one dimension at a time
DThe minimum material condition
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

An instrument that gives consistent readings which are all away from the true value is:

APrecise but not accurate
BAccurate but not precise
CNeither precise nor accurate
DBoth accurate and precise
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

The error caused when the line of measurement does not coincide with the axis of the measuring scale is a violation of:

ATaylor's principle
BHooke's law
CAbbe's principle
DPascal's law
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

A pneumatic (Solex) comparator is preferred where:

AVery high magnification without contact wear is required
BOnly angles are measured
CNo air supply is available
DRough measurement is enough
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

Long end bars are supported at the Airy points in order to:

AIncrease the temperature
BMinimise the error due to bending (sag)
CReduce the cost
DIncrease the length
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

Very small angular deviations of machine-tool guideways are measured with an:

AVernier caliper
BDial gauge on a sine bar
CMicrometer
DAutocollimator
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

Traceability of a measurement means that it can be related through an unbroken chain of calibrations to:

AThe operator's experience
BThe supplier's catalogue
CThe oldest instrument in the workshop
DNational and international standards
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

The spindle run-out of a lathe is checked during:

AThe practical machining test only
BThe geometrical (alignment) acceptance test
CPainting inspection
DElectrical safety testing
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1128Ch 5 · Metrology and Measurement

The taper of a conical workpiece of end diameters D and d over a length L is given by:

A(D − d)L
B(D − d)/L
C(D + d)/L
DL/(D − d)
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

Shrinkage allowance on a pattern is provided because the casting:

AExpands on cooling
BSticks to the mould
CMust be machined later only
DContracts as it cools after solidification
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The property of moulding sand that allows gases to escape is:

ARefractoriness
BPermeability
CCollapsibility
DAdhesiveness
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

A riser in a casting must:

ABe smaller than the casting section
BSolidify before the casting
CBe placed at the coldest point
DSolidify after the casting section it feeds
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

Zinc alloy components are usually die cast by the:

AInvestment process
BCentrifugal process
CHot-chamber process
DCold-chamber process
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

Cold shut and misrun defects in castings are caused mainly by:

AToo large a riser
BExcess moisture in the sand
CLow pouring temperature or poor fluidity
DToo much draft on the pattern
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

In a press-working operation the piece punched out is the required product. The operation is:

ANotching
BBlanking
CPiercing
DLancing
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The usual die clearance in blanking and piercing is about:

A5–10% of sheet thickness per side
BZero
CEqual to the sheet thickness
D50% of sheet thickness
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

Spring-back in sheet-metal bending is compensated by:

AHeating the die to red heat
BOver-bending or bottoming/coining the bend
CReducing the blank holder force
DUsing a larger clearance
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The blank holder in deep drawing is used to prevent:

AExcess lubrication
BTearing of the punch
CWrinkling of the flange
DSpring-back of the die
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The coating on a manual arc-welding electrode does NOT:

AProvide a shielding gas
BForm a protective slag
CStabilise the arc and add alloying elements
DIncrease the welding current automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The heat generated in resistance spot welding is given by:

AH = I²Rt
BH = I R t²
CH = V²/R only
DH = VIt²
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

The zone of a welded joint that is not melted but whose structure is changed by the welding heat is the:

AFusion zone
BHeat-affected zone
CBase metal
DSlag layer
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1128Ch 5 · Fabrication Processes

Internal defects in a thick welded joint are best detected by:

ADye penetrant testing
BRadiographic or ultrasonic testing
CMeasuring the weld length
DVisual inspection
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

Hot working of a metal is carried out:

ABelow room temperature
BAbove its recrystallisation temperature
CAbove its melting point
DBelow its recrystallisation temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of cold working?

AIncreased strength and hardness
BBetter surface finish
CCloser dimensional tolerance
DLower forming forces are required
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

Lead and tin worked at room temperature are said to be:

ANot worked at all
BHot worked
CCold worked
DWarm worked
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

In closed-die (impression) forging, the flash:

AReduces the forging force
BBuilds up pressure that forces metal to fill the die cavity
CIs left on the finished part
DIs the final product
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

The maximum possible draft in rolling is given by:

AμR²
B2μR
CR/μ
Dμ²R
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

A four-high rolling mill uses small-diameter work rolls with large back-up rolls in order to:

AMake heavy ingot breakdown easier
BIncrease the roll separating force
CAvoid the need for lubrication
DRoll thin sheets with less roll deflection and force
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

In wire drawing, the wire is:

APushed through a die
BRolled between two rolls
CCast in a mould
DPulled through a converging die
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

Compared with direct extrusion, indirect (backward) extrusion requires:

ANo die at all
BA lower force because there is no billet–container friction
CA much higher force
DThe same force always
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

In the flow-stress relation σ = Kεn, the exponent n represents the:

AStrain-rate sensitivity
BCoefficient of friction
CPoisson's ratio
DStrain-hardening exponent
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

According to the Tresca criterion, the shear yield strength of a ductile metal is:

A0.577 σy
Bσy
C1.155 σy
D0.5 σy
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

The von Mises (distortion-energy) criterion gives a shear yield strength of:

A0.5 σy
B2 σy
C1.5 σy
D0.577 σy
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

In plane-strain deformation, the flow stress according to von Mises becomes:

AEqual to the uniaxial flow stress
B1.155 times the uniaxial flow stress
C0.577 times the uniaxial flow stress
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1128Ch 5 · Metal Working Processes

During plastic deformation of a metal, the volume:

ADecreases greatly
BBecomes zero
CRemains essentially constant
DIncreases greatly
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

In electric discharge machining, the material is removed by:

AChemical dissolution
BPlastic deformation by a tool
CMelting and vaporisation caused by repeated electric sparks
DAbrasive impact of a slurry
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

A basic requirement of the workpiece in EDM is that it must be:

ASoft and ductile
BElectrically conductive
CTransparent
DNon-conductive
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

Ultrasonic machining is most suitable for:

AHard and brittle non-conductive materials such as glass and ceramics
BElectrically conductive materials only
CVery large castings
DSoft ductile metals only
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

In electro-chemical machining, the workpiece is connected as the:

AInsulator
BDielectric
CAnode
DCathode
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

A major advantage of ECM is that:

ACutting forces are very high
BThe tool wears rapidly
COnly non-conductive materials can be machined
DThere is no tool wear and no heat-affected zone
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

The material removal rate in ECM depends mainly on:

AThe tool hardness
BThe current passed (Faraday's laws)
CThe hardness of the work material
DThe spark frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

Wire EDM uses a wire electrode usually made of:

ADiamond
BTungsten carbide
CCopper-clad steel only
DBrass
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

Laser beam machining removes material by:

AAbrasive slurry impact
BMelting and vaporisation by a focused coherent beam
CSpark erosion in a dielectric
DElectro-chemical dissolution
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

In CNC programming, the code for rapid traverse is:

AM30
BG02
CG01
DG00
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

The M-code used for tool change in a CNC machine is:

AM03
BM08
CM06
DG41
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

DNC (direct/distributed numerical control) means:

AEach machine has its own computer only
BManual control of a machine
CSeveral CNC machines linked to and controlled from a central computer
DA machine without feedback
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

The robot configuration best suited for fast horizontal assembly operations is:

ADelta only for heavy loads
BPolar (spherical)
CSCARA
DCartesian gantry
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1128Ch 5 · Non-conventional Machining and Manufacturing

The ability of a robot to return repeatedly to the same taught point is its:

AResolution
BAccuracy
CRepeatability
DPayload
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

In orthogonal cutting, the chip thickness ratio is always:

AEqual to 1
BGreater than 1
CEqual to zero
DLess than 1
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

A built-up edge is most likely to form when machining:

AGlass with a diamond tool
BAny material at very high speed
CCast iron at high speed
DA ductile material at low cutting speed
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

Discontinuous chips are normally produced when machining:

ACopper at high speed
BBrittle materials such as cast iron
CAluminium with cutting fluid
DMild steel at high speed with a large rake
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

In Merchant's analysis, the relation between shear angle φ, friction angle β and rake angle α is:

Aφ = β + α
B2φ + β − α = 90°
C2φ − β + α = 180°
Dφ + β + α = 90°
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

An increase in the shear angle during cutting results in:

ANo change in force
BHigher friction on the rake face
CA thicker chip and higher force
DA thinner chip and lower cutting force
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

The coefficient of friction between chip and tool in Merchant's circle is:

Acos β
BF/Fc
Csin β
Dtan β = F/N
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

A negative rake angle is generally used with:

AMachining of plastics
BVery low cutting speeds only
CCarbide tools and interrupted cuts
DHSS tools on soft aluminium
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

The theoretical surface roughness in turning improves when:

AThe nose radius is increased or the feed is reduced
BThe feed is increased
CThe rake angle is made negative
DThe nose radius is reduced
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

The usual criterion for the end of tool life in rough machining is:

AAny visible spark
BA crater depth of 5 mm
CAn average flank wear land of about 0.3 mm
DComplete breakage only
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

Crater wear on the rake face of a carbide tool is caused mainly by:

ALow cutting speed
BInsufficient clearance angle
CDiffusion at high temperature
DAbrasion by the machined surface
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

In Taylor's tool life equation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools is about:

A0.1–0.15
B0.8–1.0
C0.05
D0.2–0.4
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

If V = 100 m/min gives a tool life of 16 min with n = 0.25, then at V = 200 m/min the tool life becomes:

A32 minutes
B1 minute
C8 minutes
D4 minutes
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1128Ch 5 · Theory of Metal Cutting

Among speed, feed and depth of cut, the parameter that affects tool life most strongly is:

ACutting speed
BFeed
CDepth of cut
DAll equally
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The property that allows a cutting tool material to retain its hardness at high cutting temperatures is:

AToughness
BDuctility
CMachinability
DHot hardness (red hardness)
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The composition 18-4-1 refers to a:

ACast cobalt alloy
BHigh-speed steel with 18% W, 4% Cr and 1% V
CCeramic tool
DCemented carbide
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Cemented carbide tools can normally work up to a temperature of about:

A600 °C
B1 400 °C
C250 °C
D900–1 000 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Diamond tools are not used for machining steel because:

ADiamond is too soft for steel
BDiamond cannot be shaped
CCarbon diffuses into iron at the cutting temperature
DSteel is not conductive
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

In the ISO classification of carbide tools, grade K is intended mainly for machining:

AStainless steel
BTitanium only
CSteel
DCast iron and non-ferrous materials
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Ceramic cutting tools are generally not recommended for:

AHigh-speed machining of cast iron
BDry machining
CInterrupted cuts
DMachining hardened steel
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The main function of a cutting fluid at high cutting speeds is:

AHardening the chip
BCooling
CIncreasing friction
DLubrication
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Soluble oil (emulsion) cutting fluids are widely used because they:

AGive the best lubrication of all fluids
BAre used only for grinding
CGive good cooling with some lubrication at low cost
DContain no water
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Extreme-pressure (EP) additives are added to cutting oils to:

AIncrease the viscosity only
BMaintain a lubricating film under high pressure and temperature
CIncrease corrosion
DMake the fluid transparent
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

Most of the heat generated in metal cutting is carried away by the:

AChip
BWorkpiece
CCutting fluid alone
DTool
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The highest temperature in metal cutting occurs:

AAt the chip–tool interface on the rake face
BAt the tool shank
CIn the tailstock
DAt the machined surface far from the tool
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The proportion of total cutting heat generated in the primary shear zone is about:

A20–30%
BLess than 1%
C5–10%
D60–75%
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1128Ch 5 · Cutting Tools, Cutting Fluids and Heat in Machining

The cutting temperature is affected most strongly by:

ACoolant colour
BCutting speed
CDepth of cut
DTool overhang
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

The principle that an employee should receive orders from only one superior is:

AEsprit de corps
BScalar chain
CUnity of command
DUnity of direction
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

The Hawthorne experiments are associated with:

AHenri Fayol and administrative theory
BMax Weber and bureaucracy
CF. W. Taylor and time study
DElton Mayo and the human-relations school
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Therbligs, the basic elements of hand motions, were developed by:

ADeming
BTaylor
CGantt
DFrank and Lillian Gilbreth
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Conceptual skill is most important for:

AFirst-line supervisors
BMachine operators
CMaintenance technicians
DTop-level managers
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

The idea that managers make satisfactory rather than optimal decisions because of limited information is called:

AContingency theory
BDelphi technique
CBounded rationality (satisficing)
DGroupthink
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

In the Delphi technique of group decision making, the experts:

AAre replaced by a computer
BRespond anonymously in several rounds without meeting
CVote openly in a single meeting
DMeet and argue face to face
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Referent power of a leader arises from:

APersonal charisma and the respect of followers
BAbility to punish
CThe position held in the hierarchy
DTechnical expertise only
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

The informal communication network in an organisation is called the:

AFormal channel
BGrapevine
CDownward communication
DScalar chain
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Segmentation, targeting and positioning are steps in:

ASelecting and serving target markets
BQuality auditing
CInventory control
DProduction scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

In the BCG matrix, a product with high market share in a low-growth market is a:

AStar
BCash cow
CDog
DQuestion mark
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Entering existing markets with new products is which Ansoff strategy?

AMarket development
BProduct development
CDiversification
DMarket penetration
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivator?

ACompany policy
BWorking conditions
CSalary
DRecognition for achievement
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1128Ch 6 · Management Theories

Adding planning and controlling responsibilities to a worker's job is called:

AJob enlargement
BJob enrichment
CJob rotation
DJob evaluation
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

The entrepreneur as an innovator who carries out 'new combinations' was described by:

ADavid McClelland
BFrank Knight
CMax Weber
DJoseph Schumpeter
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

According to Frank Knight, entrepreneurial profit is the reward for:

ABearing uninsurable uncertainty
BManaging employees
COwning land
DSupplying capital
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

The need for achievement (n-Ach) as the driving force of entrepreneurs was proposed by:

AKirzner
BSchumpeter
CFayol
DDavid McClelland
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

A person who behaves like an entrepreneur inside an existing organisation is called an:

AIntrapreneur
BAuditor
CInvestor
DAdministrator
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

Which study examines demand, competition, price and distribution for a proposed venture?

AEnvironmental assessment
BTechnical feasibility study
CMarket feasibility study
DFinancial feasibility study
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

In Nepal, industries are classified as micro, cottage, small, medium and large under the:

ACompanies Act, 2063
BIndustrial Enterprises Act, 2076
CEnvironment Protection Act, 2076
DLabour Act, 2074
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

Which of the following is the most commonly reported constraint of SMEs in Nepal?

AExcess of skilled manpower
BVery large domestic market
CLimited access to finance
DAbundant industrial infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

FWEAN in Nepal is an organisation of:

AChartered accountants
BTrade unions
CForeign investors
DWomen entrepreneurs
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

Environmental assessment of projects in Nepal is currently governed by the:

APublic Procurement Act, 2063
BConsumer Protection Act, 2075
CIndustrial Policy, 2067 only
DEnvironment Protection Act, 2076 and Rules, 2077
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

A public hearing in the affected area is a mandatory step in:

ACompany registration
BPAN registration
CIEE only
DEIA
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

The step of an EIA in which the boundaries and the main issues of the study are determined is:

AMonitoring
BCommissioning
CAuditing
DScoping
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

A project requiring an approved EIA may be implemented:

ADuring the public hearing
BBefore submitting the report
CWithout any approval if it is in an industrial area
DOnly after the EIA report is approved
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1128Ch 6 · Entrepreneurship Development

Checking whether a project's actual environmental performance matches its approved management plan, after operation begins, is called:

AScoping
BFeasibility study
CScreening
DEnvironmental auditing
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Registration and facilities of industries in Nepal are governed mainly by the:

ACopyright Act, 2059
BCustoms Act, 2064
CIndustrial Enterprises Act, 2076
DLabour Act, 2074
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

A private or public limited company in Nepal is incorporated at the:

AInland Revenue Office
BLabour Office
COffice of the Company Registrar
DDepartment of Industry
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Investment in land, buildings and machinery of an industry is called:

ARevenue expenditure
BCurrent liability
CWorking capital
DFixed capital
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Under the Labour Act, 2074, normal working hours are:

A6 hours a day and 36 hours a week
B8 hours a day and 48 hours a week
C10 hours a day and 60 hours a week
D12 hours a day
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Overtime work under the Labour Act, 2074 must be paid at:

ATwice the normal rate always
BNo extra payment
COne and a half times the basic remuneration
DThe same rate as normal hours
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

The maximum probation period for a worker under the Labour Act, 2074 is:

A3 years
B6 months
C1 month
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

The forum for final settlement of labour disputes in Nepal is the:

AOffice of Company Registrar
BDepartment of Industry
CDistrict Administration Office
DLabour Court
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

The ILO was established in:

A1945
B1919
C2004
D1966
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

The structure of the ILO is unique because it is:

AControlled only by trade unions
BTripartite — governments, employers and workers
CControlled only by governments
DA private company
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Nepal became a member of the World Trade Organization in:

A1995
B2015
C2004
D2010
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Patents, industrial designs and trade marks in Nepal are registered at the:

ANepal Bureau of Standards and Metrology
BNepal Rastra Bank
CDepartment of Roads
DDepartment of Industry
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Under Nepal's Patent, Design and Trade Mark Act, a patent is initially granted for:

A7 years, renewable twice for 7 years each
BPerpetually
C20 years from filing
D50 years
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1128Ch 6 · Industrial Laws

Copyright in Nepal generally lasts for:

A7 years
BForever
C20 years from publication
DThe life of the author plus 50 years
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

The three flows in a supply chain are:

AInput, process and output
BMen, machines and money
CPush, pull and batch
DProduct, information and funds
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

Deciding the location and capacity of plants and warehouses belongs to which supply-chain decision phase?

AOrder fulfilment
BSupply-chain operation
CSupply-chain planning
DSupply-chain strategy (design)
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

A process executed in response to an actual customer order is a:

ASpeculative process
BPush process
CBatch process
DPull process
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

For a product with high implied demand uncertainty, the supply chain should be designed to be:

AFree of information systems
BSlow but cheap
CHighly efficient with low cost only
DResponsive
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

Which of the following is a cross-functional driver of supply-chain performance?

ATransportation
BInformation
CFacilities
DInventory
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

Transfer of goods from inbound to outbound vehicles at a facility without storing them is called:

ADrop shipping
BCross-docking
CMilk run
DIn-transit merge
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

A delivery route on which one vehicle serves several customers or picks up from several suppliers is called a:

ADirect shipment
BMilk run
CCross-dock
DTailored network
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

The centre-of-gravity method is used to:

AFind the location of a facility that minimises weighted distance
BBalance an assembly line
CSet control chart limits
DCompute safety stock
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

Air transport is most appropriate for goods that are:

AHigh in value, low in weight and urgently needed
BLiquids moved continuously
CStored for a long time
DBulky, heavy and cheap
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

The amplification of demand variability as orders move upstream in a supply chain is called the:

AHawthorne effect
BBullwhip effect
CHalo effect
DPareto effect
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

Which practice best reduces the bullwhip effect?

ALarger order batches
BAllocating supply in proportion to orders placed during shortage
CSharing point-of-sale demand information across the chain
DFrequent price promotions
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

In vendor-managed inventory (VMI), replenishment decisions are made by the:

ATransport company
BSupplier, using the customer's demand and stock data
CCustomer alone
DGovernment
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1128Ch 6 · Supply Chain Management

In the supply-chain IT framework, order management and the call centre belong to:

AMRP
BCRM
CSRM
DISCM
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

The economic order quantity for D = 3 600 units/year, S = Rs 50 per order and H = Rs 4 per unit per year is:

A900 units
B600 units
C300 units
D150 units
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

At the economic order quantity, the annual ordering cost is:

AEqual to the annual carrying cost
BTwice the carrying cost
CZero
DEqual to the purchase cost
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

If the annual demand doubles, the EOQ becomes:

ATwice the original
BHalf the original
C√2 times the original
DUnchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

The demand for components and sub-assemblies of a product is:

ANever planned
BDependent demand, calculated from the parent item
CIndependent demand, forecast from market data
DAlways constant
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

The three basic inputs to an MRP system are:

ASales forecast, cash flow and balance sheet
BMaster production schedule, bill of materials and inventory records
CRoute sheet, process chart and layout
DControl charts, histograms and Pareto charts
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

In MRP, net requirement is obtained by subtracting from gross requirement the:

AProjected on-hand stock and scheduled receipts
BLead time
CSafety stock only
DLot size
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

Safety stock is calculated as z times the:

AOrder quantity
BLead time
CStandard deviation of demand during lead time
DAverage demand
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

If demand variability and lead time both increase, the safety stock required:

AIncreases
BBecomes zero
CRemains unchanged
DDecreases
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

In a fixed-order-quantity (Q) system, an order is placed:

AAt fixed time intervals
BWhenever the stock falls to the reorder level
CWhen the store is full
DOnly once a year
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

In a JIT system, inventory is regarded as:

AAn asset to be increased
BIrrelevant
CWaste that hides problems
DA necessary buffer to be maximised
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

Kanban in a JIT system is used to:

AForecast annual demand
BRecord depreciation
CAuthorise production or movement of a container of parts (pull signal)
DCompute EOQ
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

Under the FIFO method of inventory valuation, materials issued are priced at:

AThe standard cost only
BThe average of all purchases
CThe cost of the latest purchases
DThe cost of the earliest purchases
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1128Ch 6 · Inventory Management and Control

Counting a few items every day throughout the year according to a schedule is called:

AAnnual physical verification
BValue analysis
CCycle counting (continuous verification)
DAcceptance sampling
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

Designing a product and its manufacturing process simultaneously with a cross-functional team is called:

AConcurrent engineering
BReverse engineering
CSequential engineering
DValue engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

QFD (quality function deployment) is used to:

ATranslate customer requirements into design characteristics
BSchedule production orders
CAudit financial statements
DCompute EOQ
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

A characteristic that a company must have merely to be considered by customers is an:

AOrder penetration point
BOrder winner
COrder qualifier
DOrder loser
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

A production system with high variety, low volume and a functional layout is a:

AJob shop
BProject
CMass production line
DContinuous process
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

In lean manufacturing, the most serious form of waste is considered to be:

AOverproduction
BMotion
CWaiting
DTransport
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

Takt time in a lean system is:

ATotal processing time
BAvailable production time divided by customer demand
CCycle time of the slowest machine
DTime to change a die
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

Overall equipment effectiveness (OEE) is the product of:

AAvailability, performance and quality rates
BSpeed, feed and depth
CCp, Cpk and sigma level
DCost, quality and delivery
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

A six sigma process corresponds to a defect level of about:

A3.4 defects per thousand
B34 defects per million
C6 defects per million
D3.4 defects per million opportunities
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

The improvement methodology used in Six Sigma for existing processes is:

APDCA only
BDMADV
CDMAIC
DSIPOC
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

The Pareto principle applied to quality problems states that:

ADefects cannot be classified
BAll causes contribute equally
CA few causes account for most of the defects
DInspection removes all defects
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

Variation due to chance causes inherent in a process is called:

ASpecial-cause variation
BCommon-cause variation
CAssignable variation
DSporadic variation
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

For a process with USL − LSL = 0.6 mm and σ = 0.1 mm, the process capability index Cp is:

A1.0
B6.0
C0.5
D2.0
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1128Ch 6 · Production Management

An ISO 9001 certificate is normally valid for:

ATen years
BThree years, with annual surveillance audits
CPermanently
DOne year only, with no audits
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

If the price of a good rises by 10% and quantity demanded falls by 20%, demand is:

APerfectly inelastic
BElastic
CInelastic
DUnitary elastic
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

An increase in consumer income for a normal good causes:

ANo change at all
BA movement along the demand curve
CA rightward shift of the demand curve
DA leftward shift of the supply curve
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

A consumer is in equilibrium when the marginal utility per rupee spent on each good is:

AEqual for all goods
BZero for all goods
CMaximum for one good only
DEqual to the price
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

The marginal cost curve cuts the average total cost curve at:

AThe origin
BThe minimum point of the ATC curve
CThe point of zero output
DIts maximum point
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Which cost is irrelevant to a future decision?

AMarginal cost
BVariable cost
COpportunity cost
DSunk cost
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

A firm in perfect competition is a:

APrice taker with P = MR
BMonopolist
CCartel leader
DPrice maker with MR < P
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Excess capacity in the long run is a characteristic of:

AMonopolistic competition
BMonopoly
CDuopoly with collusion
DPerfect competition
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

The kinked demand curve model explains:

AConsumer surplus
BPerfect competition equilibrium
CDiminishing marginal utility
DPrice rigidity in oligopoly
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

A situation in which no player can improve their payoff by unilaterally changing strategy is:

ANash equilibrium
BPareto optimum
CDominant strategy
DSaddle point of a zero-sum game only
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Demand for labour by a firm is called derived demand because it depends on:

AThe demand for the product that labour produces
BThe interest rate
CThe minimum wage
DThe number of workers available
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Unemployment caused by a mismatch between workers' skills and available jobs is:

AFrictional unemployment
BSeasonal unemployment
CStructural unemployment
DCyclical unemployment
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Inflation caused by a rise in imported fuel prices is an example of:

ADeflation
BCost-push inflation
CDisinflation
DDemand-pull inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1128Ch 7 · Economics for Decision Making

Raising the cash reserve ratio by the central bank is an instrument of:

AContractionary monetary policy
BContractionary fiscal policy
CExchange-rate policy only
DExpansionary fiscal policy
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Concurrent engineering means:

AOutsourcing the design work
BDesigning the product first and the process later
CManufacturing two products at once
DDesigning the product and its manufacturing and support processes in parallel
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

The traditional approach in which design is completed and then 'thrown over the wall' to manufacturing is called:

ASequential engineering
BConcurrent engineering
CReverse engineering
DValue engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

A major measurable benefit of concurrent engineering is:

ALonger development cycles
BMore departmental isolation
CReduced time to market and fewer late engineering changes
DHigher number of prototypes
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Designing a product so that it has fewer parts and is easy to assemble is:

ADesign of experiments
BDesign for manufacture and assembly (DFMA)
CStatistical process control
DBusiness process re-engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

The technique that converts the voice of the customer into engineering characteristics is:

AQFD (house of quality)
BTRIZ
CFMEA
DSPC
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

The technique that identifies potential failure modes and ranks them by a risk priority number is:

AQFD
BFMEA
CValue analysis
DMonte Carlo simulation
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Making product performance insensitive to uncontrollable (noise) factors is the aim of:

ABPR
BKanban
CMRP
DTaguchi's robust design
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Business process re-engineering is defined as:

ASmall continuous improvements by workers
BFundamental rethinking and radical redesign of processes for dramatic improvement
CStatistical control of a process
DRoutine maintenance of machines
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

The main enabler of business process re-engineering is:

AInformation technology
BLonger lead times
CHigher inventories
DIncreased manpower
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Improving one department's performance at the expense of the whole organisation is called:

AStandardisation
BSynergy
CSub-optimisation
DIntegration
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Linking shop-floor sensors, PLCs, SCADA, MES and ERP is an example of:

AVertical integration of systems
BHorizontal integration
CSequential engineering
DProduct differentiation
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

A cooperative concurrent-engineering team is typically:

AComposed only of top managers
BComposed only of design engineers
CA single project manager
DMultidisciplinary, including design, manufacturing, quality, purchasing and suppliers
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1128Ch 7 · Concurrent Engineering

Spending more effort in the early design phase because changes are cheapest then is known as:

AExpediting
BBatch processing
CFront-loading the development process
DBack-loading
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Value in value engineering is defined as:

ACost divided by function
BFunction divided by cost
CQuality multiplied by cost
DPrice minus cost
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Value engineering is applied mainly at the:

AStage of final inspection
BTime of dispatch
CDesign and development stage of a new product
DEnd of the product's life only
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

The value-engineering technique was originated by:

ALawrence D. Miles at General Electric
BHenry Ford
CTaiichi Ohno at Toyota
DW. E. Deming at Ford
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

In function analysis, a function is expressed by:

AA drawing number
BA long descriptive sentence
CA cost figure only
DAn active verb and a measurable noun
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

A FAST diagram is used to:

ABalance an assembly line
BSchedule the project activities
CCalculate the break-even point
DShow how and why functions are performed and their logical relationship
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

The phase of the value-engineering job plan in which ideas are generated without criticism is the:

AEvaluation phase
BCreativity (speculation) phase
CInformation phase
DImplementation phase
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

The correct order of the value-engineering job plan is: implementation

AEvaluation → creativity → information → presentation
BCreativity → information → implementation → evaluation
CImplementation → information → creativity → evaluation
DInformation → function analysis → creativity → evaluation → development → presentation →
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

'Worth' in value engineering means:

AThe lowest cost of reliably performing the required function
BThe total manufacturing cost
CThe cost of raw material only
DThe selling price of the product
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Which of the following is NOT a type of value?

AEsteem value
BStatistical value
CExchange value
DUse value
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Unnecessary cost in value engineering is cost that:

AProvides neither use nor esteem value to the customer
BIs incurred in the machine shop
CAppears in the balance sheet
DIs incurred on raw material
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Value engineering differs from simple cost cutting because it:

AAlways reduces the quality
BApplies only to overhead expenses
CIgnores customer requirements
DMaintains or improves the required function and quality
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

A value-engineering study should preferably be applied first to items that:

AAccount for a large share of total cost (the vital few)
BCost the least
CAre easiest to change
DAre purchased locally
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1128Ch 7 · Value Engineering

Replacing a machined component with a moulded one after a VE study, keeping the same function, results in:

AUnchanged value
BLoss of function
CLower value
DHigher value
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

In linear programming, the optimal solution always occurs at:

AThe centre of the feasible region
BThe origin always
CA point outside the feasible region
DA corner (extreme) point of the feasible region
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of linear programming?

ARandomness of the coefficients
BDivisibility
CLinearity
DCertainty
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

If a maximisation LP has an objective function parallel to a binding constraint, the problem has:

AMultiple optimal solutions
BA degenerate basis only
CNo feasible solution
DAn unbounded solution
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

The shadow price of a resource that is not fully used in the optimal solution is:

AAlways positive
BZero
CEqual to its market price
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

In duality, the optimal objective values of the primal and dual problems are:

AEqual
BOpposite in sign
CUnrelated
DAlways different
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

Sensitivity analysis of an LP solution determines:

AThe correlation coefficient
BThe number of constraints
CThe random error of the data
DHow much the data can change before the optimal solution changes
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

The coefficient of determination R² of a regression indicates:

AThe slope of the line
BThe number of observations
CThe proportion of variation in y explained by the model
DThe intercept
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

In exponential smoothing, increasing the value of α:

AIgnores recent data
BMakes the forecast respond faster to recent demand
CSmooths the forecast more heavily
DHas no effect
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

A four-period moving average forecast for demands 40, 44, 48 and 52 is:

A44
B46
C52
D184
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

The mean absolute deviation (MAD) of forecast errors is:

AThe average of the absolute errors
BThe square root of the mean squared error
CThe cumulative error
DAlways negative
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

In a two-person zero-sum game, a saddle point exists when:

AMaximin equals minimax
BAll payoffs are zero
CBoth players use mixed strategies
DMaximin exceeds minimax
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

In Monte Carlo simulation, random-number intervals are assigned to outcomes in proportion to their:

ASerial numbers
BCosts
CProbabilities
DStandard deviations
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1128Ch 7 · Operations Research

The distribution most commonly used to model the number of customer arrivals per hour is the:

ANormal distribution
BPoisson distribution
CUniform distribution
DBinomial distribution
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Productivity is defined as the ratio of:

AOutput to input
BInput to output
COutput to time only
DProfit to sales
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Work study consists of:

AJob evaluation and merit rating
BMethod study and quality control
CTime study and cost accounting
DMethod study and work measurement
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

In a flow process chart, a triangle symbol represents:

ADelay
BStorage
COperation
DTransport
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

The chart used to study the idle time of a worker and machine together is the:

ATwo-handed process chart
BOperation process chart
CMultiple activity chart
DSIMO chart
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

A string diagram is used mainly to:

AMeasure and reduce the distance travelled by workers or material
BRate the operator's performance
CRecord hand motions of an operator
DShow the sequence of inspections
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Therbligs are:

ASymbols used in flow process charts
BFundamental hand motions used in micro-motion study
CTypes of control charts
DAllowances given in time study
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Which statement is a principle of motion economy?

AOne hand should always remain idle
BTools should be placed randomly
CBoth hands should begin and end their motions at the same time
DMotions should be zig-zag and sudden
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

If the observed time for an element is 0.5 min and the operator is rated at 120%, the basic time is:

A0.42 min
B0.50 min
C0.60 min
D1.20 min
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Standard time is equal to:

ABasic time minus rating
BObserved time minus allowances
CObserved time only
DBasic time plus allowances
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

A basic time of 4 minutes with a total allowance of 15% gives a standard time of:

A4.15 minutes
B6.0 minutes
C4.6 minutes
D3.4 minutes
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

The personal-needs allowance in time study is usually about:

A5% of the basic time
B0.5%
C25%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

Work sampling is most suitable for:

ARating an operator's skill
BLong-cycle, non-repetitive activities and idle-time studies
CMeasuring machine vibration
DVery short repetitive cycles only
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1128Ch 7 · Work Study and Productivity

For 95% confidence, the number of observations in work sampling is given by:

An = 100/p
Bn = p(1 − p)/L
Cn = 2pL²
Dn = 4p(1 − p)/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

The basic aim of ergonomics is to:

AFit the job and workplace to the worker
BFit the worker to the job
CReduce the number of workers
DIncrease machine speed only
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

According to the allocation of functions, humans are superior to machines in:

AContinuous heavy power output
BJudgement in unexpected situations and pattern recognition
CLong computations
DRepetitive precise operations
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

For reading an exact numerical value, the most suitable display is a:

AWarning lamp
BQualitative coloured band
CDigital (counter) display
DMoving-pointer fixed-scale dial
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

An auditory warning signal is preferred when the message:

AContains detailed numerical data
BIs long and complex
CIs short, urgent and requires immediate action
DMust be referred to repeatedly
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

Shape coding of aircraft or machine controls is used mainly to:

AImprove appearance
BReduce manufacturing cost
CAllow identification by touch and prevent wrong operation
DIncrease control force
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

Turning a knob clockwise is expected to increase the output. This is an example of:

AA population stereotype (movement compatibility)
BWork sampling
CAnthropometry
DA control-display ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

Clearance dimensions such as doorway height and legroom should be designed for the:

A95th percentile of the user population
B50th percentile
C5th percentile
DMinimum value recorded
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

The recommended working height for precision bench work is:

AAt knee height
BSlightly above elbow height with elbow support
CAt shoulder height
DWell below elbow height
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

The occupational noise exposure limit widely used for an 8-hour shift is:

A85 dB(A)
B40 dB(A)
C120 dB(A)
D150 dB(A)
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

The load constant used in the NIOSH lifting equation is:

A5 kg
B50 kg
C10 kg
D23 kg
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

A lifting index (LI) greater than 1 indicates that the task:

AIs perfectly safe
BHas zero load
CPoses an increased risk of low-back injury
DNeeds no further study
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

RULA and REBA are tools used to assess:

ALighting levels
BMachine vibration levels
CWorking postures and musculoskeletal risk
DNoise exposure
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1128Ch 7 · Ergonomics

In a computer workstation, the top of the monitor should be placed:

AAt or slightly below eye level, about 50–70 cm away
BDirectly in front of a bright window
CWell above eye level
DAt knee level
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

A hydraulic cylinder of 100 mm bore working at 100 bar develops a force of about:

A31.4 kN
B7.85 kN
C78.5 kN
D785 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

The component that limits the maximum pressure in a hydraulic system is the:

APressure relief valve
BFlow control valve
CAccumulator
DCheck valve
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

Meter-out flow control is preferred when the load:

AAlways opposes the piston
BIs very small
CIs stationary
DTends to run away (over-running load)
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

A hydraulic accumulator is used to:

ACool the oil only
BStore energy and absorb pressure shocks
CFilter the oil
DIncrease the pump speed
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

Compared with hydraulic systems, pneumatic systems have:

ANo need for a compressor
BPoorer position control because air is compressible
CHigher force per unit area
DBetter stiffness
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

The FRL unit in a pneumatic system consists of a:

AFlow meter, relief valve and limiter
BFilter, reservoir and line
CFan, radiator and louvre
DFilter, regulator and lubricator
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

For continuous plant air supply at about 7 bar, the compressor most commonly used today is the:

AAxial compressor
BSingle-stage reciprocating compressor
CDiaphragm compressor
DRotary screw compressor
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

Intercooling between stages of a reciprocating compressor:

AIncreases the work required
BIs used only in vacuum pumps
CReduces the work required for compression
DIncreases the discharge temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor decreases when:

ASpeed decreases only
BClearance volume or pressure ratio increases
CSuction temperature decreases
DClearance volume decreases
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

A 4/3 direction control valve has:

AFour ports and three positions
BThree ports and three positions
CFour ports and four positions
DThree ports and four positions
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

In a regenerative hydraulic circuit, the oil from the rod side is:

AFed back to the cap side to give a faster extension stroke
BReturned to the tank through a cooler
CDiverted to the relief valve
DUsed to lubricate the pump
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

A pressure-compensated variable displacement pump is used mainly to:

AReplace the relief valve
BFilter the oil
CIncrease the system pressure indefinitely
DSave energy by delivering only the flow needed
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1128Ch 8 · Hydraulic and Pneumatic Systems

Compressed air is considered an expensive utility because:

AIt cannot be stored
BAir itself must be purchased
COnly about 10–20% of the input electrical energy becomes useful air power
DCompressors need no maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The EMF induced in a transformer winding is given by:

AE = PΦZN/60A
BE = V − IaRa
CE = 4.44 f N Φm
DE = 2 f N Φm
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

Iron (core) losses in a transformer are:

AZero at no load
BProportional to the square of the load
CPractically constant at all loads
DProportional to the load current
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when:

AIron loss is double the copper loss
BCopper loss equals iron loss
CThe transformer is on no load
DCopper loss is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The open-circuit test on a transformer gives mainly the:

AFull-load copper loss
BIron (core) loss
CInsulation resistance
DVoltage regulation directly
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The DC motor with the highest starting torque, which should never be started without load, is the:

ASynchronous motor
BSeparately excited motor
CShunt motor
DSeries motor
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

In a DC motor, the back emf is equal to:

AIaRa only
BV + IaRa
CZero at all speeds
DV − IaRa
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The synchronous speed of a 4-pole induction motor on a 50 Hz supply is:

A750 rpm
B1500 rpm
C1000 rpm
D3000 rpm
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

If a 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rpm, the slip is:

A10%
B4%
C2%
D6%
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The torque developed by an induction motor varies as:

AIndependently of voltage
BThe inverse of the voltage
CThe square of the applied voltage
DThe applied voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

Star-delta starting of an induction motor reduces the starting current to:

AThe same value
BOne-third of the direct-on-line value
COne-half
DTwice
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

A three-phase synchronous motor:

ARuns at a speed depending on load
BRuns at synchronous speed and is not self-starting
CHas slip of about 5%
DAlways starts on its own
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

An over-excited synchronous motor running on no load for power-factor improvement is called a:

ARotary converter
BSynchronous condenser
CSlip-ring motor
DInduction generator
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1128Ch 8 · Electrical Systems

The standard low-voltage industrial distribution in Nepal is:

A440 V DC
B11 kV to every consumer
C400 V three-phase, 230 V single-phase, 50 Hz
D230 V three-phase, 110 V single-phase, 60 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

In a water-tube boiler:

ASteam flows inside the tubes only
BHot gases flow inside the tubes
CThere are no tubes
DWater flows inside the tubes and hot gases outside
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Which of the following is a boiler mounting?

ASuperheater
BSafety valve
CEconomiser
DAir pre-heater
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

An economiser in a boiler plant is used to:

ASuperheat the steam
BPreheat the combustion air
CPreheat the feed water using flue gases
DRemove dissolved solids
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

The fusible plug of a boiler melts and puts out the fire when:

AThe pressure exceeds the safe value
BThe water level falls dangerously low
CThe steam is superheated
DThe feed pump fails to start
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Equivalent evaporation of a boiler is expressed as steam produced:

AAt the working pressure only
BPer kg of ash
CAt 0 °C
DFrom and at 100 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

The indirect method of boiler efficiency testing calculates efficiency as:

ASteam output divided by fuel input only
B100 minus the sum of all losses
CFuel input divided by steam output
DFlue-gas temperature divided by furnace temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Excess air in a boiler or furnace should be minimised because it:

ACarries away heat in the flue gas
BReduces the stack height
CCauses incomplete combustion
DIncreases flame temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Scale formation on boiler tubes leads to:

ALower flue-gas temperature
BHigher fuel consumption and possible tube failure
CReduced blowdown requirement
DBetter heat transfer
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Blowdown of a boiler is carried out to:

AClean the air pre-heater
BIncrease the steam pressure
CRemove the superheat
DControl the dissolved solids in the boiler water
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

The largest heat loss in a typical fuel-fired furnace is:

ACooling water loss
BHeat stored in the refractory
CLoss through the door openings
DSensible heat carried away by flue gases
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Preheating combustion air with a recuperator saves fuel by about:

A50% for every 100 °C
BNo saving at all
C2% for every 1 °C
D2% for every 100 °C of air preheat
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

Maintaining a slightly positive pressure inside a furnace prevents:

AFlame failure
BInfiltration of cold air through openings
CScale formation on the stock
DExcess fuel flow
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1128Ch 8 · Thermal Systems — Boilers, Furnaces and Cogeneration

In base thermal load matching of a cogeneration plant, the unit is sized for the:

AMaximum possible heat demand
BPeak electrical demand
CMinimum process heat demand of the site
DGrid export capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Material handling in a factory:

AImproves product quality directly
BAdds cost but no value to the product
CAdds value to the product
DIs always free of cost
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

The unit load principle means:

AUsing only manual labour
BHandling only unit weights of 1 kg
CHandling one item at a time
DHandling several items together as a single load
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using pallets as unit loads?

ACounting becomes difficult
BMore handling trips are needed
CEmpty pallets must be returned and stored
DProduct damage increases
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Conveyors are best suited for:

AOccasional movement of varied loads on varying routes
BHigh volumes moving continuously along a fixed route
CStoring material for long periods
DLifting very heavy single loads
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

An overhead travelling (EOT) crane is preferred when:

AHeavy loads must be moved within a bay while keeping the floor free
BLight loads move continuously on a fixed path
CMaterial must be stored in racks
DSmall parts are moved between benches
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

An AGV (automated guided vehicle) is an example of:

AStorage equipment
BFixed-path continuous conveyor
CPositioning equipment only
DVariable-path automated handling equipment
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

The chart most useful for studying the intensity of movement between departments is the:

AControl chart
BP-chart
CGantt chart
DFrom-to (travel) chart
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Which principle suggests using gravity to move material wherever practicable?

AThe ergonomic principle
BThe standardisation principle
CThe automation principle
DThe work (minimise handling work) principle
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Handling cost per unit is usually reduced most effectively by:

ABuying more forklifts
BImproving the plant layout to shorten material flow
CIncreasing batch storage
DAdding more manual labour
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

The safe working load (SWL) marked on a crane or sling indicates:

AIts test load
BThe load at which it will break
CIts own weight
DThe maximum load it may lift in service
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Wire ropes, chains, hooks and slings of lifting equipment require:

APeriodic inspection and load testing
BReplacement after every lift
CLubrication with water
DNo maintenance at all
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

In analysing a material-handling problem, the 'three Ms' considered are:

AMan, machine and money
BMotion, measurement and maintenance
CMaterial, money and market
DMaterial, move and method
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1128Ch 8 · Material Handling Systems

Point-of-use storage of components in a cellular layout mainly reduces:

AProduct quality
BMachine capacity
CHandling and travel time
DLabour skill requirements
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Load factor of a plant is defined as:

AAverage load divided by maximum demand
BEnergy generated divided by installed capacity
CMaximum demand divided by connected load
DConnected load divided by maximum demand
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

A factory uses 180 000 kWh in a month of 720 hours with a maximum demand of 500 kW. Its load factor is:

A1.0
B0.25
C0.5
D0.75
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

The demand factor of an installation is:

AAverage load ÷ maximum demand
BEnergy ÷ time
CMaximum demand ÷ connected load
DConnected load ÷ maximum demand
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

The plant capacity factor of a run-of-river hydropower plant in Nepal is typically about:

AExactly 100%
B50–60% on an annual basis
C10%
DOver 95%
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Levelised cost of energy (LCOE) is:

AThe tariff fixed by the regulator
BThe fuel cost per litre
CThe capital cost divided by installed capacity
DThe present value of lifetime costs divided by the present value of energy generated
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

In a two-part tariff, the two components are:

AA demand (kVA/kW) charge and an energy (kWh) charge
BA fuel charge and a tax
CA meter rent and a fine
DA peak charge and an export charge
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

A time-of-day (TOD) tariff encourages consumers to:

AReduce the power factor
BShift load from peak hours to off-peak hours
CUse only during peak hours
DIncrease the maximum demand
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Improving the power factor of an industrial plant with capacitors:

AIncreases the maximum demand
BHas no effect on the bill
CReduces the kVA demand and avoids penalties
DIncreases the active power consumed
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Economic (as distinct from financial) analysis of an energy project:

AIgnores the discount rate
BConsiders only the investor's cash flow
CUses market prices and includes taxes
DUses shadow prices and includes externalities
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

The organisation responsible for promoting renewable and rural energy in Nepal is:

ANBSM
BAEPC
CNEA only
DDepartment of Industry
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

The theoretical hydropower potential of Nepal is usually quoted as about:

A830 000 MW
B8 300 MW
C83 000 MW
D830 MW
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Which of the following is a traditional (non-commercial) energy source?

ADiesel
BElectricity
CLPG
DFuelwood and agricultural residue
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1128Ch 8 · Energy Systems and Policies

Energy conservation is often described as the cheapest source of energy because:

AIt needs no investment ever
BIt produces electricity
CSaving one unit at the point of use saves several units of primary energy
DIt increases maximum demand
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

The essential feature of a closed-loop control system is:

AFeedback of the measured output to the comparator
BManual operation
CAbsence of a controller
DA fixed calibration
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

Which of the following is an open-loop control system?

AA servo positioning table
BA stepper-motor drive without position feedback
CA thermostat-controlled oven with a sensor
DA CNC axis with an encoder
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

Proportional control alone usually results in:

ANo response to error
BInstability in every case
CA steady-state offset
DZero steady-state error
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

The derivative action in a PID controller mainly:

AImproves the transient response by acting on the rate of change of error
BActs only on constant errors
CRemoves steady-state offset
DIncreases the offset
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

The test signal that represents a constant rate of change of input is the:

ASinusoidal signal
BImpulse signal
CRamp signal
DStep signal
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

Adaptive control in machining adjusts:

AOnly the part program before machining
BThe workpiece material
CFeed or speed in real time according to measured force or power
DThe machine foundation
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

An incremental encoder differs from an absolute encoder in that it:

AGives a unique code for every position
BLoses its position information when power is switched off
CUses Gray code discs
DCannot measure direction
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

Absolute encoders commonly use Gray code because:

AIt needs fewer tracks than binary
BOnly one bit changes between successive positions, avoiding reading errors
CIt is easier to print
DIt gives higher resolution automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

A resolver is preferred over an optical encoder where:

AVery low cost is essential
BThe environment is hot, dirty or subject to vibration
COnly digital output is acceptable
DNo rotation occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

A back-pressure (air-jet) sensor detects the presence of a workpiece because:

AA magnet attracts the part
BLight is reflected to a photocell
CBlocking the nozzle raises the back pressure in the line
DThe workpiece completes an electrical circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

A stepper motor is normally used in:

AOpen-loop positioning applications
BConstant-speed pumping
CPower generation
DClosed-loop high-power servo drives
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

The PLC scan cycle consists of:

AExecuting the program once at power-on only
BContinuous analog computation without scanning
CReading inputs, executing the program and updating outputs
DWriting outputs before reading inputs only
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1128Ch 8 · Industrial Automation

In a closed-loop CNC machine, the actual position of the slide is measured by:

AThe part program
BThe coolant flow meter
CAn encoder or linear scale
DThe stepper motor pulses only
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

A layout in which all lathes are placed in one section and all milling machines in another is a:

AProduct layout
BCellular layout
CProcess (functional) layout
DFixed-position layout
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

The layout most suitable for mass production of a standard product is the:

AProcess layout
BFixed-position layout
CCombination layout
DProduct (line) layout
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

Shipbuilding and large turbine erection normally use a:

AProduct layout
BFixed-position layout
CCellular layout
DProcess layout
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

A cellular (group technology) layout is designed around:

AThe store location
BFamilies of similar parts
CMachine types
DA single product only
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

A major disadvantage of the product layout is that:

AWork-in-process is very high
BMaterial handling is very high
CBreakdown of one machine can stop the whole line
DSupervision is difficult
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

In systematic layout planning, the closeness rating 'X' means that two activities:

AAre especially important to be close
BHave ordinary closeness
CShould not be adjacent (undesirable)
DMust be adjacent
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

The inputs to systematic layout planning are:

APeople, quality, resources, safety and training
BProduct, quantity, routing, supporting services and time
CPrice, quality, reliability, service and technology
DPlan, quantity, rate, stock and transport
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

The chart that shows the number of moves between each pair of departments is the:

AFrom-to (travel) chart
BControl chart
CGantt chart
DOperation process chart
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

The commonest quantitative criterion for comparing layout alternatives is:

ANumber of employees
BNumber of machines only
CColour of the building
DTotal material-handling cost (flow × distance × cost)
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

CRAFT is a computerised layout technique that:

ASchedules production orders
BImproves an existing layout by exchanging departments
CBalances an assembly line
DConstructs a layout from scratch only
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

The centre-of-gravity method for facility location minimises:

ATaxes
BWeighted transport distance to the demand points
CLabour cost
DBuilding cost
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

A north-light (saw-tooth) roof is used in factory buildings to:

AImprove floor loading
BProvide uniform natural daylight without direct glare
CReduce the building height
DSupport heavy cranes
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1128Ch 9 · Plant Layout and Design

An industry that loses much weight during processing tends to be located:

ANear the market
BNear the airport
CNear the source of raw material
DAt an arbitrary site
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

According to Heinrich's domino theory, removing which domino prevents the injury?

AThe injury itself
BThe fault of the person only
CThe unsafe act or unsafe condition
DThe social environment
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Heinrich's accident ratio is usually quoted as:

A1 major injury : 29 minor injuries : 300 no-injury incidents
B1 : 100 : 1000
C1 : 3 : 9
D1 : 10 : 100
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Studies attribute the majority of industrial accidents to:

AEquipment design only
BUnsafe conditions only
CNatural causes
DUnsafe acts of people
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

In the hierarchy of controls, the most effective measure is:

APosting warning signs
BEliminating the hazard
CTraining the workers
DProviding personal protective equipment
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Personal protective equipment is regarded as:

AA substitute for machine guarding
BThe first and best control
CThe last line of defence after other controls
DUnnecessary if workers are trained
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

HAZOP is a technique that examines a process using:

ARandom sampling of products
BControl charts
CGuide words applied to process deviations
DStatistical tolerance analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

A permit-to-work system is essential for:

AHot work, confined-space entry and work at height
BOrdinary machining
CStores issue of material
DRoutine office work
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Lock-out/tag-out procedures are applied to:

ARecord attendance
BTag finished products
CLock the factory gate at night
DIsolate energy sources before maintenance work
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

The generally accepted noise exposure limit for an 8-hour working day is:

A85 dB(A)
B120 dB(A)
C65 dB(A)
D105 dB(A)
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

A factory records 4 lost-time injuries in 400 000 man-hours. Its frequency rate (per million man-hours) is:

A40
B10
C1
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Severity rate in accident statistics is calculated using:

ACost per accident
BDays lost per million man-hours worked
CNumber of injuries per worker
DNumber of machines guarded
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

The international management-system standard for occupational health and safety is:

AISO 9001:2015
BISO 14001:2015
CISO 45001:2018
DISO 50001
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1128Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety

Employers' duties regarding workplace safety in Nepal are laid down mainly in the:

ACopyright Act, 2059
BCompanies Act, 2063
CLabour Act, 2074 and Labour Rules, 2075
DPublic Procurement Act, 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

Availability of equipment is given by:

AMTBF/(MTBF + MTTR)
BMTBF × MTTR
CMTTR/(MTBF + MTTR)
D1/MTBF
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

Maintenance carried out on the basis of measured vibration and temperature is:

ADesign-out maintenance
BPreventive time-based maintenance
CPredictive (condition-based) maintenance
DBreakdown maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

The pillar of TPM in which machine operators perform routine cleaning, lubrication and inspection is:

AAutonomous maintenance
BOffice TPM
CQuality maintenance
DPlanned maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

Reliability-centred maintenance selects the maintenance strategy based on:

AThe purchase price
BFailure modes and the consequences of failure
CThe number of operators
DThe age of the machine only
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

The most important property of a lubricating oil is its:

ADensity
BOdour
CColour
DViscosity
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

The commonly used general-purpose grease consistency grade is:

ANLGI 6
BNLGI 2
CNLGI 000
DSAE 40
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

In hydrodynamic lubrication:

AA full fluid film is generated by relative motion of the surfaces
BAn external pump supplies the pressure
CThe surfaces are in metal-to-metal contact
DOnly solid lubricants are used
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

Over-greasing a rolling-element bearing usually causes:

AOverheating due to churning of excess grease
BBetter cooling
CLonger life always
DNo effect
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

A dominant vibration at twice the running speed (2×) usually indicates:

AShaft misalignment
BUnbalance
CCavitation
DBearing defect
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

Infrared thermography in electrical maintenance is used mainly to detect:

AEarth resistance
BInsulation resistance
CLoose or overheating joints and connections
DPower factor
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

The breakdown voltage (BDV) test and dissolved gas analysis are carried out on:

AEngine coolant
BCompressor air
CTransformer oil
DHydraulic oil in presses
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

The interval between the point where a failure becomes detectable and actual failure is called the:

ACycle time
BTakt time
CMTBF
DP-F interval
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1128Ch 9 · Maintenance of Industrial Systems

A quality circle typically consists of:

AExternal consultants
B6–12 volunteers from the same work area
COnly senior managers
DAll employees of the company
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Reliability is defined as the probability that an item performs its required function:

AUnder stated conditions for a stated period of time
BAt any cost
CWithout any maintenance forever
DOnly at the time of purchase
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

During the useful-life period of the bathtub curve, the failure rate is:

AIncreasing
BZero
CApproximately constant
DDecreasing
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

For a constant failure rate λ, the reliability at time t is:

Ae−λt
B1 − λt always
C1/λt
Dλt
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

If the failure rate of a component is 0.002 per hour, its MTBF is:

A500 hours
B0.002 hour
C2 000 hours
D5 000 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

The reliability of an item at a time equal to its MTBF (constant failure rate) is about:

A36.8%
B50%
C100%
D63.2%
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Three components with reliabilities 0.9, 0.95 and 0.98 are connected in series. The system reliability is about:

A0.95
B0.838
C0.98
D0.999
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Two identical components each of reliability 0.9 are connected in parallel. The system reliability is:

A0.81
B0.99
C0.90
D1.80
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

In a reliability block diagram, an AND gate in the corresponding fault tree represents components that are:

AAlways failed
BNot connected
CIn series
DIn parallel (redundant)
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Burn-in testing of components is carried out to remove failures belonging to the:

AInfant mortality region
BUseful life region
CDesign stage
DWear-out region
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

In the Weibull distribution, a shape parameter β greater than 1 indicates:

AInfant mortality
BZero failures
CWear-out failures (increasing hazard rate)
DRandom failures
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

The Weibull characteristic life η is the time by which:

A10% has failed
B63.2% of the population has failed
CAll items have failed
D50% has failed
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Preventive replacement of a component is justified only when its failure rate is:

AConstant
BIncreasing with age
CDecreasing
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1128Ch 9 · System Reliability

Redundant units sharing a common power supply may still fail together because of:

ABurn-in
BInfant mortality
CCommon-cause failure
DDerating
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

One tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to:

A1 kW
B3 024 kJ/h
C3.5 kW
D350 W
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The COP of a refrigerator is defined as:

ARefrigerating effect divided by work input
BWork input divided by refrigerating effect
CWork input divided by heat rejected
DHeat rejected divided by work input
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The theoretical maximum COP of a refrigerator working between T₁ and T₂ (T₂ < T₁) is:

A(T₁ − T₂)/T₂
BT₁/T₂
CT₂/(T₁ − T₂)
DT₁/(T₁ − T₂)
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The air refrigeration (Bell-Coleman) system is used in aircraft mainly because:

AIt works without any power
BAir is free, safe and the equipment is light
CIt has the highest COP
DIt needs no compressor
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The expansion process in a vapour compression system is:

AA throttling process at constant enthalpy
BAn isentropic expansion producing work
CA constant-volume process
DA constant-pressure process
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

Sub-cooling of the liquid refrigerant before the expansion device:

ADecreases the refrigerating effect
BIncreases the refrigerating effect
CIncreases the compressor work only
DHas no effect
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

Cryogenics deals with temperatures below about:

A−80 °C
B0 °C
C−40 °C
D−150 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

Ammonia as a refrigerant is designated as:

AR-717
BR-22
CR-744
DR-134a
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

CFC refrigerants such as R-12 were phased out because they:

AAre too expensive
BHave low latent heat
CFreeze at high temperature
DDeplete the ozone layer
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

Quick freezing of food is preferred to slow freezing because it:

AForms small ice crystals and preserves texture
BUses less equipment
CRaises the storage temperature
DKills all bacteria permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The automatic expansion valve maintains a constant:

ASuperheat at the evaporator outlet
BCompressor speed
CEvaporator pressure
DCondenser pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

The thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow so as to maintain a constant:

ACondensing temperature
BOil level
CDegree of superheat at the evaporator outlet
DEvaporator pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1128Ch 9 · Refrigeration Systems and Food Preservation

Setting the superheat of a TEV too low may cause:

AStarving of the evaporator
BLiquid refrigerant to return to the compressor
CExcessive condenser pressure only
DOverheating of the compressor
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

The temperature at which moisture begins to condense from air cooled at constant pressure is the:

AWet-bulb temperature
BEffective temperature
CDew-point temperature
DDry-bulb temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Sensible heating of air on a psychrometric chart is represented by:

AA vertical line
BA horizontal line at constant humidity ratio
CA line of constant enthalpy
DA line of constant relative humidity
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Evaporative cooling of air follows a line of approximately constant:

ADry-bulb temperature
BHumidity ratio
CRelative humidity
DWet-bulb temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

The sensible heat factor (SHF) is the ratio of:

ALatent heat to sensible heat
BSensible heat to latent heat
CTotal heat to latent heat
DSensible heat to total heat
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

The bypass factor of a cooling coil represents the fraction of air that:

ALeaks out of the duct
BPasses through the coil without being affected
CIs recirculated
DIs dehumidified completely
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Which of the following is NOT one of the six factors affecting thermal comfort?

AClothing insulation
BAir temperature
CBarometric pressure
DMean radiant temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Comfortable indoor relative humidity for air conditioning is generally taken as:

A0–10%
B70–90%
C40–60%
D10–20%
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

The PMV-PPD comfort indices are associated with:

AISO 9001
BASHRAE 15
CISO 7730 (Fanger's comfort model)
DISO 14001
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Indoor carbon dioxide concentration is used mainly as an indicator of:

AThe adequacy of ventilation
BHumidity level
CDust concentration
DToxic gas poisoning
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Symptoms such as headache and irritation that disappear after leaving a building indicate:

AHeat stroke
BSilicosis
CLegionnaires' disease
DSick building syndrome
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

The most effective first step in controlling indoor air quality is:

AIncreasing filtration only
BSource control
CRecirculating all the air
DRaising the room temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

Which of the following is usually the largest component of the cooling load in a building with large windows?

ALatent heat from occupants
BHeat from lighting
CConduction through the floor
DSolar heat gain through glass
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1128Ch 9 · HVAC System Design

In calculating the heating (winter) load of a building, internal and solar gains are usually:

AAdded to the load
BNeglected, to be on the safe side
CMultiplied by two
DThe only components considered
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 1060 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1061 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1062 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1063 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1064 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 1065 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 1066 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1067 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1068 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 1069 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 1070 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1071 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1072 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1073 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 1074 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 1075 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1076 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1077 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1078 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 1079 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 1080 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1081 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1082 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 1083 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 1084 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1085 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1086 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1087 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1088 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1089 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1090 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1091 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1092 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1093 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
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Question 1094 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
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Question 1095 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
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Question 1096 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
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Question 1097 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
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Question 1098 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
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Question 1099 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
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Question 1100 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
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Question 1101 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
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Question 1102 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
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Question 1103 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
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Question 1104 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
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Question 1105 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
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Question 1106 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
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Question 1107 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
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Question 1108 of 1128Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
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Question 1109 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
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Question 1110 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
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Question 1111 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
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Question 1112 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
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Question 1113 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
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Question 1114 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
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Question 1115 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
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Question 1116 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
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Question 1117 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
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Question 1118 of 1128Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
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Question 1119 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
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Question 1120 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 1121 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
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Question 1122 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
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Question 1123 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
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Question 1124 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
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Question 1125 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
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Question 1126 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
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Question 1127 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 1128 of 1128Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden