BA rapid change in flow velocity, such as sudden valve closure or pump trip
COnly steady-state laminar flow
DOnly flow through a venturi meter
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 2077Ch 3 · Pipe Flow
Unmitigated water hammer pressure surges can potentially cause:
AImproved pipe efficiency
BPipe damage or rupture
CA permanent reduction in flow rate to zero with no other effect
DIncreased pipe diameter automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 2077Ch 3 · Pipe Flow
Which of the following is a relief device used to mitigate water hammer effects?
AA venturi meter
BA surge tank or air vessel
CA pitot tube
DA manometer
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 2077Ch 3 · Pipe Flow
Pipe design generally balances:
AOnly aesthetic considerations
BConstruction cost against pumping/operating cost, for a required flow rate and acceptable head loss/pressure
COnly the pipe's colour
DOnly the pipe material's country of origin
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
Hydraulic radius of an open channel section is defined as:
AWetted perimeter divided by flow area
BFlow area divided by wetted perimeter
CTop width divided by flow area
DFlow depth multiplied by top width
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
The Froude number for open channel flow is defined as:
AFr = √(gDh)/V
BFr = V/√(gDh)
CFr = V × gDh
DFr = g/V
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
Subcritical open channel flow (Fr < 1) is characterized by:
AFlow control from upstream only
BTranquil flow, controlled from downstream
CAlways being unstable and undefined
DFlow velocity exceeding the wave celerity
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
Specific energy in open channel flow is defined as:
AE = y × V
BE = y + V²/2g
CE = V/y
DE = y − V²/2g
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
For a given specific energy above the minimum, an open channel flow section generally has:
AOnly one possible depth
BTwo possible depths, called alternate depths (subcritical and supercritical)
CNo possible depth at all
DExactly three possible depths
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
A hydraulic jump is best described as:
AA gradual, smooth transition from subcritical to supercritical flow
BAn abrupt transition from supercritical to subcritical flow, with significant energy dissipation
CA condition where flow depth remains perfectly constant
DA phenomenon that conserves energy exactly across the transition
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
The depths before and after a hydraulic jump (sequent depths) are related using:
AThe energy equation, since energy is conserved across the jump
BThe momentum equation, since energy is dissipated (not conserved) across the jump
CThe continuity equation alone, with no other relation needed
DThe Reynolds number only
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
Gradually varied flow (GVF) profiles, such as M1/M2/M3, are classified based on:
AOnly the channel's construction material
BChannel slope type and the actual depth's position relative to normal and critical depth
COnly the water's temperature
DOnly the pipe diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
A mobile boundary (alluvial) channel is characterized by:
AA rigid, non-erodible bed and banks
BA bed/banks composed of erodible sediment that can be scoured or deposited
CThe complete absence of any flow
DZero sediment transport under any condition
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 2077Ch 3 · Open Channel Flow
The Shield diagram is used to assess:
AThe friction factor for pipe flow
BThe threshold (inception) of sediment motion in a mobile boundary channel
CThe Atterberg limits of soil
DThe bearing capacity of a foundation
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
The hydrologic cycle describes:
AA one-way flow of water from ocean to atmosphere only
BThe continuous circulation of water between atmosphere, land, and oceans
CA process that occurs only during flood events
DOnly the process of groundwater recharge
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
A water balance equation for a catchment generally accounts for:
AOnly precipitation, with no other terms
BPrecipitation as the sum of runoff, evapotranspiration, infiltration/recharge, and change in storage
COnly runoff and evapotranspiration, ignoring precipitation
DOnly groundwater recharge
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
A rating curve at a gauging station relates:
ARainfall intensity to duration
BRiver stage (water level) to discharge
COnly flood return period to magnitude
DOnly aquifer permeability to porosity
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
On a typical flood hydrograph, the rising limb, peak, and falling limb represent:
AOnly baseflow contribution with no rainfall response
BThe discharge response over time to a rainfall event
COnly groundwater recharge over a year
DThe catchment's rainfall intensity curve
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
A unit hydrograph represents the direct runoff hydrograph resulting from:
AAny arbitrary amount of rainfall over any duration
BOne unit depth of effective rainfall occurring uniformly over a catchment in a unit time
COnly baseflow with no rainfall involved
DA single flood event of unknown magnitude
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
A synthetic unit hydrograph is used when:
AExtensive observed rainfall-runoff data is available
BA catchment lacks sufficient observed data to derive an observed unit hydrograph directly
COnly for catchments with no rainfall at all
DGroundwater data is unavailable
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
Flood frequency analysis typically involves fitting a probability distribution such as Gumbel or Log-Pearson Type III to:
ADaily rainfall data only
BHistorical annual maximum flood series
COnly groundwater level records
DOnly pipe flow velocity data
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
The design flood for a hydraulic structure such as a spillway or bridge is determined based on:
AAn arbitrary fixed value with no statistical basis
BA flood frequency analysis result associated with an appropriate return period/risk level
COnly the structure's construction cost
DOnly the local rainfall intensity on the day of design
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
Groundwater flow through an aquifer is fundamentally governed by:
ABernoulli's equation exclusively
BDarcy's law
CThe Hardy Cross method
DThe Shield diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 2077Ch 3 · Hydrology
A 'cone of depression' in groundwater hydrology refers to:
AA landform feature unrelated to pumping
BThe drawdown pattern in the water table/piezometric surface around a pumping well
CA type of aquifer classification
DA rainfall measurement device
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Two pipes, each of diameter d, converge to form a pipe of diameter D. What should be the relation between d and D so that flow velocity in the third pipe becomes double the velocity in each of the two pipes?
AD = 2d
BD = d
CD = 6d
DD = 8d
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When pipes of the same material are connected in parallel, the total loss of head:
AIs equal to the sum of head losses in each pipe
BIs same as in each pipe
CIs equal to the reciprocal of the sum of head losses
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When three pipes are connected in series, which statement is true?
AHead loss is the same through each pipe
BDischarge is the same through each pipe
CHead loss increases through each successive pipe
DDischarge decreases through each successive pipe
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
. Moody's diagram for estimating head loss was originally developed for:
ACircular pipes
BRectangular pipes
CTrapezoidal pipes
DSemi-circular pipes
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The Moody's chart is a logarithmic chart plotted against Darcy-Weisbach friction factor and:
ADensity of fluid
BReynolds number
CViscosity of fluid
DSlope of inclination of fluid
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In the Moody diagram, ε/D is a parameter. What is represented by it?
AViscosity
BKinematic viscosity
CSurface roughness height
DBoundary-layer thickness
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a fluid flow in a hydrodynamically smooth pipe, friction factor depends on:
AReynolds number for laminar flow and relative smoothness for turbulent flow
BReynolds number for both laminar and turbulent flow
CRelative smoothness for both laminar and turbulent flow
DRelative smoothness for laminar flow and Reynolds number for turbulent flow
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The boundary is known as hydrodynamically smooth if ε/D ratio is:
A< 0.25
B< 0.2
C< 0.5
D< 0.7
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The knocking sound in the pipe is due to:
APipe friction
BCavitation in pipe
CWater-hammer effect
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The magnitude of water hammer depends upon:
ALength of pipe line
BElastic properties of pipe material
CElastic properties of liquid
DDiameter of pipe line
EALL
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The maximum vacuum created at the summit of the siphon pipe is equal to:
A10.3 m of water
B1.3 m of water
C20.3 m of water
D10.8m of water
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Which parameter determines the efficiency of a channel?
AHydraulic depth
BHydraulic radius
CWetted perimeter
DNormal depth
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For the most economical channel section, which parameter should be minimum?
AWetted perimeter
BHydraulic depth
CFreeboard
DHydraulic radius
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a most economical rectangular channel of depth y and width B:
AB = 2y
BB = y
CB = 3y²
DB = y²
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a rectangular channel with the given dimensions, bed slope and Manning coefficient, the discharge is:
A680 m³/s
B700 m³/s
C70 m³/s
D900 m³/s
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The discharge through a rectangular channel is maximum when:
AR = 2y
BR = y
CR = 6y
DR = 9y
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic radius of a wide rectangular channel is approximately:
Ay/2
By/3
Cy
D9y
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic radius of the most economical triangular channel:
Ay/(2√2)
By/(2√6)
Cy/(2√5)
Dy(2√2)
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The most economical and efficient section is:
ATrapezoidal
BTriangular
CRectangular
DSquare
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a hydraulically efficient trapezoidal section, hydraulic radius is:
Ay
By/√2
Cy/2
Dy/√3
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In the most economical trapezoidal section, top width is:
A2 × sum of side slopes
BBottom width
CSum of side slopes
D2 × flow depth
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Discharge through a trapezoidal channel is maximum when:
Ad = 3
Bd = 2
Cd = 7d
Dd = 3d
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic radius for the most economical trapezoidal section is:
A3 m
B34 m
C83 m
D3 0m
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
At the vertex of a channel, the water level at the centre is:
AHigher than circumference
BLower than circumference
CSame as circumference
DAny of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Depth of flow changes over a short length of channel. It is:
ANon-steady flow
Bsteady flow
CRapidly varied flow
DGradually varied flow
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Depth changes along the channel but does not change with time. This is:
AUniform flow
BSteady flow
CUniform flow
DNon-uniform steady flow
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A steady uniform flow occurs through:
ALong pipe at decreasing rate
BLong pipe at constant rate
CLong pipe at increasing rate
DNONE
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Which is NOT a condition for uniform flow?
AZ₁ = Z₂
By₁ = y₂
CS₀ = Sf
DV₁ = V₂
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Open-channel flow becomes transitional when Reynolds number is:
A500–2000
B500–20000
C50–2000
D500–1000
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For open-channel flow, the range around Re = 500–2000 is commonly treated as transitional.
ASub-critical
Bcritical
CSuper-critical
DNONE
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic gradient line for open-channel flow is:
ABelow water level
BSame as water level
CAbove water level
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic gradient is equal to:
ADifference in water surface / total channel length
BTotal friction loss / total channel length
CWetted perimeter / total channel length
DArea / total channel length
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Condition for critical flow is:
AQ/g = A/T
BQ²/g = A³/T
CQ/g = A/T²
DQ²/g = T³/A
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In critical flow, velocity head is:
A2 times hydraulic depth
B1.5 times hydraulic depth
CEqual to hydraulic depth
D0.5 times hydraulic depth
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Find critical depth of a rectangular channel having width 3 m and discharge 15 m³/s.
A1.36 m
B236 m
C136 m
D2.36 m
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Maximum velocity in an open channel occurs:
AAt the bottom
BAt half the depth
CSlightly below the free surface
DAt the free surface
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If water depth is less than critical depth, flow is:
ACritical
BTurbulent
CTranquil
DTorrential
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When depth is greater than critical depth, velocity is:
ALess than critical velocity
BGreater than critical velocity
CIndependent of critical velocity
DNONE
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Chezy's formula is used to determine:
AHead loss due to friction in pipe
BVelocity of flow in pipe
CVelocity of flow in open channel
DNONE
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For the same specific force, the two depths are called:
AAlternate depths
BConjugate depths
CCritical depths
DNormal depths
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Alternate depths in open-channel flow are associated with:
ABeginning and end of hydraulic jump
BBeginning and end of GVF profile
CEnding of GVF profile
DEnding hydraulic jump
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The depth at which specific energy is minimum is called:
ANormal depth
BCritical depth
CAlternate depth
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
. A rectangular channel has width 5 m, discharge 10 m³/s and depth 2 m. Specific energy is:
A2.05 m
B1.05 m
C205 m
D2.85 m
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In a specific-energy curve, the plot of pressure head is:
AStraight line
BParabolic line
CHyperbolic line
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Specific-energy curve is a graph of ______ versus specific energy:
AVelocity of flow
BDensity of flow
CDepth of flow
DSum of pressure and velocity head
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Specific energy for the most economical trapezoidal channel in the given problem is:
A2m
B14 m
C2.14 m
D28 m
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Which statement about specific energy is correct?
AIt increases with depth in supercritical flow
BIt increases with depth in subcritical flow
CIt decreases with depth in supercritical flow
DBoth b and c
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Energy per unit weight of water measured with respect to datum is:
ATotal energy
BSpecific energy
CVelocity head
DDatum head
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Channel depth = 1.2 m and specific energy = 1.24 m. Find velocity.
A0.6 m/s
B0.9 m/s
C0.6 m
D0.6 s
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Alternate depths have:
ASame specific force
BSame velocity
CSame specific energy
DCritical depth
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
At critical depth, discharge is:
AMaximum for a given specific energy
BMaximum for a given specific force
CMinimum for a given specific energy
DMinimum for a given specific force
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
At critical depth, specific energy is:
AMinimum
BMaximum
CAverage of maximum and minimum
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Formula for sequent depth in a rectangular channel:
Ay₂/y₁ = 0.5[√(1+8Fr₁²) − 1]
By₂/y₁ = 0.5[√(1+8Fr₁²) + 1]
Cy₂/y₁ = 0.5[√(1+8Fr₁²) +
Dy₂/y₁ = √(1+8Fr₁²) + 1]
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Sequent-depth ratio is 16.48. Find Froude number of supercritical stream
A12
B1
C3
D24
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Sequent depth ratio = 16.48. Approximate Froude number
A12
B23
C45
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Sequent depths in a hydraulic jump are 0.25 m and 1.25 m. Energy loss:
A0.8 m
B1.8 m
C8 m
D7.8 m
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a given discharge, two depths having the same specific energy are:
AAlternate depths
BCritical depths
CNormal depths
DSequent depths
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For subcritical flow in an open channel, the most important control section for gradually varied flow profile is:
AUpstream end
BDownstream end
CBoth
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Rising water profile on the upstream side of a dam is called
ABackwater curve
BForth-water curve
CNormal-water curve
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic jump can occur:
AAt the foot of a spillway
BWhere a steep slope changes to a flat slope
CWhen shooting flow enters deeper water
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic jump is a:
ASteady non-uniform flow
BNon-steady uniform flow
CNon-steady non-uniform flow
DNon-steady uniform flow
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Rise of water level transforming unstable supercritical flow to stable subcritical flow is:
AHydraulic jump
BHydraulic oscillation
CRise of water level
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic jump is classified based on:
AWeber number
BFroude number
CMach number
DReynolds number
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For rectangular channels, hydraulic-jump length is approximately:
A3–5 times jump height
B5–7 times jump height
C5–9 times jump height
D5–4 times jump height
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Oscillating hydraulic jump occurs when Froude number is:
A2.5–4.5
B2.9–4.5
C2.5–4.9
D2.5–4.7
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic jump is considered steady when:
AFr₁ = 4.5 to 9
BFr₁ = 4.5
CFr₁ = 9
DFr₁ = 4
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic jump for Froude number greater than 5.5 is:
AUndular
BWeak
CSteady
DStrong
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Height of hydraulic jump in rapidly varied flow is:
Ay₂ − y₁
By₂ − 2y₁
C2y₂ − y₁
Dnone
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Height of hydraulic jump is ______ of conjugate depth.
A5 times
B1 times
C2 times
D3 times
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Froude number of a triangular channel with side slope 2H:1V is:
AV/√(gy/2)
BV/√(gy/4)
C√(gy/2)
DV/√(y/2)
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Critical-flow condition is:
AQ²T/(gA³) = 1
BQ²T/(gA³) = 0
CQ²T/(gA³) = 5
DQT/(gA³) = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Water cushion is used to:
ASit in the channel
BDestroy energy
CProduce energy
Dnone
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If channel-bottom slope is greater than critical slope, it is:
ACritical slope
BMild slope
CSteep slope
DAdverse slope
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A non-sustaining channel is one whose slope:
AIs zero
BFalls in direction of flow
CRises in direction of flow
DBoth a and c
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Supercritical flow occurs in:
ANormal slope
BMild slope
CSteep slope
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When slope changes from mild to steep, the profile formed is:
AM₂S₂
BM₂S
CMS₂
DMS
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In an M1 profile of gradually varied flow:
Ay > y₀ > y
By > y₀ > yc
Cy > y > yc
Dy > y₀
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Whose equation is associated with bed-load transport rate?
ADu-Boys empirical formula
BShields' formula
CMeyer-Peter equation
DEinstein equation
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Incipient motion means particles:
AAre already moving
BJust start to move
CAre at rest
DAre about to stop
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Tractive force in a mobile-boundary channel is:
ADirectly proportional to particle diameter
BInversely proportional to diameter
CIndependent of diameter
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Which is NOT a formation normally seen in an alluvial channel with sediment movement?
ARapids
BMeandered
CDuned
DAntiduned
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Basic mechanism behind sediment transport is:
ADrag force opposite to flow
BDrag force in direction of flow
CFree motion of particles
DVertical force by water
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If critical shear stress is τc, average shear stress required to move grains is:
Aτc
B2τc
C0.2τc
D6τc
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Formula for tractive force at bottom of channel:
Aτ = γwRS
Bτ = γwR
Cτ = γRS
Dτ = γwRS/2
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Curve obtained by plotting shear Reynolds number on x-axis and tractive force parameter on y-axis is:
AShields curve
BMass curve
CTractive-force curve
DReynolds curve
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In a Moody diagram, e/D represents:
ASurface roughness height
BViscosity
CBoundary-layer thickness
DKinematic viscosity
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Branch of science dealing with occurrence, circulation and distribution of Earth's water:
APrecipitation
BClimatology
CHydrology
DMeteorology
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydrology helps in:
APredicting maximum discharge
BDeciding reservoir capacity
CForecasting floods
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Area draining into a stream at a given location is called:
ACatchment area
BDrainage basin
CWatershed
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Average annual rainfall in Nepal is approximately:
A1890 m
B1890 mm
C189mm
D190 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
All forms of water reaching Earth from atmosphere are called:
ARainfall
BPrecipitation
CWaterfall
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Interception losses are mainly due to:
AEvaporation
BTranspiration
CBoth
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Compared with a fan-shaped catchment, a fern-shaped catchment generally has:
AShorter streams
BLonger streams
CAlmost equally long streams
DLong or short depending on catchment
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Correct statement about stream length in fan-shaped and fern-shaped catchments:
AFan-shaped stream length is more
BFern-shaped stream length is more
CBoth are same
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Farm pond is used for:
AErosion control
BFlood control
CWater storage
DRunoff control
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Precipitation caused by lifting an air mass due to pressure difference is
ACyclonic precipitation
BConvective precipitation
COrographic precipitation
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Precipitation caused by upward movement of warmer air compared with surrounding air:
ACyclonic
BConvective
COrographic
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Cold-frontal precipitation generally occurs over:
ASmall catchment with heavy precipitation
BSmall catchment with moderate precipitation
CLarge catchment with heavy precipitation
DLarge catchment with moderate precipitation
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Cold-frontal precipitation is formed because:
ACold fronts move faster than warm fronts
BCold air meets advancing warmer air
CBoth fronts cause cyclonic precipitation
DCold fronts occur only in winter
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Standard rain-gauge height:
A3 cm
B0 cm
C30 cm
D20 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Symon's rain gauge is:
ATipping-bucket gauge
BWeighing-type gauge
CFloat recording gauge
DNon-recording gauge
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Commonly used recording rain gauge:
AWeighing-bucket type
BTipping-bucket type
CFloat type
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Which recording rain gauge does not produce a mass curve directly?
ASymon's rain gauge
BTipping-bucket type
CNatural siphon type
DWeighing-bucket type
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A rainfall hyetograph shows:
ACumulative rainfall with time
BRainfall intensity with time
CRainfall depth over area
DRainfall intensity against cumulative rainfall
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Instrument used to measure evaporation:
AHygrometer
BEvaporimeter
CLysimeter
DLuxmeter
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Evaporation depends on:
ATemperature
BHumidity
CSalinity of water
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Chemical suitable for reducing evaporation from water surface:
AMethyl alcohol
Bethyl alcohol
CCetyl alcohol
DBetyl alcohol
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Rain simulators are used for determination of:
AEvaporation
BPrecipitation
CRunoff
DInfiltration capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Infiltration capacity depends upon:
ANumber of voids in soil
BShape and size of soil particles
CArrangement of soil particles
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Wind speed is measured with:
AWind vane
BHeliometer
CStevenson box
DAnemometer
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Mass curve of rainfall is a plot of:
ARainfall depth for various equal periods
BRainfall intensity versus time
CAccumulated rainfall intensity versus duration
DAccumulated precipitation versus time
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Double-mass curve technique is used to:
ACheck consistency of rain-gauge records
BFind average rainfall over years
CFind number of rain gauges
DEstimate missing rainfall
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Plot of cumulative discharge against time in chronological order is:
AFlow mass curve
BRating curve
CFlow-duration curve
DShields curve
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Total rainfall is 16 cm over 1200 km² during a 6-hour storm. Surface runoff is 1.2 × 10⁸ m³. Find runoff rate.
A0.1 cm/h
B0.1 cm
C0.1 h
DCannot estimate from given data
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Rain gauges outside a catchment can be considered in:
AArithmetic method
BThiessen polygon method
CIsohyetal method
DBoth b and c
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The less accurate method for estimating average rainfall over an area is:
AArithmetic method
BThiessen polygon method
CIsohyetal method
DMass curve
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Best method for average annual precipitation in a catchment basin:
AArithmetic method
BThiessen polygon method
CIsohyetal method
DNONE
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Thiessen polygon is:
APolygon obtained by joining adjacent rain-gauge stations
BRepresentative area for weighing observed precipitation
CArea used to construct DAD curve
DDescriptive term for hydrograph
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Lines joining points having equal rainfall depth for a given duration are:
AIsohyets
BIsogonic lines
CIsoclinic lines
DAgonic lines
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Most accurate method for average rainfall in a hilly catchment:
AIsohyetal method
BNormal-ratio method
CArithmetic mean
DThiessen polygon method
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Isohyets are imaginary lines joining points having equal:
APressure
BHeight
CHumidity
DRainfall
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Instrument used to measure velocity of river water:
AAnemometer
BCurrent meter
CPitot tube
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Surface runoff is the quantity of water:
AAdsorbed by soil
BIntercepted by vegetation
CThat reaches stream channels
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The indirect method for discharge measurement is:
AVelocity-area method
BDilution techniques
CSlope-area method
DUltra-sonic method
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If the stage-discharge relationship at a gauging section is constant with time, the control is called:
APermanent control
BTemporary control
CShifting control
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
To determine discharge from a stream rating curve, the required data are:
ASlope of water surface
BStage at the section
CCurrent-meter readings
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If a gauging section has shifting control due to backwater effects, then:
AA loop rating curve results
BThe section is useless for stream gauging
CDischarge is determined by area-velocity method
DA secondary gauge is installed downstream
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Backwater curve is caused if there is:
AFriction head loss greater than bed slope
BObstruction due to weir in the channel
CIncrease in channel width
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Water-surface elevation measured above a datum in a river is known as:
APondage level
BStage
CFlood level
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The curve obtained by plotting discharge versus stage is called:
AHydrograph
BShields curve
CRating curve
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Average mean velocity of a stream of depth h may be obtained by averaging current-meter readings at:
A0.2h and 0.8h
B0.2h and 03h
C0.2h and 0.5h
D0.4h and 0.8h
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A triangular channel has top width 2.0 m and depth 0.9 m; velocities at 0.18 m and 0.72 m below the surface are 0.6 m/s and 0.4 m/s respectively; find discharge.
A0.6cumecs
B0.45 cumecs
C0.95 cumecs
D1.45 cumecs
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A stream is 10 m deep and velocities at depths 2 m and 8 m are 0.7 m/s and 0.3 m/s; discharge per unit width is:
A5
B1
C2
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
As the duration of a unit hydrograph increases:
ATotal discharge increases
BBase period increases
CPeak ordinate increases
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The ordinate of a unit hydrograph is obtained by dividing the ordinate of DRH by:
ARunoff depth
BArea of catchment
CRunoff volume
DRunoff length
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A hydrograph representing one unit of runoff from a rainfall of specified duration and distribution is called:
AHyetograph
BFlood hydrograph
CUnit hydrograph
DS-hydrograph
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A unit hydrograph has one unit of:
ARainfall duration
BRainfall excess
CTime base of direct runoff
DDischarge
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A graph showing variation of discharge with time at a particular point of a stream is:
AMass inflow curve
BLogistic curve
CHydrograph
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The shape of the recession limb of a hydrograph depends on:
ABasin characteristics only
BStorm characteristics only
CBoth basin and storm characteristics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Variation in peak discharge in a hydrograph is acceptable up to:
A±10%
B60%
C±20%
D±50%
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Variation in the hydrograph base is acceptable up to:
A±10%
B±20%
C20%
D±40%
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Point of inflection in a hydrograph represents the condition of:
AMaximum storage
BMinimum storage
CDeficit
DSurplus
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The time required by rainfall to reach the outlet of a drainage basin is generally:
ATime of concentration
BTime of overall fall
CConcentration time of overall flow
DDuration of rainfall
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Time required for water to flow from the most remote point in a watershed outlet is called:
ATime of overland flow
BTime of travel
CTime of concentration
DRainfall duration
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When a watershed changes from rural to urban, the effect of urbanization on the storm-runoff hydrograph is to:
ADecrease runoff volume
BIncrease time to peak discharge
CDecrease the time base
DDecrease peak discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A mean annual runoff of 1 m³/s from a catchment of 31.54 km² represents an effective rainfall of:
A100 cm
B10 cm
C0 cm
D200 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A triangular direct-runoff hydrograph has a time base of 80 hours and peak flow of 50 m³/s; catchment area is 144 km²; rainfall excess is:
A5 cm
B5 m
C51 cm
D15 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If two 2-hour hydrographs are staggered by 2 hours and added graphically, the resulting hydrograph will be:
A2-hour unit hydrograph
B4-hour unit hydrograph
C2-hour unit hydrograph with 2 cm runoff
D4-hour unit hydrograph with 2 cm runoff
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
What happens to the probability of annual damage if the design flood is increased?
ADecreases
BIncreases
CRemains constant
DDepends on location
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In the WECS/DHM method, the formula used for flood forecasting for a return period of 2 years is:
A1.8767(A₃₀₀₀ + 1)⁰.7342
B12.8767(A₃₀₀₀ + 1)⁰.7342
C21.8767(A₃₀₀₀ + 1)⁰.7342
D1.8767(A₃₀₀₀ + 1)⁰.8783
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For estimating high floods in fan-shaped catchments, the formula used is:
ADicken's formula
BRyve's formula
CInglis formula
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Rational formula is applicable only to:
ALarge catchments greater than 100 km²
BSmall catchments having area less than 50 km²
CMedium catchments between 50–100 km²
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For annual flood series arranged in descending order, the return period for the magnitude listed at position m in N entries by Weibull formula is:
A(N + 1)/m
B(N + 1)
C(N + 2)/m
DN
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The probability that a 100-year flood may not occur during 50 years is:
A05
B0.05
C0.605
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A saturated earth formation that stores water and yields it in sufficient quantity is called:
AAquifer
BAquitard
CAquiclude
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A geological formation that is essentially impermeable to the flow of water is called:
AAquitard
BAquiclude
CAquifer
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The volume of water that can be extracted by gravity from a unit volume of aquifer material is called:
ASpecific retention
BSpecific yield
CSpecific storage
DSpecific capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The quantity of water retained by soil against gravity is known as:
AYield
BPorosity
CSpecific yield
DSpecific retention
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
An ephemeral stream:
ACarries some flow
BDoes not have any base-flow contribution
CCarries significant groundwater flow in wet season
DCarries only snowmelt water
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Groundwater table is observed by:
AVane shear test
BObservation well
CPenetration test
DSieve analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A substance which deforms continuously under shear stress is called:
AFluid
BLiquid
CSolid
DGas
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When an external force is applied to a solid, it undergoes:
AZero deformation
BFinite deformation
CContinuous deformation
DPlastic deformation
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A fluid of volume 200 m³ weighs 1060 N. If acceleration due to gravity is 6.625 m/s², find its mass density.
A0.8 kg/m³
B0.4 kg/m³
C0.2 kg/m³
D0.7 kg/m³
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If shear stress is 0.03 N/m² and velocity gradient is 0.15 s^-1, find the viscosity.
A2 N·s/m²
B0.2 N·s/m²
C0.8 N·s/m²
D9 N·s/m²
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A fluid will undergo ______ under the action of shearing stress.
Azero deformation
Bfinite deformation
Ccontinuous deformation
Dcan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
On increasing the temperature, the density of water ______.
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cincreases up to 4°C then decreases
Ddecrease up to 4°C then increases
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
On increasing the pressure, the density of the fluid ______.
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cremains the same
Dmay increase or decrease
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The density of fluid at Earth's equator is ______ than at the pole.
Agreater
Blesser
Cequal
Dcan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The specific gravity of water at 20°C and 1 atmospheric pressure is ______.
A0.998
B1
C2
D0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If the volume of a liquid weighing 3000 kg is 4 cubic meters, then 0.75 is its ______.
Aspecific weight
Bspecific mass
Cspecific gravity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The maximum density of water occurs at ______ Celsius.
A4 degree Celsius (4°C)
B100 degree
C10 degree
D8 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The cohesion of the liquid molecules ______ with the rise in temperature.
Aincreases
Bdecreases
Cconstant
Dalways zero
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hooke's law for solid is analogous to ______.
ANewton's law of viscosity
BPascal's law
CBoundary layer theory
DContinuity equation
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Viscosity is defined as ______.
Aresistance to flow of an object
Bresistance to flow of air
Cresistance to flow of fluid
Dresistance to flow of heat
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The SI unit of viscosity is ______.
Apoise
Bcentipoise
CN s/m²
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
What is the SI unit of kinematic viscosity?
Am²/s
Bs/m²
Cm³/s
Dunit less
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Stoke is the unit of ______.
Asurface tension
Bviscosity
Ckinematic viscosity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
With increase in temperature, viscosity ______.
Aincrease
Bdecreases
Cremains same
Dcannot be said
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Viscosity of gases is mainly due to:
ACohesion
BMolecular collision
CRise in temperature
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Viscosity of gases varies with temperature:
ADirectly
BInversely
CConstantly
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Kinematic viscosity of air is approximately how many times that of water at 20°C?
AEqual
B5 times
C15 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A fluid has kinematic viscosity 0.1 stokes. Its value in m²/s is:
A10⁻³
B10⁻⁴
C10
D10⁻⁵
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Question 381 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Center of pressure lies ______ the center of gravity for a vertical surface
ASame horizontal axis
BSame point
CAbove
DBelow
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For stable equilibrium of a completely submerged body:
ABuoyancy = weight, CB below CG
BBuoyancy = weight, CB above CG
CBuoyancy < weight
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Buoyant force is:
AResultant force on floating body
BResultant force on a body due to surrounding fluid
CEqual to displaced volume
DForce needed for equilibrium
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Buoyant force always acts:
AVertically upward
BVertically downward
CHorizontally
Dnone
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Principle of flotation is based on:
AMetacentre
BNewton's first law
CNewton's law of viscosity
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Metacentre is:
APoint where line of buoyancy meets normal axis after angular displacement
BIntersection of lines through CG and CB
CPoint of oscillation
DAll of these
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If a disturbed body settles at a new position without returning to the original position, it is:
AStable equilibrium
BUnstable equilibrium
CNeutral equilibrium
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a completely/partially immersed body to be stable, its weight should be distributed:
AAround lower part
BAround upper part
CIndependent of distribution
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Relation between centroid G and center of pressure P:
AG always below P
BP always below G
CG is at or below P
DP is at or below G
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A wooden block has length > breadth > height. For stable floating:
ALength partially immersed vertically
BBreadth partially immersed horizontally
CHeight partially immersed
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a floating body at equilibrium, weight is:
AEqual to buoyant force
BGreater
CLesser
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Cylinder diameter = 4.5 m, height = 2.5 m, SG = 0.45. Find metacentric height.
A1.9 m
B9 m
C19 m
D5.7 m
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A floating body is stable when metacentre is:
AAt centroid
BAbove centroid
CBelow centroid
DAnywhere
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Positive metacentric height indicates:
AStable equilibrium
BUnstable equilibrium
CNeutral equilibrium
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A floating body displaces liquid whose ______ equals the body's weight.
AWeight
BVolume
CSubmerged weight
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Ice density = 900 kg/m³ and water density = 1000 kg/m³. Fraction of ice volume submerged:
A0.3
B0.9
C0.2
D0.7
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A flow in which fluid properties and velocity change with time at a fixed location is:
ASteady flow
BUniform flow
CNon-uniform flow
DNon-steady flow
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If velocity, pressure and density change with time at a point, flow is:
AUniform
BCompressible
CUnsteady
DIncompressible
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If velocity, pressure and density do not change with time at a point, flow is:
AUniform
BIncompressible
CNon-uniform
DSteady
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If velocity changes along the direction of flow, it is:
AUnsteady flow
BCompressible flow
CRotational flow
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If particle velocity varies from point to point and from instant to instant, the flow is:
ALaminar
BTurbulent
CUniform
DNon-uniform
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Uniform flow occurs when:
ACross-section size and shape remain constant along length
BCross-section changes along length
CFriction loss is greater than elevation dro
DFriction loss is less than elevation drop
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Laminar flow occurs when particles:
AMove randomly
BHave Reynolds number > 4000
CMove in layers parallel to the boundary
DMove randomly in all directions
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For incompressible flow, Mach number should generally be less than:
A0.3
B0.2
C0.4
D0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Water flows through a frustum at constant rate. The flow is:
AUniform steady
BNon-uniform steady
CUniform non-steady
DNon-uniform non-steady
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
An imaginary line tangent to velocity direction is called:
APath line
BStreamline
CPotential line
DStreak line
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A tangent drawn at a point on a fluid path gives:
APath line
BStreamline
CStreak line
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Locus of different fluid particles passing through a fixed point is:
AStreamline
BPath line
CStreak line
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Flow in which paths of individual fluid particles cross is:
AUniform flow
BTurbulent flow
CStreamline flow
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Path line is based on:
AEuler approach
BLagrangian approach
C1-D flow
D3-D flow
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Continuity equation represents conservation of:
AMass
BMomentum
CEnergy
DForce
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Bernoulli equation is derived from:
AKepler
BLaplace
CEuler
DPoisson
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Venturimeter is used to measure:
ARate of flow
BVelocity only
CDepth of flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In a venturimeter, divergent cone is:
AShorter than convergent cone
BEqual to convergent cone
CLonger than convergent cone
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Orientation of venturimeter during discharge measurement:
AMay increase
BMay decrease
CMay increase or decrease
DNo change
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Minimum head loss occurs in:
AOrifice meter
BVenturimeter
CNozzle meter
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Mouthpiece is used to measure:
AVelocity
BPressure
CHead
DRate of flow
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If a Pitot tube faces downstream, liquid:
ADoes not rise
BRises to V²/2g
CFalls to V²/2g
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If a Pitot tube faces sideways:
ARises
BFalls
CNeither rises nor falls
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
When a water jet strikes a stationary vertical plate, the jet moves:
AOpposite the plate
BAlong the plate
CNormal to the plate
DDepending on material
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Momentum principle is not applicable to:
AForce on plate
BForce on bend
CForce on moving plate
DVenturimeter
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Jet velocity V strikes a plate moving with velocity u. Force is:
AρA(V-u)²
BρA(V-u)
CρA(V-u)3
DρA(V-u)4
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Force of water jet on stationary vertical plate:
AρAV²
BρAV
CρA
DAV²
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
At vena-contracta, jet area is minimum, so velocity is:
AMinimum
BMaximum
CAverage
DCritical
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The minimum-area section of an orifice jet is called:
AOrifice meter
BVenturimeter
CMouthpiece
DVena-contracta
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Relation among hydraulic coefficients:
ACd = Cc × Cv
BCc = 1 + Cv
CCd = Cv + Cc
DCc = Cv/Cd
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Vena-contracta lies approximately:
AHalf the diameter of orifice from it
BTwice the diameter
CThree times diameter
DOne diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Orifice used for low discharge:
ARectangular
BCircular
CSquare
DTriangular
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Large orifice criterion:
ALess than 5
BLess than 2
CLess than 4
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Discharge through a small orifice:
ACd a√(2gH)
B(2/3)Cd a√(2gH)
Ca√(2gH)
DLarge-orifice expression
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
An orifice is called large when water head is approximately:
A2 times pipe diameter
B3 times
C2 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Velocity of approach is:
ADischarge / area of notch
BDischarge / area of channel
CDischarge / head × width
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If crest height is S, head is H, channel width is L and discharge is Q, velocity of approach:
A√(Hg)
BQ/[L(H-S)]
CQ/[L(H+S)]
DL(H+S)/Q
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Upper surface of a notch over which water flows is called:
AVein
BNappe
CSill
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
V-notch gives maximum discharge when angle is:
A20°
B50°
C70°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Discharge through a V-notch varies as:
AH
B√H
CH³/²
DH⁵/²
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head = 75 cm and measurement error = 0.15. Percentage error in discharge:
A20%
B50%
C70%
D7%
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A weir whose crest is below downstream water level is:
ASubmerged weir
BCipolletti weir
CTriangular weir
DSharp-crested weir
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Maximum discharge over a broad-crested weir occurs when middle water depth is:
AEqual to water height above weir
B1.5 times water height
CHalf the water height
D2.5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A weir is broad-crested when crest width is:
A> H
B> 3H/2
C> H/2
D> 3H/4
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Sharp-crested weir thickness is kept less than:
AOne-third of water height
BOne-half of water height
CTwo-thirds
DThree-fourths
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
A 1% error in measuring H produces what error in rectangular-notch discharge?
A1%
B1.5%
C15%
D2.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Side slope H:V of triangular portion should be:
A1:1
B1:2
C1:3
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
According to Francis formula, end contraction on each side is:
A0.1H
B0.2H
C0.3H
D0.4H
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Discharge for depressed nappe is approximately:
A6–7% greater
B20–30% greater
C2–3% greater
D5–6% greater
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Excess discharge with a clinging nappe is:
A25–30%
B25–40%
C15–30%
D25–38%
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Flow in a pipe is laminar when Reynolds number is:
A< 2000
B< 200
C< 20
D< 2
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Find diameter of pipe carrying 35 m³/s at velocity 1.4 m/s.
A5 m
B5.64 m
C3 m
D7.64 m
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Friction factor for laminar pipe flow:
A64/Re
B4/Re
C6/Re
D63/Re
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Frictional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with:
APressure
BVelocity
CSquare of velocity
DCube of velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Friction factor when flow becomes fully turbulent:
AReaches maximum
BReaches minimum value
CBecomes zero
DBecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Basic head loss in a long pipe is due to:
AFriction
BFittings
CSudden increase in diameter
DSudden decrease in diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For a long pipe, head losses:
AEntrance ignored
BOutlet ignored
CEntrance and outlet both ignored
DFriction ignored
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Formula h = fLQ²/(12.1D⁵) is associated with:
ADarcy-Weisbach
BHazen-Williams
CChezy
DManning's
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss equation for the parallel pipe arrangement:
A4fLV²/(2gD)
B4fV/(gD)
CfV²/(2gD)
D3fLV/(2gD)
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Darcy-Weisbach head-loss formula:
AfLV²/gD
BfLV²/(2gD)
C4fLV²/(2gD)
D16fLV²/(2gD)
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss in a pipe increases with:
AIncrease in velocity
BDecrease in velocity
CDecrease in pipe length
DIncrease in pipe length
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Flow between laminar and turbulent regions is called:
ALaminar flow
BCritical flow
CTurbulent flow
DTransition flow
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Minor head losses are caused by:
ABends
BEntrance and exit
CSudden expansion/contraction
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Exit loss for a submerged pipe discharging into a reservoir:
AV²/(2g)
BV²/(e4g)
CV²/(7g)
DV²/(9g)
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss at entrance is ______ that at exit.
AEqual
BHalf
CTwice
DFour times
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss at a 90° pipe elbow:
A9V²/(2g)
B0.2V²/(2g)
C0.9V²/(2g)
D0.7V²/(2g)
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Minor head loss due to a sharp 90° bend is approximately:
A0.5 velocity head
B1.2 velocity heads
C1.5 velocity heads
D2.2 velocity heads
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss due to sudden enlargement:
A(V1-V2)²/(2g)
B(V1-V2)²/(g)
C(V1-V2)²/(8g)
D(V1-V2)²/(7g)
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss due to sudden contraction:
AKV²/(g)
BV²/(2g)
CKV²/(2g)
DK/(2g)
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Minor loss due to sudden contraction is mainly due to:
AFlow contraction
BBoundary friction
CExpansion of flow after contraction
DFlow construction
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Line joining points to which liquid rises in piezometer tubes is:
AHydraulic gradient
BPiezometric line
CPressure grade line
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Hydraulic grade line is:
AAlways above pipe centerline
BNever above energy grade line
CAlways slopes downward
DAll
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Difference between total hydraulic gradient line and total energy line represents:
AKinetic head
BPressure head
CDatum head
DLoss of head
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Total Energy Line represents:
APressure head + kinetic head
BKinetic head only
CPressure head + datum head
DPressure head + kinetic head + datum head
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Difference between energy line and hydraulic grade line represents:
APiezometric head
BPressure head
CElevation head
DVelocity head
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Difference between EGL and HGL is:
APressure head
BPotential energy
CVelocity head
DEnergy slope
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For uniform flow in an open channel:
ATEL, HGL and channel bottom are parallel
BTEL and water surface horizontal
CTEL, water surface and bottom are parallel
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Head loss is minimum in:
ABroad-crested weir
BNarrow-crested weir
COgee-shaped weir
DSharp-crested weir
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Pick out the correct statement about energy gradient and hydraulic grade line.
AEnergy gradient represents total head at different sections of a pipeline
BVertical distance between energy line and hydraulic grade line equals velocity head
CVertical distance between energy line and energy gradient represents head loss
DALL
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The pressure in a pipe flow is normally:
ALess than atmospheric pressure
BEqual to atmospheric pressure
CMore than atmospheric pressure
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
The discharge through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water is:
A0.81 times the diameter of section
B0.1 times the diameter of section
C0.7 times the diameter of section
D1.81 times the diameter of section
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
For laminar flow through a circular pipe, the maximum velocity is:
A1.5 times the average velocity
B2 times the average velocity
C1.75 times the average velocity
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In pipe flow, the point where local velocity is equal to mean velocity is:
Ar = 7R
Br =4R
Cr = 0.9R
Dr = 0.7R
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In which of the following cases is it possible for flow to occur from low pressure to high pressure?
AFlow through a converging section
BAdiabatic flow in a horizontal pipe
CFlow of air downward in a pipe
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
In which of the following cases is it possible for flow to occur from low pressure to high pressure?
AFlow of liquid upward in a vertical pipe
BFlow through a converging section
CFlow of air downward in a pipe
DImpossible in a constant cross-section conduit
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If the pipe network is connected in parallel, then:
ADischarge in each pipe is same
BHead loss in each pipe is same
CDischarge will be constant and pressure will be high
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If three pipes are connected in series, then:
AHead loss is same for all
BDischarge is same for all
CFriction factor is same for all
DVelocity is same for all
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
If three pipes of different diameters, lengths and friction factors are connected in parallel, then:
AQ = Q₁ + Q₂ + Q₃
BV₁ = V₂ = V₃
CQ₁ = Q₂ = Q₃
Df = f₁ + f₂ + f₃
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 2077Ch 3 · Basic Water Resources Engineering
Two pipes of equal length L, diameter D and friction factor f are connected in parallel between two points. If a single pipe of diameter D and the same friction factor f is used, its length should be:
A4L
B2L
C1L
D5L
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
The internal force that tends to bend or curve a beam at a section is called the:
AAxial force
BShear force
CBending moment
DTorque
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
The rate of change of shear force with respect to distance along a beam equals:
AThe bending moment
BThe negative of the distributed load intensity, -w(x)
CThe axial force
DZero, always
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
The bending moment in a beam is maximum (or minimum) at a section where:
AThe shear force is maximum
BThe shear force is zero or changes sign
CThe axial force is zero
DThe deflection is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
An applied concentrated moment (couple) at a point along a beam produces:
AA sudden jump in the shear force diagram
BA sudden jump (discontinuity) in the bending moment diagram, with no effect on the shear force diagram
CNo effect on either diagram
DA parabolic shear force diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
For a cantilever beam carrying a point load at its free end, the bending moment diagram is:
AConstant along the span
BParabolic, maximum at the free end
CLinear, zero at the free end and maximum (hogging) at the fixed support
DZero everywhere
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
For a simply supported beam under a uniformly distributed load, the bending moment diagram is:
ALinear
BParabolic, with maximum sagging moment at mid-span where SF = 0
CConstant
DTriangular with a discontinuity at mid-span
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
A point of contraflexure in a beam's bending moment diagram is a location where:
AThe shear force is maximum
BThe bending moment changes sign (BM = 0), indicating a reversal of curvature
CThe axial force is maximum
DThe applied load is a couple
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
The principle of superposition for internal forces in a linear elastic beam states that:
AOnly the largest single load needs to be considered
BThe combined effect of several loads equals the algebraic sum of the effects of each load acting separately
CLoads cannot be combined mathematically
DSuperposition applies only to axial forces
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
The change in bending moment between two sections of a beam equals:
AThe change in axial force between those sections
BThe area under the shear force diagram between those sections
CThe area under the load diagram between those sections
DZero, always
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 2077Ch 4 · Shear Forces and Bending Moments
A uniformly varying load (UVL), such as a triangular load distribution, is characterized by:
AConstant intensity along its length
BIntensity varying linearly from zero (or some value) to a maximum over its length
CActing only at a single point
DProducing no shear force
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
Principal planes at a point in a stressed body are defined as the planes on which:
AShear stress is maximum and normal stress is zero
BShear stress is zero and normal stress is maximum or minimum
CBoth normal and shear stress are maximum
DBoth normal and shear stress are zero
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
The maximum shear stress at a point, in terms of the principal stresses σ1 and σ2, is given by:
Aτmax = σ1 + σ2
Bτmax = (σ1 - σ2)/2
Cτmax = σ1 × σ2
Dτmax = σ1/σ2
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
Mohr's circle is a graphical technique used to determine:
AOnly the modulus of elasticity
BPrincipal stresses, maximum shear stress, and stresses on any inclined plane at a point
COnly the yield strength of a material
DOnly the torsional rigidity of a shaft
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
On the stress-strain curve of a ductile material such as mild steel, the yield point represents:
AThe point of fracture
BThe stress at which the material begins to deform plastically with little or no increase in stress
CThe maximum stress the material can sustain (ultimate strength)
DThe point where Hooke's law is most accurate
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
A key distinguishing feature of brittle material behaviour (e.g. cast iron, concrete) compared to ductile behaviour is:
AA pronounced yield plateau before fracture
BLarge plastic deformation before fracture
CFracture occurring with little or no plastic deformation and no distinct yield point
DIdentical stress-strain response to ductile materials
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
The torsion formula for a circular shaft, relating torque T, polar moment of inertia J, shear stress τ, and radius r, is:
AT/J = τ/r = Gθ/L
BT = τ + r
CT/J = r/τ
DT = GθL only
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
In a circular shaft subjected to torsion, the shear stress distribution across the cross-section is:
AUniform (constant) across the entire section
BZero at the outer surface and maximum at the centre
CZero at the centre and increasing linearly to a maximum at the outer surface
DIndependent of the applied torque
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
A hollow circular shaft is generally more efficient in resisting torsion than a solid shaft of the same cross-sectional area because: area constant by increasing outer radius) increases efficiency
AHollow shafts have lower polar moment of inertia
BMaterial near the centre of a solid shaft contributes little to torsional resistance, so removing it (while keeping
CHollow shafts cannot twist at all
DTorsion formula does not apply to hollow shafts
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
The proportional limit on a stress-strain curve corresponds to:
AThe stress beyond which the material fractures immediately
BThe stress up to which stress is directly proportional to strain, i.e. Hooke's law applies
CThe maximum stress a material can withstand
DThe stress at which necking begins
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 2077Ch 4 · Stress and Strain Analysis
The ultimate tensile strength of a ductile material, on its stress-strain curve, corresponds to:
AThe proportional limit
BThe yield point
CThe maximum stress reached, corresponding to the onset of necking
DThe fracture point, which occurs at the same stress
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
Pure (co-planar) bending of a beam segment is characterized by:
AConstant shear force and varying bending moment
BConstant bending moment and zero shear force over the segment
CZero bending moment throughout
DOnly axial force acting on the segment
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
The flexure formula relating bending moment M, second moment of area I, bending stress σ, and distance y from the neutral axis is:
AM/I = σ/y = E/R
BM = σ + y
CM/I = y/σ
DM = EI only, independent of σ and y
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
In elastic bending of a beam, the bending stress distribution across the depth of the section is:
AUniform (constant) across the entire depth
BZero at the extreme fibres and maximum at the neutral axis
CZero at the neutral axis and varying linearly to a maximum at the extreme fibres
DIndependent of the applied bending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
The curvature (1/R) of a beam's elastic curve at a section is related to the bending moment M by:
A1/R = M/(EI)
B1/R = EI/M
C1/R = M × EI
D1/R is independent of M
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
Macaulay's method is primarily used to: discontinuous loading
ACalculate axial stresses only
BDetermine beam slope and deflection conveniently using a single expression, even for beams with
CDetermine torsional shear stress in shafts
DCalculate principal stresses at a point
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
A long (slender) column under axial compressive load typically fails by:
ADirect material crushing at yield stress
BBuckling (sudden lateral instability) at a stress below the material's crushing strength
CTorsional failure only
DPure shear failure
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
Euler's critical buckling load for a long column is given by:
APcr = π²EI/Le²
BPcr = EI/Le
CPcr = σA only
DPcr = πEA/Le
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
For a column with both ends fixed, the effective length Le in terms of the actual length L is:
ALe = L
BLe = 2L
CLe = L/2
DLe = 0.7L
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
For a column with one end fixed and the other end free, the effective length Le is:
ALe = L
BLe = 2L
CLe = L/2
DLe = 0.7L
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 2077Ch 4 · Theory of Flexure and Columns
The slenderness ratio of a column is defined as:
Aλ = Le × r
Bλ = Le/r, where r is the radius of gyration
Cλ = A/I
Dλ = E/σ
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
The degree of static determinacy of a plane truss is given by the formula:
ADs = m + r - 2j
BDs = 3m + r - 3j
CDs = m - r + j
DDs = 2m + r - j
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
If the degree of static determinacy Ds of a structure is negative, the structure is:
AStatically determinate
BStatically indeterminate
CAn unstable mechanism (insufficient members/supports)
DAlways a stable truss
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
Castigliano's theorem states that the displacement at a load's point of application, in its direction, equals:
AThe total strain energy U directly
BThe partial derivative of the total strain energy with respect to that load, ∂U/∂P
CThe bending moment at that point
DThe product of load and length
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
In the virtual (unit load) method for computing beam deflection, the deflection at a point is given by: at that point
Aδ = ∫(mM/EI)dx, where M is the real bending moment and m is the bending moment due to a virtual unit load
Bδ = M/EI directly, with no integration
Cδ = ∫M dx only
Dδ = m/M
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
For a bending member, the strain energy U stored due to bending is expressed as:
AU = ∫M²dx/(2EI)
BU = M × L
CU = ∫M dx
DU = EI/M
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
The virtual unit load in the unit load method is applied:
AAt a random location unrelated to the desired displacement
BAt the point and in the direction of the desired displacement or rotation
COnly at the structure's supports
DOnly as a distributed load
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
For a plane frame, the degree of static determinacy formula 3m + r - 3j - c includes the term c, which accounts for:
AThe number of members only
BAdditional condition equations introduced by internal hinges or rollers
CThe total applied load
DThe material's modulus of elasticity
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
The unit load method is applied to portal frame deflection analysis by: results
AIgnoring all members except the columns
BIntegrating the product of real and virtual moment diagrams (mM/EI) over each member and summing the
CUsing only Euler's buckling formula
DApplying Pascal's law to each joint
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
Energy methods (such as Castigliano's theorem) are particularly useful for analysing structures because they: using scalar energy quantities
ARequire no knowledge of material properties
BProvide a systematic way to compute deflections and forces in both determinate and indeterminate structures
CApply only to statically determinate trusses
DEliminate the need for equilibrium equations entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-1
A statically determinate structure, by definition, can have its support reactions and internal forces determined using:
AOnly material stress-strain relationships
BThe equations of static equilibrium alone, without needing compatibility/deformation conditions
COnly energy methods
DOnly the moment distribution method
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
An influence line diagram (ILD) for the bending moment at a section shows:
AThe bending moment along the entire structure for one fixed load position
BThe value of the bending moment at that fixed section as a unit load moves across the structure
COnly the maximum shear force in the structure
DThe deflection of the structure under a fixed load
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
For a simply supported beam, the influence line for a support reaction is:
AParabolic
BA straight line, equal to 1 at that support and 0 at the other support
CTriangular with peak at mid-span
DConstant along the entire span
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
For a simply supported beam, the influence line for bending moment at a section is:
AA straight horizontal line
BTriangular, with maximum ordinate ab/L at the section (a, b = distances to the two supports)
CBilinear with a jump of 1 at the section
DParabolic with zero ordinate at the section
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
To find the maximum response due to a moving uniformly distributed load using an influence line, the load should be positioned: length
AOnly at the peak ordinate as a point load
BOver the portion(s) of the ILD having the same sign, to maximize the net area under the ILD over the loaded
COver the entire structure regardless of ILD sign
DAt the support only
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
A two-hinged arch, with hinges only at its two supports and a continuous rib, is statically:
ADeterminate
BIndeterminate to the first degree
CIndeterminate to the second degree
DAn unstable mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
The redundant force in the analysis of a two-hinged arch is typically taken as:
AThe vertical reaction at one support
BThe horizontal thrust H at the supports
CThe bending moment at the crown
DThe applied load itself
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
For a two-hinged parabolic arch of span L and rise h under a uniformly distributed load w over the full span, the horizontal thrust H equals:
AH = wL/8h
BH = wL²/(8h)
CH = wLh/8
DH = w/(8Lh)
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
The bending moment at any section of a two-hinged arch, once the horizontal thrust H is known, is computed as: section
AThe simple-beam bending moment at that section only, ignoring H
BThe simple-beam bending moment at that section minus H times the arch rise above the springing line at that
CH multiplied by the span length only
DZero at every section
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
The shear force influence line at a section of a simply supported beam is characterized by:
AA smooth continuous curve with no discontinuity
BA bilinear shape with a jump (discontinuity) of magnitude 1 as the unit load crosses the section
CA single constant value across the whole span
DBeing identical to the bending moment ILD
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 2077Ch 4 · Determinate Structures-2
Compared to a three-hinged arch, a two-hinged arch's analysis requires additionally applying:
AOnly the three equations of static equilibrium
BA compatibility (energy) condition, since equilibrium alone is insufficient due to static indeterminacy
CNo analysis at all, since it behaves identically to a beam
DOnly the flexure formula
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
The flexibility (force) method for analysing indeterminate structures proceeds by: solve for the redundants
AIgnoring compatibility conditions entirely
BRemoving redundant forces to form a determinate primary structure, then applying compatibility equations to
CDirectly assembling a global stiffness matrix
DApplying only equilibrium equations, with no additional conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
In the slope-deflection method, member end moments are expressed in terms of:
AOnly the applied loads, with no reference to joint rotations
BJoint rotations, chord rotation (due to sidesway), and fixed-end moments
COnly the cross-sectional area of the member
DOnly the support reactions
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
In the moment distribution (Hardy Cross) method, the distribution factor at a joint for a given member is defined as:
AThe member's length divided by total length
BThe member's relative stiffness divided by the sum of stiffnesses of all members meeting at that joint
CA fixed value of 1/2 for every member
DThe applied load on that member
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
In the moment distribution method, the carry-over factor from the near end to a far end that is fixed is:
A0
B1/2
C1
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
The stiffness (matrix displacement) method solves an indeterminate structure by: displacements, then recovering member forces
AAssembling a global stiffness matrix relating joint displacements to applied loads, solving for the
BUsing only graphical Mohr's circle constructions
CIgnoring joint displacements entirely
DApplying the flexure formula directly to every joint
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
The Müller-Breslau principle is used to construct influence lines for indeterminate (continuous) beams by: restraint and applying a unit displacement/rotation there
ADirectly measuring strains in a physical model only
BRecognizing that the ILD shape matches the deflected shape obtained by releasing the corresponding
CIgnoring the structure's indeterminacy entirely
DUsing only the flexibility method with no releases
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
A plastic hinge forms at a section of a beam once:
AThe bending moment reaches the section's elastic yield moment only
BThe bending moment reaches the section's full plastic moment capacity, Mp = σyZ
CThe shear force reaches its maximum value
DThe axial force becomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
The shape factor of a cross-section, S = Zp/Ze, represents:
AThe ratio of member length to depth
BThe reserve strength beyond first yield due to plastic stress redistribution across the section
CThe modulus of elasticity of the material
DThe degree of static indeterminacy
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
Elementary plastic collapse (mechanism) analysis determines the ultimate load of a structure by: hinges forming a mechanism
AUsing only elastic stress-strain relationships
BApplying virtual work, equating external work done by the collapse load to internal work absorbed by plastic
CIgnoring the formation of plastic hinges
DUsing only the moment distribution method
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 2077Ch 4 · Indeterminate Structures
Compared to the flexibility method, the slope-deflection and moment distribution methods are classified as:
AForce (flexibility-based) methods
BDisplacement (stiffness-based) methods, since the primary unknowns are joint displacements/rotations
CGraphical methods only
DMethods applicable only to determinate structures
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How do points and UDL be represented in SFD?
Asimple lines and curved lines
Bcurved lines and inclined lines
Csimple lines and inclined lines
Dboth curved lines
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When shear force diagram is parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is ________.
Apoint loads at two points
Bno loading at two points
CUDL between points
DUVL between points
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with UDL throughout?
Aw × l
Bw
Cw/l
Dw+l
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In purely bending, stress distribution in the beam is ________.
Alinear
Bparabolic
Celliptical
Dconstant
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Where is the absolute maximum shear force in simply supported beam with UDL?
ANear support
BCenter of beam
CAt 1/4 span from support
DAt 1/3 span from support
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If point load w(x) = sin(x/L) is acted on a beam, then shear force diagram is?
Alinear
Bparabolic curve
Csine curve
Dcosine curve
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The rate of change of shear force is called ________.
Abending moment
Bpoint load
Cintensity of load
Dslope
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Daverage of maximum-minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If shear force is constant throughout the section, then BM is ________.
Aconstant
Blinear
Cparabolic
Dcubic
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When the bending moment is constant over the beam the Shear Force will be?
AMaximum at support
BZero over the entire span
CMinimum at the mid-point
DMaximum over the entire span
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation between Shear force and Bending moment is ________.
AS = dM/dx
BM = dS/dx
CdM/dS = x
DdS/dM = x
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the shear force diagram of a simply supported beam is parabolic, then the load on the beam is ________.
Auniformly distributed load
Bconcentrated load at mid span
Cexternal moment acting at mid span
Dlinearly varying distributed load
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In simple bending, ________ is constant.
Ashear force
Bloading
Cdeformation
Dbending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam of uniform strength has constant ________.
Ashear force
Bbending moment
Ccross-sectional area
Ddeflection
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment is ________ at a hinged support.
Aalways maximum
Balways zero
Calways minimum
Deither minimum or max
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum B.M. of a cantilever beam lies at ________.
Athe free end
Bthe fixed end
Cmiddle of its length
D1/4 from fixed end
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Two people weighing W each are sitting on plank of length L floating on water at L/4 from either end. Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending moment at the centre of the plank is ________.
AWL/8
BWL/16
CWL/32
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The concavity produced on the beam section about the centre line when downward force acts on it is called as ________.
Ahogging or positive bending moment
Bhogging or negative bending moment
Csagging or positive bending moment
Dsagging or negative bending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At the point of contra flexure, the bending moment is ________.
Aequal to zero
Bchanges sign
Cmaximum
Dminimum
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The point of contraflexure is the point where ________.
Abending moment is maximum
Bbending moment is minimum
Cshear force is zero
Dbending moment changes sign
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment in a beam is not a function of ________.
Aposition of the load
Btype of beam
Ccross section of the beam
Dspan of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The bending moment in a beam does not depend upon its ________.
Aload intensity
Bspan
Ctype of support
Dmoment of inertia
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Abrupt change in BMD if ________ is applied.
Acouple
Bimpact load
Cshear force
Daxial force
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a B.M. diagram vertical line at a section indicates, ________.
Aconcentrated load
Bmoment
Cuniformly distributed load
Duniformly varying load
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope of the curve of B.M. diagram gives ________.
AS.F. at the section
BB.M. at the section
CUDL at the section
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The B.M. diagram for a cantilever beam carrying uniformly distributed load is ________.
Aa triangle
Ba parabola
Ca cubic parabola
Da rectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The B.M. at the fixed end of a cantilever beam subjected to UDL throughout span is ________.
Awl
Bwl²/2
Cwl²/4
Dwl²/8
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A fixed beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its entire span. The points of contra-flexure will occur on either side of the centre at a distance of ________ from the centre.
AL/√3
BL/3
CL/(2√3)
D4L/√3
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape of bending moment for a simple supported beam with point load at the mid-span is ________.
Arectangle
Btriangle
Cparabolic
Dhyperbolic
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a beam is subjected to simple bending, ________ is the same in both tension and compression for the material.
Amodulus of rigidity
Bmodulus of elasticity
CPoisson's ratio
Dmodulus of section
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a beam is subjected to pure bending, then the deformation of the beam is ________.
Aarc of circle
Btriangular
Ctrapezoidal
Drectangular
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress distribution over a rectangular cross-section of a beam follows ________.
Aa straight line path
Ba circular path
Ca parabolic path
Dan elliptical path
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress intensity is minimum at ________.
Aaxis of shaft
Bsurface of the shaft
Cany inside layer of the shaft
Dall the above are correct
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area is called ________.
Ashear stress
Bnormal stress
Cthermal stress
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then the normal stress on an oblique section of a body inclined at angle (θ) to the normal of the section is equal to ________.
Aσ sin θ
Bσ cos θ
Cσ sin² θ
Dσ cos² θ
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then maximum normal stress occurs at a section inclined at ________ to the normal section.
A0°
B30°
C45°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure p is ________.
Apd/2t
Bpd/4t
Cpd/6t
Dpd/8t
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to a transverse shear load, is ________.
Avariable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
Bvariable with maximum at the top of the beam
Cuniform
Dvariable with maximum on the neutral axis
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a rectangular section the ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress is ________.
A2
B1.5
C1.25
D1.75
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a circular section the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is ________.
A1.13
B1.23
C1.33
D1.43
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear centre of a section is defined as that point ________.
Athrough which the load must be applied to produce zero twisting moment on the section
Bat which shear force is zero
Cat which shear force is maximum
Dat which the shear force is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For RCC structure, the shape of shear stress diagram is ________.
Arectangular
Bparabolic
Cparabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
Drectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an axial load is equal to ________.
Amaximum normal stress
Bhalf of maximum normal stress
Ctwice the maximum normal stress
Dthrice the maximum normal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On principal plane, the value of shear stress is ________.
A(σx + σy)/2
Bzero
Cmaximum
D(σx − σy)/2
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The angle between major principal plane and minor principal plane will be always ________.
Agreater than 90°
Bless than 90°
Cequal to 90°
Dequal to 180°
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The plane of maximum shear stress has normal stress that is ________.
Amaximum
Bminimum
Czero
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On the Principal plane, shear stress is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Principal stress on the plane of maximum shear stress is ________.
Amaximum
Bzero
Cminimum
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The magnitude of direct stress, across a principal plane is known as ________.
Abending stress
Bprincipal stress
Cshear stress
Dnormal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On a principle plane the magnitude of shear stress will be equal to ________.
Amaximum
Bminimum
Czero
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
ATorsional stress
BBending stress
CPrincipal stress
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a Mohr circle, the shear stress τ1 on the plane of maximum obliquity is ________.
Aless than the maximum shear stress τmax
Bmore than the maximum shear stress τmax
Cequal to the maximum shear stress τmax
Dnumerically equal to (σ1 − σ3)/2
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its own-weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be ________.
Aat the lower cross-section
Bat the built-in upper cross-section
Cat the central cross-section
Dat every point of the bar
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to direct stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions, tangential stress across inclined plane will be maximum when ________.
Aθ = 0°
Bθ = 45°
Cθ = 90°
Dθ = 180°
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to two tensile stresses of equal magnitude on two mutually perpendicular planes, the radius of Mohr circle will be ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress produced by sudden load is ________ times that is produced by gradual load.
A1/2
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam has a solid circular section having diameter d. If a section of the beam is subjected to a shear force F, then maximum shear stress in the cross section is given by ________.
A4F/(3πd²)
B16F/(3πd²)
C8F/(3πd²)
D3F/(16πd²)
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The proof resilience per unit volume is called ________.
Astrain energy
Bmodulus of resilience
Cvolumetric strain
DPoisson's ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called ________.
Alinear strain
Blateral strain
Cvolumetric strain
DPoisson's ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load beyond which a body will have permanent set is ________.
Arigidity
Bproof resilience
Cproof load
Dproof stress
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The correct sequence of stress-strain curve is as ________.
AEL, PL, TP, breaking point
BPL, YP, EL, breaking point
CPL, EL, YP, breaking point
DFL, BL, breaking point, YP
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Limit of proportionality depends upon ________.
Aarea of cross-section
Btype of loading
Ctype of material
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Every material obeys Hooke's law within its ________.
Aelastic limit
Bplastic limit
Climit of proportionality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load is called ________.
Aelastic point
Bplastic point
Cbreaking point
Dyielding point
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which point on the stress-strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
Alower yield point
Bupper yield point
Cultimate point
Dbreaking point
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ________.
Aelastic modulus
Bplastic modulus
CPoisson's ratio
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The total elongation of a bar due to its self-weight is (where w, L and E are the specific weight, length, and Young's modulus of the bar respectively) ________.
AwL²/E
Bw²L/E
CwL²/(2E)
Dw²L/(2E)
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is called ________.
Aelastic
Bisotropic
Cplastic
Dhomogeneous
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Highest value of stress for which Hooke's law is applicable for a given material is called ________.
Astress limit
Bstrain limit
Cproportional limit
Dsignificant limit
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture is called ________.
Aplastic
Belastic
Cbrittle
Dductile
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress components?
A1
B2
C3
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke's law, the number of independent elastic constants is ________.
A2
B3
C6
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the elastic modulus of a material if the Poisson's ratio for that material is 0.5?
Aequal to its shear modulus
Bthree times its shear modulus
Cfour times its shear modulus
Dnot determinable
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.3. What will be the ratio of Young's modulus to bulk modulus?
A1.4
B1.2
C0.8
D0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the ratio of Young's modulus to the modulus of rigidity of a material having Poisson's ratio 0.25?
A3.75
B3
C1.5
D2.5
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying capacity to that of solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is ________.
A15/16
B3/4
C1/2
D1/16
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A circular shaft is subjected to a torsion, the stress at the center of shaft is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress at the outermost fibres of a circular shaft under torsion is ________.
Azero
Bminimum
Cmaximum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If in a planar system, only 2 reaction forces are acting, then the system is ________.
Aessentially unstable
Bessentially stable
Ccan't say
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If all the reactions acting on a planar system are concurrent in nature, then the system is ________.
Acan't say
Bessentially stable
Cessentially unstable
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a system has more equations of equilibrium than number of forces, then the system is ________.
Aimproperly constrained
Bpartially constrained
Cstable
Dsolvable
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in concurrent force system under equilibrium is ________.
Azero
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How many cases out of the following are improperly constrained? Parallel forces, concurrent forces, perpendicular forces, only moment.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam of uniform strength can be obtained by ________.
Akeeping the width uniform and varying the depth
Bkeeping the depth uniform and varying the width
Cvarying the width and depth both
Dany one of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam is said to be of uniform strength if ________.
Athe shear stress is constant throughout the beam
Bthe extreme fibre stress is the same at every section
Cbending moment is constant throughout the length of the beam
Ddeflection is the same throughout the length of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is ________.
Apositive
Bzero
Cnegative
Dintermediate
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Beyond elastic limit, tensile strain ________.
Aincreases more quickly
Bdecreases more quickly
Cincrease in proportion to stress
Ddecrease in proportion to stress
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is said to be ________.
Ahomogeneous
Belastic
Cisotropic
Dvisco elastic
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic constants required to relate stress and strain is ________.
Atwo
Bthree
Cfour
Dsix
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and homogeneous material is ________.
A4
B3
C2
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deterioration of the properties of a material which is subjected to repeatedly applied stress is termed as ________.
Aisotropic
Bcreep
Celasticity
Dfatigue
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the shape of load-deformation curve for a linear elastic member?
AStraight line with constant slope
BStraight line with varying slope
CCurve
DSine wave
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the shape of load-deformation curve for a non-linear elastic member?
AStraight line with constant slope
BStraight line with varying slope
CCurve
DCircle
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the relation between work done and complementary work done?
AThey are unequal
BThey are equal
CCan't say
DDepends upon loading
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The unit of elastic modulus is the same as those of ________.
Astress, shear modulus and pressure
Bstrain, shear modulus and force
Cshear modulus, stress and force
Dstress, strain and pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How the elastic constants E and K are related?
AE = 2K(1 − 2μ)
BE = 3K(1 − 2μ)
CE = 2K(1 − μ)
DE = K(1 − 2μ)
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation between Young's Modulus (E), shear modulus (G) and Poisson's ratio (μ) is correctly given by the expression ________.
AG = E/[2(1 + μ)]
BE = G/[2(1 + μ)]
CG = E/[2(1 − μ)]
DE = G/[2(1 − μ)]
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At yield point of test specimen, the material ________.
AObeys Hooke's law
Bbehaves in an elastic manner
Cregains its original shape
Dundergoes plastic deformation
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the limiting values of Poisson's ratio?
A−1 and 0.5
B−1 and −0.5
C−0.5 and 0
D0 and 0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is true if the value of Poisson's ratio is zero?
AThe material is rigid
BThe material is perfectly plastic
CThe longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
DThe lateral strain in the material is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
________ curve is formed due to bending of overhanging beams.
AElastic
BPlastic
CFlexural
DAxial
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Curvature of the beam is ________ to bending moment.
Aequal
Bdirectly proportional
Cinversely proportional
Dcoincides
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The term EI d²y/dx² represents ________.
Ashear force
Bbending moment
Cslope of bending moment diagram
Dmaxima/minima condition for deflection
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The resistance offered by a material to deformation when subjected to external load is ________.
Aresistivity
Bresilience
Cstress
Dstrain
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
________ is a property of a material by virtue of it, material regain original shape after removal of load.
Arigidity
Bplasticity
Celasticity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The phenomenon of slow extension of materials with time under constant load is called ________.
Ayielding
Bcreep
Cbreaking
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the bulk modulus of elasticity?
AThe ratio of shear stress to shear strain
BThe ratio of direct stress to direct strain
CThe ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain
DThe ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At the neutral axis, bending stress is ________.
Aminimum
Bmaximum
Czero
Dconstant
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the theory of simple bending, the bending stress in the beam section varies ________.
Alinearly
Bparabolic
Celliptically
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a beam, effect of bending stress is ________ effect of shear stress.
Agreater than
Bless than
Cequal to
Dnegligible
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Area moment of inertia of the cross-section of the beam resist ________.
Athe applied normal force
Bboth the torque and bending moment
Cthe applied torque
Dthe applied bending moment of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to maximum bending moment of 2.25 t.m. If it has rectangular cross section, with width 15 cm and depth 30 cm, then maximum bending stress induced in the beam will be ________.
A50 kg/cm²
B100 kg/cm²
C150 kg/cm²
D225 kg/cm²
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load on a spring per unit deflection is called ________.
Astiffness
Bproof resilience
Cproof stress
Dproof load
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Moment required to produce unit rotation is called ________.
Aflexibility
Bstiffness
Crigidity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Two beam sections, one is circular and other square made from same materials and having same cross-sectional area, when subjected to bending ________.
Amoment of resistance for both beams is same
Bcircular section has higher M.R.
Csquare section has higher M.R.
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The flexural member beam is designed for ________.
Amaximum SF at center
Bminimum shear force at center
Cmaximum BM at center
Dminimum bending moment at center
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The equation of flexure is ________.
AM/I = σ/y = E/R
B1/I = σ/y = E/R
CI/M = y/σ = E/R
DM/I = σ/y = E/R
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
As per the Euler's theory, failure in column will be by ________.
Abuckling
Bcrippling
Ccrushing
Dcrippling and buckling
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's formula is not valid, for mild steel column when slenderness ratio is ________.
Amore than 80
Bless than 80
Cmore than 120
Dmore than 30
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A column that fails due to direct stress is called ________.
Ashort column
Blong column
Cweak column
Dslender column
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The buckling load for a given column depends upon ________.
Across sectional area of column
Blength and least radius of gyration
Cmodulus of elasticity of column material
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The buckling load will be maximum for a column, if ________.
Aone end of column is clamped and other free
Bboth ends of the column are clamped
Cboth ends of the column are hinged
Done end of the column is hinged and other clamped
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The formula which can be used for column load to account combined effect of bending and direct stresses is ________.
AEuler's formula
BRankine's formula
CPerry's formula
DStraight line formula
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load at which column just starts buckling is called ________.
Acrippling load
Bbuckling load
Ccritical load
Dany one of these
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Slenderness ratio of long column is ________.
Aarea of cross section divided by radius of gyration
Barea of cross section divided by least radius of gyration
Cradius of gyration divided by area of cross section
Dlength of column divided by least radius of gyration
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For long columns, the value of buckling load is ________ crushing load.
Aequal to
Bless than
Cmore than
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The direct stress induced in a long column is ________ as compared to bending stress.
Asame
Bmore
Cless
Dnegligible
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The nature of crippling load in a column is ________.
Atensile load
Bcompressive load
Clive load
Ddead load
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a long column with one end fixed and other end hinged, effective length is ________.
AL
BL/2
CL/√2
D2L
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Given that the unsupported length of the column with both ends fixed is L. What will be the unsupported length of an equivalent column with one end fixed and the other end free?
AL
BL/2
CL/4
DL/8
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of effective length to actual length of column with one end free and other end fixed is ________.
A2
B0.5
C0.33
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The effective length of column of length L, fixed against rotation and translation at one end is ________.
A0.5L
B0.7L
C1.414L
D2L
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a circular column having its ends hinged, the slenderness ratio is 160. The L/d ratio of the column is ________.
A80
B57
C40
D20
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
An electric pole is 5 m high from the ground level. Its effective length for design purpose will be ________.
A2.5 m
B3.53 m
C5.0 m
D10 m
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a column of length L is restrained against horizontal and vertical displacement and is free to rotate at both ends, its equivalent length will be ________.
A2L
BL
C0.5L
D0.707L
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What should be the effective length of compression members effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at both ends as per IS code?
A0.75L
B0.65L
C0.55L
D0.45L
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The effective length used in crippling load formula for a column with both ends fixed is ________.
AL/2
BL
C2L
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A column of length L is fixed at both ends. It is equivalent to another column with both ends hinged having length ________.
AL
B2L
CL/2
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When does Euler's buckling occur in a column?
AWhen the column is compressed beyond its yield strength
BWhen the column is subjected to torsional forces
CWhen the column is subjected to bending moments
DWhen the column is axially loaded and has a slenderness ratio above a critical value
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
P = π²EI/(4L²) is the equation of Euler's crippling load, if ________.
Aboth ends are fixed
Bboth ends are hinged
Cone end is fixed and other end is free
Done end is fixed and other end is hinged
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For the case of a slender column of length L and flexural rigidity EI built-in at base and free at top, Euler's critical load is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C3π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's equation for crippling load when both ends of column are hinged is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B4π²EI/L²
Cπ²EI/(4L²)
D2π²EI/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a column is fixed at both ends then corresponding Euler's critical load is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B4π²EI/L²
Cπ²EI/(4L²)
D2π²EI/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Euler's crippling load formula with one end fixed and other hinged is given by ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C4π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's crippling load for column of one end fixed and other end free condition is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C4π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's crippling load of a square column cross section will be ________ if its side is doubled.
A1/2 times
B1/4 times
C2 times
D16 times
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of Euler's crippling load for column with both ends fixed to that of both ends hinged is ________.
A0.5
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of Euler's crippling load for column with both ends fixed and column with one end fixed and other hinged is ________.
A2
B0.5
C0.25
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is statically determinate structure?
AFixed beam
BContinuous beam
CTwo hinged arch
DDouble overhanging beam
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is an example for statically determinate structure?
ATwo hinged arch
BCantilever beam
CFixed beam
DContinuous beam
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which condition applies for statically indeterminate beams?
ANo. of equilibrium conditions are more than no. of reactions
BNo. of reactions are more than no. of equilibrium conditions
CNo. of reactions are equal to no. of equilibrium conditions
DNo. of reactions are more than no. of forces
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the forces in the members of a structure as well as the reactions can be found by the conditions of equilibrium, then it is known as ________.
AStatically stable
BStatically unstable
CStatically determinate
DStatically indeterminate
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If 4 reactions are acting on a beam, then the system is ________.
AUnstable and indeterminate
BStable and indeterminate
CStable and determinate
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How many compatibility equations should be written if we have n number of redundant reactions?
An - 1
Bn
Cn + 1
Dn + 2
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Static indeterminacy for rigid jointed plane frame is given by ________.
A(m + r) - 2j
B(m + r) - 3j
C(3m + r) - 3j
D(6m + r) - 6j
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Static indeterminacy for pin jointed plane frame is given by ________.
A(m + r) - 2j
B(m + r) - 3j
C(3m + r) - 3j
D(6m + r) - 6j
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If in a pin jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is ________. Where 'm' is number of members, 'r' is reaction components and 'j' is number of joints.
AUnstable
BStable and statically indeterminate
CStable and determinate
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a statically indeterminate pin-jointed plane truss, the relation between number of members 'm' and number of joints 'j' is expressed as ________.
Am = 3j - 6
Bm > 2j - 3
Cm = 2j - 3
Dm > 3j - 6
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically determinate if ________.
A(m + r) = 3j
B(3m + r) = 3j
C(m + 3r) = 3j
D(3m + r) < 2j
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A continuous beam has a fixed end at support A and roller support at B and C. What will be the degree of redundancy of the structure?
A3
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a structure has 2j - r number of members, then it will be ________.
AStable
BUnstable
CDepends upon structure
DDepends upon magnitude of load
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a structure has total 10 joints, then what should be the minimum number of joints in which equilibrium equations should be concurrently satisfied for stability?
A7
B8
C9
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A plane truss has 11 members and 8 joints, how many additional members are needed to make the truss stable?
A0
B1
C2
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15 members, 3 reaction components and 14 joints is ________.
A2
B3
C6
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The number of independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid jointed space frame is ________.
A2
B4
C6
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of static indeterminacy of propped cantilever beam is ________.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The propped cantilever beam is indeterminate by ________ degree.
A1
B2
C3
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is indeterminate structure?
ATwo hinge arches
BThree hinge arches
CSimple supported beam
DCantilever beam
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of pin jointed plane frame is ________.
A2j - r
Bj - 2r
C3j - r
D2j + r
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of Kinematic Indeterminacy (Dk) for pin jointed space frame if members are extensible is: Where, r = Number of reactions, j = Number of joints and m = Number of members (members whole, extension is neglected).
ADk = [3j - r]
BDk = [2j - (m + r)]
CDk = [2j - r]
DDk = [6j - r]
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Find the indeterminacy of given figure.
A0
B6
C4
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Conservation of energy will be applicable only when ________.
AStatic load is applied
BDynamic load is applied
CCan be anything
DLarge load is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Strain energy stored in a bar due to axial load P is ________.
AP²L/AE
BP²L/(2AE)
CPL/(2AE)
DP²L/(4AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Interpret from the following which one is wrong with respect to strain energy method for finding deflection?
ADeflection can be found only in the direction of load
BDeflection can be found at any point in the desired direction
CDeflection can be found only at the loaded point
DStructure should be subjected to a single concentrated load
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The strain energy stored in a simply supported beam of span 'l' due to central point load 'w' is ________.
Aw²l³/(48EI)
Bw²l³/(48EI)
Cw²l³/(96EI)
Dw²l²/(96EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering permanent distortion, is known as ________.
AImpact energy
BProof resilience
CProof stress
DModulus of resilience
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The partial derivative of strain energy gives ________.
ADeflection
BSlope
CMoment
DRedundant force
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load and gradually applied load is ________.
A0.5
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work can be applied when ________.
AElastic limit is exceeded
BElastic limit is not exceeded
CDoesn't depend upon elastic limit
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work method can be applied when ________.
ASupports are moving
BSupports are not moving
CCan be applied in both case
DCan be applied in neither cases
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of virtual work is used to satisfy ________.
AMechanism condition
BEquilibrium condition
CPlasticity condition
DNo condition is satisfied
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work is used to determine ________.
AYield load
BElastic load
CPlastic load
DCollapse load
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is in equilibrium undergoes an infinitely small displacement, work imagined to be done is known as ________.
AImaginary work
BNegative work
CVirtual work
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a rigid body is in equilibrium under a system of forces, the virtual work done by this system of forces during virtual displacement is zero. This principle is known as ________.
AWork energy principle
BMecaulay's principle
CBernoulli's principle
DCastigliano's principle
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work refers to ________.
AVirtual work done by virtual forces
BVirtual work done by actual forces
CActual work done by actual forces
DActual work done by virtual forces
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is important while designing Beam?
ASF at support
BBM at support
CSF at center
DBM at center
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment area method is not suitable for which type of beams?
ACantilevers beams
BContinuous beams
CSimply supported beams
DBeams fixed at both ends
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is ________.
AWl³/(48EI)
BWl³/(96EI)
CWl³/(192EI)
DWl³/(384EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at ________.
AFixed ends
BCenter of beam
Cl/3 from ends
DAny of these
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection at center of fixed beam with uniformly distributed load w per unit length over its length L is ________.
AwL⁴/(384EI)
BwL³/(384EI)
CwL⁴/(192EI)
DwL³/(192EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection at center of fixed beam with total load W (kN) applied uniformly over its length L is ________.
AWL⁴/(384EI)
BWL³/(384EI)
CWL⁴/(192EI)
DWL³/(192EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the case of a beam simply supported at both ends, if the same load instead of being concentrated at center is distributed uniformly throughout the length, then the deflection at center will get reduced by ________.
A1/2 times
B1/4 times
C5/8 times
D3/8 times
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A cantilever beam of length l carries a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at fixed end. The maximum deflection lies at ________.
AFree end
BFixed end
CMid-span
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Deflection at mid span of simply supported beam subjected to couple M at both ends is ________.
AML²/(16EI)
BML²/(8EI)
CML³/(24EI)
DML/(2EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection of simply supported beam having point load W acting at its center is ________.
AWL³/(3EI)
BWL³/(12EI)
CWL³/(48EI)
D5WL³/(384EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the deflection of a cantilever beam subjected to a point load W at its free end?
AWL³/(3EI)
BWL⁴/(4EI)
CWL³/(6EI)
DWL²/(2EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection is ________.
A1/325 of the span
B1/300 of the span
C1/350 of the span
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If m₁ and m₂ are the two individual members of truss of a compound truss, the truss is determinate and static if ________.
Am = m₁ + m₂
Bm = m₁ + m₂ + 1
Cm = m₁ + m₂ + 2
Dm = m₁ + m₂ + 3
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a ________.
AFixed support
BHinged support
CRoller support
DFree support
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The conjugate method falls in the category of ________.
AForce method
BDisplacement
CStiffness
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives ________ in the actual beam.
ASlope
BDeflection
CCurvature
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment area method is not suitable for which type of beams?
ACantilevers beams
BContinuous beams
CSimply supported beams
DBeams fixed at both ends
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation, slope = area of BMD/EI, is given by ________.
AMohr's first theorem
BMohr's second theorem
CCastigliano's theorem
DMacaulay's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Shear force at any section in a conjugate beam gives ________ in the actual beam.
ASlope
BDeflection
CCurvature
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the moment area method, the difference in slope between two sections of a beam is equal to the ________.
AArea of M/EI diagram between these two sections
BMoment of M/EI diagram between these two sections
C1/2 area of M/EI diagram between these two sections
D1/2 moment of M/EI diagram between these two sections
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the moment area method, the deflection of point A from a tangent at B is equal to ________.
AArea of M/EI diagram between A and B
BMoment of M/EI diagram between A and B about A
CMoment of M/EI diagram between A and B about B
D1/2 area of M/EI diagram between A and B
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The theorem of three moments is applicable only when ________.
AThe beam is prismatic
BThe spans are equal
CThere is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
DThere are at least 2 spans
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fixed end of a continuous beam in Clapeyron's equation is replaced by an additional span of length ________.
AZero length
BInfinite length
CEqual to other span lengths
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In influence line diagrams (ILD) ________.
APoints remain fixed, position of load changes
BPoints change, position of loads remain fixed
CBoth of them change
DNeither of them changes
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line is ________.
AThe line showing stress function due to unit moving load
BThe line showing stress function due to unit load
CThe line showing stress function due to UDL
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD means ________.
AInfluence length diagram
BInfluence line diagram
CInfluence line distance
DInfluence line diagnosis
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line diagram refers to ________.
ADoes not have any impact on position of loading
BPoints change, position of loads remain fixed
CNo consideration of loads
DPoints remain fixed, position of load changes
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which statement is correct for ILD?
AILD of statically determinate beams consist of straight lines
BILD of statically indeterminate beams consist of curved lines
CBoth of the above
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence lines are drawn for structures ________.
AIndeterminate
BDeterminate
CAny type
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How is an influence line diagram constructed?
ABy plotting the shear force and bending moment diagrams for a structure
BBy plotting the distribution of forces in a structure
CBy plotting the deflection of a structure under a load
DBy plotting the load effect on a specific point in a structure as a function of the position of the load
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For drawing ILD, what value of test load is assumed?
A1 unit
BArbitrary
CDepends upon structure
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Identify the incorrect statement about Muller Breslau principle.
AIt is applicable when the material is within the elastic limit and obeys Hooke's law
BIt gives analytical method to find influence line diagram
CIt is applicable only for indeterminate structures
DIt gives excellent experimental approach to determine the influence lines for indeterminate structures
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Muller Breslau principle in structural analysis is used for ________.
ADrawing influence line diagram for any force function
BWriting virtual work equation
CSuperposition of load effects
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Muller Breslau principle of influence line is applicable for ________.
ASimple beam
BContinuous beam
CRedundant truss
DAll of these
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
To draw ILD for statically indeterminate beams, principle used is ________.
AMaxwell
BMuller-Breslau
CCastigliano
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The line showing the variations of stress function at a given point due to a unit load moving on a span is known as ________.
ALoad line
BInfluence line
CCurve line
DStress function line
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line for the structural function is used for obtaining maximum value because of: A. Uniformly distributed load B. Single point load C. Series of concentrated load.
AOnly A
BA and B
CB and C
DA, B and C
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the shape of ILD curve for vertical reaction at point A (RAy)?
ATriangular
BCircular
CRectangular
DTrapezoidal
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for reaction at the support of a cantilever will be ________.
ATriangle with zero ordinate at fixed end and unit ordinate at free end
BTriangle with unit ordinate at fixed end and zero ordinate at free end
CRectangle with ordinate 1/2
DRectangle with unit ordinate
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for BM at a section of a simply supported beam will be a ______.
Atriangle with maximum ordinate at the section and zero at the support nearer to the two supports
Btriangle with maximum ordinate at the section and zero at the other support
Crectangle with unit ordinate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for BM at a section in a cantilever will be a triangle extending between the section and the ______.
Afixed end with maximum ordinate under the section
Bfixed end with maximum ordinate under the fixed end
Cunsupported end with maximum ordinate at the section
Dunsupported end with maximum ordinate at the supported end
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for reaction at a support of a simply supported beam is ______.
Aa triangle with ordinate 1 at that support and zero at the other support
Ba triangle with ordinate 1
Ca rectangle with ordinate 1
Da rectangle with ordinate 1/2
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam AB of span L, if unit load is at x distance from A, then RB = ______.
A(L − x) / L
Bx / L
C(x − L) / L
DL / x
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam AB of span L, if unit load is at x distance from A, then RA = ______.
A(L − x) / L
Bx / L
C(x − L) / L
DL / x
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Equation to find ILD for member of Truss is ______.
Aa(L − a) / (Lh)
Ba(L − a) / L
Ca(L − a) / h
D(L − a) / (Lh)
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If on ILD analysis peak force comes out to be 2 kN, then what will be the peak force if loading is single point load?
A1 kN
B2 kN
C3 kN
D4 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A single-rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15 m span. The absolute maximum bending moment will be ______.
A60 kN-m
B40 kN-m
C20 kN-m
D30 kN-m
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A single rolling load of 40 kN rolls from left end along a simply supported girder of span 20 m. The absolute maximum positive and negative shear force, respectively, are ______.
A14 kN and −26 kN
B40 kN and −40 kN
C26 kN and −14 kN
D20 kN and −20 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A UDL of 10 kN/m of length 5 m is moving from left to right support on a simply supported beam of span 10 m. The maximum bending moment at 4 m from the left support is ______.
A70 kN-m
B90 kN-m
C50 kN-m
D30 kN-m
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder, moves from left to right, the conditions for maximum bending moment at a section is that ______.
Athe head of the load reaches the section
Bthe tail of the load reaches the section
Cthe load position should be such that the section divides it equally on both sides
Dthe load position should be such that the section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder ______.
Aalways occurs at center of span
Balways occurs under a wheel load
Cnever occurs under a wheel load
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line diagram for bending moment in a simply supported beam is a ______.
Astraight line
Bparabola
Ctriangle
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD for reaction at fixed support of cantilever beam is ______.
A1 ordinate throughout the span
B1 ordinate at free end, 0 ordinate at fixed support
C1 ordinate at fixed support, 0 ordinate at free end
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD for shear force at a section for a cantilever beam is ______.
Atriangle between free and fixed end
Btriangle between free and section
Crectangle between free and fixed end
Drectangle between free and section
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD for the shear force at the support of the cantilever beam is ______.
Azero throughout the span
Btriangle with zero at free end
Crectangle throughout the span
Dtriangle with zero at fixed end
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD of a three hinged arch of span L and rise h due to horizontal thrust H is ______.
Atriangle with maximum ordinate at center equals L/(24h)
Bsquare with its ordinate equal to L/(24h)
Csquare with its ordinate equal to L/(2h)
Dtriangle with its maximum ordinate at center equals L/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following are statically determinate beams?
AOnly simply supported beams
BCantilever, overhanging and simply supported
CFixed beams
DContinuous beams
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In two-hinged arch, how many unknown forces exist?
AOne unknown
BTwo unknowns
CThree unknowns
DFour unknowns
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the degree of indeterminacy of a two hinged arch?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Identify the incorrect statement according to the hinged arches.
AThree hinged arch is a statically determinate structure
BTo analyze three hinged arch, equilibrium equations are sufficient
CFor three hinged parabolic arch subjected to UDL over the entire span, the bending moment is constant throughout the span
DFor two hinged parabolic arch subjected to UDL over the entire span, the bending moment is zero throughout the span
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In hinge less arch, it is supported to ______.
Astable
Bgeometrically unstable
C2nd degree
D3rd degree
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The masonry arches resist the external loads by ______.
Anormal thrust and shear
Bnormal thrust, radial shear and moment
Cbending moment and radial shear
Dthrust only
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
An arch can be treated as a curved beam ............
Awhose ends are restrained against horizontal movement
Bwhose ends do not provide any reaction
Cwhose ends are unsupported
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In arches and lintels, back is the ............
Ahighest point on the extrados of an arch
Bupper surface of an arch
Cunder surface of an arch
Douter curve of an arch ring
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The line of thrust of the linear arch is ............
Athe axis of the arch
Bthe imaginary line of thrust for a given set of loads
Cthe springing line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moments in the arch will be zero, if ............
Aends are hinged
Bends are fixed
Cthe arch axis coincides with the line of thrust
Dthe arch axis is parallel to the line of thrust
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The vertical reaction for the arch is [W load acting at 'a' distance from support with span 2l] ............
AWa/2l
BWl/a
CWa/l
DWa²/2l
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The vertical distance between the springing line and the highest point on the intrados is called ............ of the arch.
Adepth
Bextrados
Chaunch
Drise
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The top most part of an arch is called ............
Asoffit
Bcrown
Ccenter
Dabutment
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The normal thrust at any section along the tangent to the centerline of the arch is ............
AH cos θ + V sin θ
BV cos θ + H sin θ
CH cos θ − V sin θ
DV cos θ − H sin θ
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Radial shear in two hinged arch, tangent to the arch makes an angle theta with horizontal ............
AH cos θ + V sin θ
BV cos θ + H sin θ
CH cos θ − V sin θ
DV cos θ − H sin θ
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a two hinged arch, if one of the supports settles horizontally, then the horizontal thrust ............
Ais increased
Bis decreased
Cremains unchanged
Dbecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a two-hinged arch, the moment will be zero under which condition?
AWhen the arch span is equal to the rise
BWhen the arch is subjected to a uniform load
CWhen the thrust axis and the hinge axis coincide
DWhen the supports are fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a two hinged parabolic arch, an increase in temperature will ............
Adecrease the horizontal thrust
Bincrease the bending moment
Cincrease the horizontal thrust
Dmake no change in horizontal thrust
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The locus of the reaction of a two-hinged semi-circular arch is ............
Astraight line
Bparabola
Ccircle
Dhyperbola
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD of horizontal thrust in a 2 hinge parabolic arch is ............
Aparabolic
Bcircular
Ctriangular
Dfunicular polygon
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a two hinged arch having constant EI, the horizontal thrust H at a point (x, y) on the arch, in terms of beam moment M is given by ............
A∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y³ ds/EI)
B∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y ds/EI)
C∫My²(dy/dx) / ∫(y² ds/EI)
D∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y² ds/EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For given two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m, and 10 m respectively and carrying concentrated crown load W, ratio of horizontal thrust at their support will be ............
A1 : 1 : 1
B1 : 1.5 : 2
C2 : 1.5 : 1
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A parabolic two hinged arch is loaded with a concentrated load W at the crown. The horizontal thrust is equal to ............ [Where 'L' is the span and 'h' is the rise]
A54WL/128h
B25WL/128h
C50WL/128h
D36WL/128h
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged semicircular arch loaded with point load at its crown.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
DW/(2π)
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged semicircular arch loaded uniformly throughout with distributed load.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
DW/(2π)
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The horizontal thrust in a two hinged semi-circular arch subjected to UDL of w kN/m over left half span will be ............
A4wR/(3π)
BwR/2
CwR
D2wR/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries a concentrated load W at the crown. Horizontal thrust acting on the arch at the hinge would be ............
AW/(2π)
BW/π
C2W/3
D4W/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged parabolic arch loaded uniformly throughout with distributed load.
AWL²/(32H)
BWL²/(16H)
CWL²/(8H)
DWL²/(2H)
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged parabolic arch loaded with point load at its crown.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
D25WL/(128H)
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear force in three hinged parabolic arch usually occurs at ............
Aquarter span
Bcrown
Cspringings
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In three hinged arch, maximum hogging moment occurs when, the point load is at ............
Aspringing
Bcrown
Cquarter span
Dthe section itself
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged arch is hinged at supports end ............
Aat one quarter span
Bat the crown
Canywhere in arch
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Shape of three hinged arch is always ............
Ahyperbolic
Bcircular
Cparabolic
Dcan be any arbitrary curve
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every section of the arch resists ............
Acompressive force
Btensile force
Cshear force
Dbending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum bending moment due to concentrated load in three hinged parabolic arches having one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at the distance ............
AL/4
BL/2
CL/(2√3)
DL/(3√2)
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum ordinate under the crown hinge of influence line diagram for the horizontal thrust of three hinged arch is equal to where L is span of the arch and h is the height of the crown hinge.
AL/(4h)
BL/(8h)
CL/(2h)
DL/(6h)
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the span of a three hinged arch is L, h is the rise and UVL with maximum ordinate 'w' acting over the entire span, the horizontal reaction at each support is given by:
AwL²/(8h)
BwL²/(10h)
CwL²/(16h)
DwL²/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If 'L' is the span of a three hinged arch, 'h' is the rise and 'W' is the u.d.l. per unit length over the entire span, the horizontal reaction at each support is given by:
AWL²/(8h)
BWL²/(10h)
CWL²/(16h)
DWL²/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Internal bending moment generated in a three hinged arch is always ............
A0
Binfinite
Cvaries
Dnon zero value but remains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Internal shear force generated in a three hinged arch is always ............
A0
Binfinite
Cvaries
Dnon zero value but remains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged parabolic arch has a span of 30 m and the central rise is 5 m. It is subjected to a point load of 8 kN at a distance of 20 m from the right hinge. Calculate the vertical reaction component at its left support.
A35.35 kN
B40 kN
C13.13 kN
D26.67 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In case of a symmetric, fixed parabolic arch of span L and rise h, elastic centre is at a depth ............ below the crown.
Ah/4
Bh/3
Ch/2
Dh
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Flexibility matrix method of analysis is basically ............
Aforce method
Bdisplacement method
Cequilibrium method
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Flexibility matrix is always ............
Asymmetric
Bnon-symmetric
Canti-symmetric
Ddepends upon loads applied
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Castigliano's theorem represents which one of the following methods?
Aequilibrium
Bflexibility
Cdisplacement
Dforce
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Castigliano's theorem fall under the category of ............
Adisplacement method
Bequilibrium method
Cforce method
Dstiffness method
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
According to Castigliano's first theorem partial derivative of strain energy U with respect to force P will give ............
Aslope
Bdeflection
Cmoment
Dshear force
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Castigliano's second theorem can be used to compute deflections ............
Ain statically determinate structure only
Bat the point under the load
Cfor the beam and frame only
Dfor any type of structure
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The unit load method used in structural analysis is ............
Aapplicable only to statically determinate structures
Banother name of stiffness method
Can extension of Maxwell's reciprocal theorem
Dderived from Castigliano's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Maxwell's reciprocal theorem is valid for all ............
Astatically determinate structures
Bstructures
Celastic structures
Dstructures with linear force displacement relations
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of least work is ............
ACastigliano's first theorem
BCastigliano's second theorem
CPrinciple of superposition
DMuller Breslau principle
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The systematic development of slope deflection method in the matrix form is known as ............
Astiffness matrix method
Bdisplacement matrix method
Cequilibrium method
Dall the above
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fictitious method of finding slope and deflection of beam is ............
Aunit load method
BCastigliano's first theorem
CCastigliano's second theorem
Dconsistent deformation method
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Principle of superposition is applicable when ............
Adeflections are linear functions of applied forces
Bmaterial obeys Hooke's law
Cthe action of applied forces will be affected by small deformations of the structure
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of superposition states that the total deflection of a structure under different sets of load is equal to the sum of deflections under each set of loads acting separately on the structure if the loads are within ............
Aelastic limit
Bplastic limit
Cbreaking point
Dyield point
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Force method is also called ............ as per structural analysis.
ASlope deflection method
BKani's method
CMoment distribution method
DColumn analogy method
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which one of the following methods is not classified as a force method?
AThe theorem of three moments
BThe moments distribution method
CThe method of consistent deformation
DCastigliano's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In column analogy method, the area of an analogous column for a fixed beam of span L and flexural rigidity EI is taken as ............
AL/EI
BL/2EI
CL/4EI
DL/8EI
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In slope deflection method, all the joints of the frame are assumed to be ............
AMoving
BSimply supported
CRigid
DRolling
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope and deflection at the center of a simple beam carrying a central point load are ............
AZero and zero
BMaximum and zero
CMaximum and maximum
DMinimum and maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load, if the length of the beam is doubled, deflection becomes ............ times.
A4
B2
C16
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a simply supported beam of span L subjected to central concentrated load, the central deflection is 24 mm. Then the slope at supports is ............
A48/L radians
B36/L radians
C24/L radians
D72/L radians
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a cantilever beam, slope and deflection is maximum at ............
AFree end
BFixed end
CCenter
DOne fourth of span
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In slope deflection method, the slope and deflection of joints are computed using ............
ARigidity of joint
BElasticity of joint
CEquilibrium of structure
DEquilibrium of joint
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A cantilever beam of length L has flexural rigidity EI up to length L/2 from the fixed end and EI/2 for the rest. It carries a moment M at the free end. The slope at the free end is given by ............
AM/2EI
B3ML/2EI
C2ML/3EI
DML/2EI
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The theorem of three moments cannot be applied to ............
AContinuous beams with overhangs
BTrusses and frames
CSingle span fixed beams
DContinuous beams with sinking supports and rotating joints
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The simultaneous equations of slope deflection method can be solved by iteration in ............
AConjugate beam method
BConsistent deformation method
CMoment distribution method
DWilliot Mohr method
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Moment distribution method is introduced by ............
AHardy Cross
BKani
CMuller Breslau
DOtto Mohr
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment distribution method is best suited for ............
AIndeterminate pin jointed truss
BRigid frames
CSpace frames
DTrussed beam
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Carryover moment is defined as ............
AThe moment applied at one end to cause unit slope at the support
BThe additional moment applied at one end to completely resist the rotation caused due to external loading
CThe moment developed or induced at one end due to a moment at another end
DThe moment applied at one end to cause unit slope at another end
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The factor by which the applied moment is multiplied to obtain the end moment of any member is known as the ............
ADistribution factor
BCarryover factor
CRelative stiffness
DTotal relative stiffness
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of cross section with diamond shape under flexure is ............
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a structural member of the uniform section is subjected to a moment at one end only, then the moment required so as to rotate that end to produce a unit slope, is called ............
AResistance of member
BStiffness of member
CCapacity of member
DPotential of member
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Stiffness matrix method is also called ............
AFlexibility method
BForce method
CDisplacement method
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness method in structural analysis is also known as ............
AUnit load method
BConsistent deformation method
CForce method
DDisplacement method
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If kᵢ is the stiffness of ith member at a joint, the distribution factor for the member is ............
Akᵢ
Bkᵢ/Σkᵢ
CΣkᵢ
DΣkᵢ - kᵢ
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the stiffness factor for a beam simply supported at both ends?
A3EI/L
B4EI/L
C2EI/L
DEI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Stiffness of the end A if the far end B is vertical guided roller is ............
AEI/L
B2EI/L
C3EI/L
D4EI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness of end A if the farther end is hinged is ............
A0
BEI/L
C3EI/L
D4EI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness for free end A if far end B is fixed is ............
A4EI/L
B3EI/L
C2EI/L
DEI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of the stiffness of a beam at the near end when the far end is hinged to the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the far end is fixed ............
A1
B0.5
C1.33
D0.75
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If point A goes down and point B goes up, then this will be ............
APositive rotation
BNegative rotation
CCan't say
DDepends upon magnitude
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Lowest plastic limit load is obtained when ............
AOnly equilibrium condition of plastic analysis is satisfied
BOnly equilibrium and mechanism condition of plastic analysis are satisfied
COnly mechanism condition of plastic analysis is satisfied
DEquilibrium, mechanism and plasticity condition of plastic analysis are satisfied
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment which makes all the fibers at the section to yield is known as ...............
AFlexural rigidity
BMoment of resistance
CPlastic moment capacity
DYield moment
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which load is obtained when equilibrium and mechanism conditions of plastic analysis are satisfied?
APlastic limit load
BUpper bound solution of true ultimate load
CLower bound solution of true ultimate load
DNo solution
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following relation is correct?
A-Mp ≥ M
BM > Mp
CM ≥ Mp
DM ≤ Mp
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The collapse load for a propped cantilever of span L subjected to a concentrated load W at mid-span is ...............
A2Mp/L
B3Mp/L
C4Mp/L
D6Mp/L
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Collapse load in a fixed beam of span L, carrying u.d.l. over entire span and having plastic moment capacity Mp is ...............
A6Mp/L
B8Mp/L
C8Mp/L²
D16Mp/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of a diamond shaped section for bending about its diametric axis is ...............
A1.2
B1.5
C2
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of a circular section with radius R is ...............
A4R/(3π)
B4R/π
C16R/(3π)
D8R/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a plastic analysis of structures, the segment between any two successive plastic hinges is assumed to deform as ...............
AA plastic material
BA rigid material
CAn elastic material
DAn inelastic material
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Plastic analysis is particularly suitable for the structures with ...............
AHigh redundancy and ductility
BLow redundancy and rigidity
CHigh redundancy and rigidity
DLow redundancy and ductility
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
Fossils are found in
Aigneous rocks only
Bsedimentary rocks only
Cmetamorphic rocks only
Dall three classes equally
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
The essential difference between weathering and erosion is that weathering
Abreaks rock down in place, while erosion removes and transports the products
Baffects only sedimentary rocks
Ctransports material, while erosion breaks it down
Doccurs only in cold climates
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
Hydrolysis, the most important process of chemical weathering, converts
Asandstone to quartzite
Blimestone to marble
Cfeldspar minerals to clay minerals
Dgranite to basalt
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
For engineering purposes, the stability of a rock slope is governed principally by
Athe age of the rock
Bthe compressive strength of the intact rock
Cthe colour of the rock
Dthe orientation and condition of the discontinuities in the rock mass
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
The geological zones of Nepal, listed from south to north, are
The Siwalik zone is of particular engineering concern because its rocks are
Athe strongest rocks in Nepal
Bentirely free of landslides
Cyoung, weakly consolidated and highly erodible, making it the principal source of sediment to the Terai
Dcomposed of high-grade gneiss
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
Nepal's rivers become braided where they emerge onto the Terai because
Athe sudden reduction in slope causes the coarse bedload to be deposited
Bthe discharge increases sharply at that point
Cthe channel is artificially straightened
Dthe bed material becomes finer
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
The porosity of a granular material depends on
Athe temperature of the water
Bthe grain size alone
Cthe sorting, packing and shape of the grains, but not on the grain size itself
Dthe depth below the ground surface only
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
Clay typically has a high porosity but a very low permeability because difficulty
Ait has no pores at all
Bit is always dry
Cit contains very few voids
Dits pores are extremely small and poorly connected, so water moves through them only with great
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
In the crystalline rocks of Nepal's hill regions, groundwater occurs principally in
Asolution cavities in limestone
Bjoints, fractures and weathered zones, that is in secondary porosity
Cdeep artesian aquifers
Dthe primary pore spaces between mineral grains
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
A glacial lake outburst flood is most commonly triggered by
Areduced glacier melt
Ba prolonged drought
Ca fall in air temperature
Dan ice or rock avalanche into the lake producing a displacement wave that overtops the moraine dam
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 2077Ch 4 · Engineering Geology
Intense rainfall triggers landslides principally because it
Aincreases the weight of the vegetation
Braises the pore water pressure, reducing the effective stress and hence the shear strength
Ccools the soil mass
Dcements the soil particles together
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
The difference between weather and climate is that climate refers to
Aconditions in the stratosphere only
Bthe statistical description of atmospheric conditions over a long period, conventionally thirty years
Cthe atmospheric condition at a particular moment
Dconditions over the oceans only
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Temperature increases with height in the stratosphere because
Aozone there absorbs ultraviolet radiation
Bwater vapour condenses there
Cit is closer to the earth's surface
Dthe air is denser at greater height
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
The world's major hot deserts are located near 30 degrees latitude because
Aair descending in the subtropical high-pressure belt warms and dries
Bthe Coriolis effect is greatest there
Crainfall is heaviest at that latitude
Docean currents are warmest there
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Tropical cyclones do not form within about five degrees of the equator because
Athe sea surface is too cold
Bthe humidity is too low
Cthe Coriolis effect is too weak there to generate rotation
Dwind shear is too great
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
The cloud type responsible for thunder, lightning and hail is
Acirrus
Bcumulonimbus
Cstratus
Dnimbostratus
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Low clouds and high thin clouds affect the climate respectively by
Ahaving no measurable effect
Bcooling the surface through reflection and warming it by trapping outgoing infrared
Cwarming through reflection and cooling by trapping infrared
Dboth cooling the surface equally
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
The thermohaline circulation of the oceans is driven by differences in
Awind stress at the surface alone
Bwater density arising from temperature and salinity
Ctidal forces
Dthe Coriolis effect alone
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
During an El Nino event in the tropical Pacific unusually warm
Athe trade winds weaken, upwelling off South America is suppressed and the eastern Pacific becomes
Bthe trade winds strengthen and the eastern Pacific becomes colder
Crainfall increases over Indonesia
Dthe Pacific becomes uniformly cold
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
ENSO is described as a coupled phenomenon because
Ait involves interaction between the ocean and the atmosphere, not the ocean alone
Bit occurs in two oceans at once
Cit has two causes, volcanic and solar
Dit affects two hemispheres equally
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Without the natural greenhouse effect, the mean surface temperature of the earth would be approximately
A0 °C
B−18 °C instead of about +15 °C
C+50 °C
Dunchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Compared with carbon dioxide, methane has a global warming potential over 100 years of about
A28 times greater, but a much shorter atmospheric lifetime
B28 times smaller
C265 times greater
Dequal
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
Water vapour is treated as a climate feedback rather than a forcing because
Ait absorbs only shortwave radiation
Bits atmospheric concentration is determined by temperature rather than by direct emissions
Cit is present in negligible quantity
Dit is not a greenhouse gas
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 2077Ch 4 · Climate Science
The role of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is to
Acarry out its own climate experiments
Boperate the global observation network
Cassess and synthesise the published scientific literature, not to conduct original research
Dset binding emission targets for countries
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
A hazard becomes a disaster only when
Aits magnitude exceeds a fixed threshold
Bit occurs in a developing country
Cit affects a vulnerable exposed community whose losses exceed its own capacity to cope
Dit is caused by natural forces
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Disaster risk is conventionally expressed as
Avulnerability divided by hazard
Bthe sum of hazard and vulnerability
Chazard alone
Dhazard multiplied by exposure and vulnerability, divided by capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
A major earthquake occurring in an uninhabited desert is
Aa technological disaster
Ba hazard event but not a disaster, since there is no exposed vulnerable population
Cneither a hazard nor a disaster
Da disaster regardless of location
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
The correct sequence of the disaster risk management cycle is
Apreparedness, mitigation, recovery, response
Bmitigation, preparedness, response, recovery
Crecovery, mitigation, response, preparedness
Dresponse, recovery, preparedness, mitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Land use zoning and the enforcement of building codes are examples of
Anon-structural mitigation measures
Brecovery measures
Cstructural mitigation measures
Dresponse measures
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
An effective early warning system requires four elements; a system will fail if it lacks
Ainternational funding
Ba computer-based forecasting model
Ca permanent research institute
Dthe capacity of the community to respond to the warning
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
The principle of building back better means that reconstruction after a disaster should
Arelocate the entire community in every case
Bbe completed as quickly as possible regardless of standard
Crestore everything exactly as it was before
Drebuild to a higher standard so that the vulnerability which caused the loss is not recreated
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Deforestation on a steep catchment increases disaster risk principally because it
Ahas no measurable effect on runoff
Breduces the intensity of rainfall
Cincreases infiltration into the ground
Dincreases surface runoff and removes the root reinforcement that stabilises the soil
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Constructing an embankment to protect one bank of a river, which then increases flooding on the opposite bank, is an example of
Asuccessful adaptation
Bpreparedness
Cmaladaptation
Dmitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Planting drought-resistant crop varieties in response to changing rainfall is an example of
Amaladaptation
Bemission reduction
Cmitigation
Dadaptation
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Mainstreaming climate change adaptation with disaster risk reduction is advocated because the two fields duplicate effort
Ahave completely different objectives
Bare funded by the same donor
Care both purely scientific activities
Dshare the objective of reducing vulnerability and address overlapping risks, so separate programmes
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
The defining shift introduced by the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was
Aa focus on technological hazards only
Ba move from managing disasters to managing disaster risk
Cthe abolition of early warning systems
Da move from prevention to relief
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 2077Ch 4 · Disaster Risk Reduction and Climate Change
Nepal's Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act, 2074 (2017) is significant because it national authority
Aapplies only to earthquakes
Bdeals only with post-disaster relief
Creplaced a relief-centred law with a comprehensive risk management approach and established a
Dabolished all disaster institutions
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Integrated watershed management takes the watershed as the planning unit because together
Ait is the cheapest possible approach
Bactivities in the upper catchment directly affect conditions downstream, so the two must be managed
Cit avoids the need for community involvement
Dwatersheds coincide with administrative boundaries
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
In watershed treatment, work should normally begin
Ain the lower catchment and proceed upward
Bsimultaneously everywhere regardless of cost
Cin the upper catchment and proceed downward
Dat the outlet only
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
The five engineering functions of vegetation in bioengineering are
Acatch, armour, reinforce, anchor and support
Babsorb, transpire, reflect, shade and cool
Ccut, fill, drain, compact and pave
Dplant, water, prune, harvest and replant
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Roots increase the shear strength of soil by
Aadding an apparent cohesion, while leaving the angle of internal friction unchanged
Bincreasing the angle of internal friction
Creducing the unit weight of the soil
Dincreasing the pore water pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
In the Wu-Waldron model of root reinforcement, the additional cohesion is proportional to
Athe height of the vegetation
Bthe tensile strength of the roots and the root area ratio
Cthe depth of the water table
Dthe number of leaves per plant
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
The principal limitation of bioengineering as a slope stabilisation technique is that it
Ais effective only within the rooting depth, so it cannot arrest a deep-seated landslide
Bis more expensive than concrete structures
Cdeteriorates rapidly with time
Drequires heavy machinery
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Compared with a concrete retaining structure, a bioengineering treatment
Arequires no maintenance at any stage
Bbecomes stronger with time as the vegetation establishes, whereas concrete deteriorates
Cprovides immediate full protection
Dbecomes weaker with time
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Large trees may be undesirable on a marginally stable steep slope because they
Areduce transpiration from the soil
Bprevent all infiltration of rainfall
Cprovide no root reinforcement at all
Dadd surcharge weight and transmit wind loading to the slope
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
In selecting species for bioengineering work in Nepal, preference should be given to
Aspecies requiring intensive irrigation
Bexotic species with the fastest possible growth
Clocally available species that the community values and will therefore protect
Dspecies with no local use
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
A key criterion in siting a plant nursery for bioengineering work is
Aa location far from the planting sites
Bdeep shade throughout the day
Ca reliable supply of clean water available throughout the dry season
Da steep slope for natural drainage
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Hardening off of nursery seedlings before dispatch involves
Aincreasing shade and watering just before planting
Bstoring the seedlings in a cold room
Ccutting off all the roots
Dgradually reducing shade and watering so that the seedlings can withstand field conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
A central principle of the green road concept in Nepal is
Acompletion of the whole road within a single dry season
Bbalanced cut and fill with no side-tipping of spoil down the hillside
Cmaximum use of heavy earthmoving machinery
Dalignment along the steepest available route
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioengineering and Landscape Management
Green road construction is deliberately spread over more than one dry season in order to completed
Aavoid working in good weather
Ballow time for land acquisition
Callow the cut and fill slopes to settle and be stabilised through an intervening monsoon before the road is
Dreduce the cost of labour
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
A gabion wall is widely used in hill bioengineering because it is pressure
Acheaper than dry stone in every case
Bflexible, permeable and built from local stone, so it tolerates settlement without developing water
Cimmune to corrosion
Drigid and completely impermeable
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Weep holes and a granular filter must be provided behind a cement masonry retaining wall because
Athey are needed only in cold climates
Bwater pressure accumulating behind the wall can easily exceed the earth pressure it was designed for
Cthey improve the appearance of the wall
Dthey reduce the quantity of stone required
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Check dams in a gully should be constructed
Aonly at the mouth of the gully
Bin a series, starting from the head of the gully and working downward
Cone at a time, starting at the outlet
Dat random intervals
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
The commonest mode of failure of a check dam is
Acrushing of the stone
Bcorrosion of the foundation
Coverturning of the whole structure
Doutflanking, where water cuts around the ends of the structure
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
In brush layering, the live cuttings are
Alaid horizontally in shallow trenches excavated across the slope, with the tips protruding
Bplanted in pits with their roots intact
Cscattered over the surface and covered with soil
Ddriven vertically into the ground in a close line
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Brush layering is valuable partly because, unlike most vegetative techniques, it
Aworks on deep-seated landslides
Bprovides some immediate mechanical reinforcement before the cuttings have rooted
Cneeds no maintenance
Drequires no plant material
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Turfing is chosen in preference to grass slip planting when
Ano water is available
Bthe budget is very limited
Cimmediate surface protection is required and a turf source is available
Dthe slope is extremely steep and inaccessible
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Jute netting or a biodegradable geotextile is used on a bare steep slope in order to
Ahold the seed and soil in place temporarily while the vegetation establishes
Bprovide permanent reinforcement of the slope
Creplace the need for any vegetation
Dact as an impermeable barrier
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
In Nepal, bioengineering planting is normally carried out
Aat the start of the dry season, in October
Bin mid-winter
Cat the beginning of the monsoon, in June and July
Dat any time of year, since it makes no difference
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
The first measure to consider in stabilising an unstable slope is normally
Aimproving the drainage, since water is the underlying agent in most slope failures
Bplanting trees over the whole slope
Cconstructing a large concrete retaining wall
Dremoving all vegetation from the slope
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
In treating an unstable slope, work should proceed
Ain no particular order
Bfrom the top of the slope downward
Cfrom the middle outward
Dfrom the bottom upward
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
The selection of a bioengineering technique for a particular slope should be based primarily on
Athe personal preference of the engineer
Bthe availability of concrete
Cthe engineering function that is required — catch, armour, reinforce, anchor or support
Dthe technique used on the previous project
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 2077Ch 4 · Small Civil and Vegetative Structures in Bioengineering
Bioengineering works in the field most often fail because of
Alack of maintenance after construction
Bthe use of local species
Cover-design of the civil structures
Dexcessive rainfall in the first year
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
A contaminant that is strongly sorbed to soil particles may resist bioremediation because
Ait is not bioavailable to the micro-organisms, however capable they may be
Bit is toxic to all known organisms
Cit has already degraded
Dmicro-organisms cannot live in soil
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Highly chlorinated compounds such as tetrachloroethylene are degraded most effectively
Aunder aerobic conditions, by oxidation
Bonly by physical extraction
Cby adding more chlorine
Dunder anaerobic conditions, by reductive dechlorination
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Co-metabolism refers to the situation in which a micro-organism from it
Agrows faster on the contaminant than on any other substrate
Bconsumes two contaminants simultaneously for energy
Cdegrades a contaminant using an enzyme produced for another purpose, gaining no energy or carbon
Duses the contaminant as its sole carbon source
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Biostimulation differs from bioaugmentation in that biostimulation
Aadds nutrients or electron acceptors to stimulate the organisms already present
Bremoves the contaminated soil for treatment elsewhere
Cadds cultured micro-organisms to the site
Duses plants instead of micro-organisms
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Bioventing is distinguished from soil vapour extraction in that bioventing out
Asupplies air at low flow to stimulate biological degradation in place, rather than to strip the contaminant
Brequires excavation of the soil
Coperates only below the water table
Duses a much higher air flow rate to remove vapour
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Compared with ex situ bioremediation, in situ bioremediation is generally
Afaster and more easily monitored
Bcheaper and less disruptive, but slower and harder to control and verify
Cmore expensive in every case
Dapplicable only to metals
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Heavy metals differ fundamentally from organic contaminants in bioremediation because metals
Acannot interact with micro-organisms at all
Bare elements and cannot be destroyed, only transformed, immobilised or relocated
Care always non-toxic
Dare degraded more rapidly than organic compounds
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Micro-organisms can reduce hexavalent chromium to trivalent chromium, which is beneficial because trivalent chromium is
Amuch less toxic and far less mobile in soil and water
Bmore toxic but easier to detect
Cconverted into an organic compound
Dcompletely destroyed in the process
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
The bacterial methylation of mercury is a warning that biological transformation can
Amake a contaminant more toxic and more bioaccumulative than the original form
Balways reduce toxicity
Chave no effect on mobility
Ddestroy heavy metals completely
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
In phytostabilisation, the contaminant is
Ataken up into the harvestable parts of the plant
Bcompletely mineralised by the plant
Cimmobilised in the root zone rather than removed from the site
Dreleased to the atmosphere
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Monitored natural attenuation is an acceptable remediation strategy provided that monitored
Athe site is abandoned
Bthe degradation processes are demonstrated to be occurring at an adequate rate and the plume is
Cno monitoring is carried out at all
Dthe contamination is left entirely unexamined
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
A permeable reactive barrier is installed
Aat the ground surface to prevent infiltration
Baround the site to prevent access
Cin a treatment plant after pumping
Dacross the flow path of a contaminant plume, so that groundwater is treated as it passes through
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 2077Ch 4 · Bioremediation
Pump and treat systems for contaminated groundwater are now less favoured because standards are rarely reached
Athey are the cheapest option available
Bthey remove the contaminant too quickly
Cthey cannot pump groundwater
Dcontaminant diffusing slowly out of low-permeability layers causes tailing and rebound, so clean-up
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How do points and UDL be represented in SFD?
Asimple lines and curved lines
Bcurved lines and inclined lines
Csimple lines and inclined lines
Dboth curved lines
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When shear force diagram is parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is ________.
Apoint loads at two points
Bno loading at two points
CUDL between points
DUVL between points
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with UDL throughout?
Aw × l
Bw
Cw/l
Dw+l
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In purely bending, stress distribution in the beam is ________.
Alinear
Bparabolic
Celliptical
Dconstant
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Where is the absolute maximum shear force in simply supported beam with UDL?
ANear support
BCenter of beam
CAt 1/4 span from support
DAt 1/3 span from support
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If point load w(x) = sin(x/L) is acted on a beam, then shear force diagram is?
Alinear
Bparabolic curve
Csine curve
Dcosine curve
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The rate of change of shear force is called ________.
Abending moment
Bpoint load
Cintensity of load
Dslope
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Daverage of maximum-minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If shear force is constant throughout the section, then BM is ________.
Aconstant
Blinear
Cparabolic
Dcubic
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When the bending moment is constant over the beam the Shear Force will be?
AMaximum at support
BZero over the entire span
CMinimum at the mid-point
DMaximum over the entire span
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation between Shear force and Bending moment is ________.
AS = dM/dx
BM = dS/dx
CdM/dS = x
DdS/dM = x
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the shear force diagram of a simply supported beam is parabolic, then the load on the beam is ________.
Auniformly distributed load
Bconcentrated load at mid span
Cexternal moment acting at mid span
Dlinearly varying distributed load
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In simple bending, ________ is constant.
Ashear force
Bloading
Cdeformation
Dbending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam of uniform strength has constant ________.
Ashear force
Bbending moment
Ccross-sectional area
Ddeflection
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment is ________ at a hinged support.
Aalways maximum
Balways zero
Calways minimum
Deither minimum or max
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum B.M. of a cantilever beam lies at ________.
Athe free end
Bthe fixed end
Cmiddle of its length
D1/4 from fixed end
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Two people weighing W each are sitting on plank of length L floating on water at L/4 from either end. Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending moment at the centre of the plank is ________.
AWL/8
BWL/16
CWL/32
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The concavity produced on the beam section about the centre line when downward force acts on it is called as ________.
Ahogging or positive bending moment
Bhogging or negative bending moment
Csagging or positive bending moment
Dsagging or negative bending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At the point of contra flexure, the bending moment is ________.
Aequal to zero
Bchanges sign
Cmaximum
Dminimum
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The point of contraflexure is the point where ________.
Abending moment is maximum
Bbending moment is minimum
Cshear force is zero
Dbending moment changes sign
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment in a beam is not a function of ________.
Aposition of the load
Btype of beam
Ccross section of the beam
Dspan of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The bending moment in a beam does not depend upon its ________.
Aload intensity
Bspan
Ctype of support
Dmoment of inertia
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Abrupt change in BMD if ________ is applied.
Acouple
Bimpact load
Cshear force
Daxial force
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a B.M. diagram vertical line at a section indicates, ________.
Aconcentrated load
Bmoment
Cuniformly distributed load
Duniformly varying load
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope of the curve of B.M. diagram gives ________.
AS.F. at the section
BB.M. at the section
CUDL at the section
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The B.M. diagram for a cantilever beam carrying uniformly distributed load is ________.
Aa triangle
Ba parabola
Ca cubic parabola
Da rectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The B.M. at the fixed end of a cantilever beam subjected to UDL throughout span is ________.
Awl
Bwl²/2
Cwl²/4
Dwl²/8
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A fixed beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its entire span. The points of contra-flexure will occur on either side of the centre at a distance of ________ from the centre.
AL/√3
BL/3
CL/(2√3)
D4L/√3
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape of bending moment for a simple supported beam with point load at the mid-span is ________.
Arectangle
Btriangle
Cparabolic
Dhyperbolic
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a beam is subjected to simple bending, ________ is the same in both tension and compression for the material.
Amodulus of rigidity
Bmodulus of elasticity
CPoisson's ratio
Dmodulus of section
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a beam is subjected to pure bending, then the deformation of the beam is ________.
Aarc of circle
Btriangular
Ctrapezoidal
Drectangular
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress distribution over a rectangular cross-section of a beam follows ________.
Aa straight line path
Ba circular path
Ca parabolic path
Dan elliptical path
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress intensity is minimum at ________.
Aaxis of shaft
Bsurface of the shaft
Cany inside layer of the shaft
Dall the above are correct
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area is called ________.
Ashear stress
Bnormal stress
Cthermal stress
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then the normal stress on an oblique section of a body inclined at angle (θ) to the normal of the section is equal to ________.
Aσ sin θ
Bσ cos θ
Cσ sin² θ
Dσ cos² θ
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then maximum normal stress occurs at a section inclined at ________ to the normal section.
A0°
B30°
C45°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure p is ________.
Apd/2t
Bpd/4t
Cpd/6t
Dpd/8t
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to a transverse shear load, is ________.
Avariable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
Bvariable with maximum at the top of the beam
Cuniform
Dvariable with maximum on the neutral axis
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a rectangular section the ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress is ________.
A2
B1.5
C1.25
D1.75
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a circular section the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is ________.
A1.13
B1.23
C1.33
D1.43
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear centre of a section is defined as that point ________.
Athrough which the load must be applied to produce zero twisting moment on the section
Bat which shear force is zero
Cat which shear force is maximum
Dat which the shear force is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For RCC structure, the shape of shear stress diagram is ________.
Arectangular
Bparabolic
Cparabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
Drectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear stress induced in a member which is subjected to an axial load is equal to ________.
Amaximum normal stress
Bhalf of maximum normal stress
Ctwice the maximum normal stress
Dthrice the maximum normal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On principal plane, the value of shear stress is ________.
A(σx + σy)/2
Bzero
Cmaximum
D(σx − σy)/2
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The angle between major principal plane and minor principal plane will be always ________.
Agreater than 90°
Bless than 90°
Cequal to 90°
Dequal to 180°
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The plane of maximum shear stress has normal stress that is ________.
Amaximum
Bminimum
Czero
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On the Principal plane, shear stress is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Principal stress on the plane of maximum shear stress is ________.
Amaximum
Bzero
Cminimum
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The magnitude of direct stress, across a principal plane is known as ________.
Abending stress
Bprincipal stress
Cshear stress
Dnormal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
On a principle plane the magnitude of shear stress will be equal to ________.
Amaximum
Bminimum
Czero
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
ATorsional stress
BBending stress
CPrincipal stress
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a Mohr circle, the shear stress τ1 on the plane of maximum obliquity is ________.
Aless than the maximum shear stress τmax
Bmore than the maximum shear stress τmax
Cequal to the maximum shear stress τmax
Dnumerically equal to (σ1 − σ3)/2
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its own-weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be ________.
Aat the lower cross-section
Bat the built-in upper cross-section
Cat the central cross-section
Dat every point of the bar
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to direct stresses in two mutually perpendicular directions, tangential stress across inclined plane will be maximum when ________.
Aθ = 0°
Bθ = 45°
Cθ = 90°
Dθ = 180°
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is subjected to two tensile stresses of equal magnitude on two mutually perpendicular planes, the radius of Mohr circle will be ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress produced by sudden load is ________ times that is produced by gradual load.
A1/2
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam has a solid circular section having diameter d. If a section of the beam is subjected to a shear force F, then maximum shear stress in the cross section is given by ________.
A4F/(3πd²)
B16F/(3πd²)
C8F/(3πd²)
D3F/(16πd²)
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The proof resilience per unit volume is called ________.
Astrain energy
Bmodulus of resilience
Cvolumetric strain
DPoisson's ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called ________.
Alinear strain
Blateral strain
Cvolumetric strain
DPoisson's ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load beyond which a body will have permanent set is ________.
Arigidity
Bproof resilience
Cproof load
Dproof stress
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The correct sequence of stress-strain curve is as ________.
AEL, PL, TP, breaking point
BPL, YP, EL, breaking point
CPL, EL, YP, breaking point
DFL, BL, breaking point, YP
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Limit of proportionality depends upon ________.
Aarea of cross-section
Btype of loading
Ctype of material
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Every material obeys Hooke's law within its ________.
Aelastic limit
Bplastic limit
Climit of proportionality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load is called ________.
Aelastic point
Bplastic point
Cbreaking point
Dyielding point
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which point on the stress-strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
Alower yield point
Bupper yield point
Cultimate point
Dbreaking point
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ________.
Aelastic modulus
Bplastic modulus
CPoisson's ratio
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The total elongation of a bar due to its self-weight is (where w, L and E are the specific weight, length, and Young's modulus of the bar respectively) ________.
AwL²/E
Bw²L/E
CwL²/(2E)
Dw²L/(2E)
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is called ________.
Aelastic
Bisotropic
Cplastic
Dhomogeneous
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Highest value of stress for which Hooke's law is applicable for a given material is called ________.
Astress limit
Bstrain limit
Cproportional limit
Dsignificant limit
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture is called ________.
Aplastic
Belastic
Cbrittle
Dductile
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress components?
A1
B2
C3
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke's law, the number of independent elastic constants is ________.
A2
B3
C6
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the elastic modulus of a material if the Poisson's ratio for that material is 0.5?
Aequal to its shear modulus
Bthree times its shear modulus
Cfour times its shear modulus
Dnot determinable
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.3. What will be the ratio of Young's modulus to bulk modulus?
A1.4
B1.2
C0.8
D0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the ratio of Young's modulus to the modulus of rigidity of a material having Poisson's ratio 0.25?
A3.75
B3
C1.5
D2.5
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying capacity to that of solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is ________.
A15/16
B3/4
C1/2
D1/16
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A circular shaft is subjected to a torsion, the stress at the center of shaft is ________.
Azero
Bmaximum
Cminimum
Dinfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear stress at the outermost fibres of a circular shaft under torsion is ________.
Azero
Bminimum
Cmaximum
Dinfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If in a planar system, only 2 reaction forces are acting, then the system is ________.
Aessentially unstable
Bessentially stable
Ccan't say
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If all the reactions acting on a planar system are concurrent in nature, then the system is ________.
Acan't say
Bessentially stable
Cessentially unstable
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a system has more equations of equilibrium than number of forces, then the system is ________.
Aimproperly constrained
Bpartially constrained
Cstable
Dsolvable
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in concurrent force system under equilibrium is ________.
Azero
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How many cases out of the following are improperly constrained? Parallel forces, concurrent forces, perpendicular forces, only moment.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam of uniform strength can be obtained by ________.
Akeeping the width uniform and varying the depth
Bkeeping the depth uniform and varying the width
Cvarying the width and depth both
Dany one of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A beam is said to be of uniform strength if ________.
Athe shear stress is constant throughout the beam
Bthe extreme fibre stress is the same at every section
Cbending moment is constant throughout the length of the beam
Ddeflection is the same throughout the length of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shear in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is ________.
Apositive
Bzero
Cnegative
Dintermediate
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Beyond elastic limit, tensile strain ________.
Aincreases more quickly
Bdecreases more quickly
Cincrease in proportion to stress
Ddecrease in proportion to stress
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is said to be ________.
Ahomogeneous
Belastic
Cisotropic
Dvisco elastic
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic constants required to relate stress and strain is ________.
Atwo
Bthree
Cfour
Dsix
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and homogeneous material is ________.
A4
B3
C2
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deterioration of the properties of a material which is subjected to repeatedly applied stress is termed as ________.
Aisotropic
Bcreep
Celasticity
Dfatigue
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the shape of load-deformation curve for a linear elastic member?
AStraight line with constant slope
BStraight line with varying slope
CCurve
DSine wave
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the shape of load-deformation curve for a non-linear elastic member?
AStraight line with constant slope
BStraight line with varying slope
CCurve
DCircle
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the relation between work done and complementary work done?
AThey are unequal
BThey are equal
CCan't say
DDepends upon loading
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The unit of elastic modulus is the same as those of ________.
Astress, shear modulus and pressure
Bstrain, shear modulus and force
Cshear modulus, stress and force
Dstress, strain and pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How the elastic constants E and K are related?
AE = 2K(1 − 2μ)
BE = 3K(1 − 2μ)
CE = 2K(1 − μ)
DE = K(1 − 2μ)
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation between Young's Modulus (E), shear modulus (G) and Poisson's ratio (μ) is correctly given by the expression ________.
AG = E/[2(1 + μ)]
BE = G/[2(1 + μ)]
CG = E/[2(1 − μ)]
DE = G/[2(1 − μ)]
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At yield point of test specimen, the material ________.
AObeys Hooke's law
Bbehaves in an elastic manner
Cregains its original shape
Dundergoes plastic deformation
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the limiting values of Poisson's ratio?
A−1 and 0.5
B−1 and −0.5
C−0.5 and 0
D0 and 0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is true if the value of Poisson's ratio is zero?
AThe material is rigid
BThe material is perfectly plastic
CThe longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
DThe lateral strain in the material is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
________ curve is formed due to bending of overhanging beams.
AElastic
BPlastic
CFlexural
DAxial
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Curvature of the beam is ________ to bending moment.
Aequal
Bdirectly proportional
Cinversely proportional
Dcoincides
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The term EI d²y/dx² represents ________.
Ashear force
Bbending moment
Cslope of bending moment diagram
Dmaxima/minima condition for deflection
Answer is hidden
Question 1060 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The resistance offered by a material to deformation when subjected to external load is ________.
Aresistivity
Bresilience
Cstress
Dstrain
Answer is hidden
Question 1061 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
________ is a property of a material by virtue of it, material regain original shape after removal of load.
Arigidity
Bplasticity
Celasticity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1062 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The phenomenon of slow extension of materials with time under constant load is called ________.
Ayielding
Bcreep
Cbreaking
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1063 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the bulk modulus of elasticity?
AThe ratio of shear stress to shear strain
BThe ratio of direct stress to direct strain
CThe ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain
DThe ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain
Answer is hidden
Question 1064 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
At the neutral axis, bending stress is ________.
Aminimum
Bmaximum
Czero
Dconstant
Answer is hidden
Question 1065 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the theory of simple bending, the bending stress in the beam section varies ________.
Alinearly
Bparabolic
Celliptically
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1066 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a beam, effect of bending stress is ________ effect of shear stress.
Agreater than
Bless than
Cequal to
Dnegligible
Answer is hidden
Question 1067 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Area moment of inertia of the cross-section of the beam resist ________.
Athe applied normal force
Bboth the torque and bending moment
Cthe applied torque
Dthe applied bending moment of the beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1068 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to maximum bending moment of 2.25 t.m. If it has rectangular cross section, with width 15 cm and depth 30 cm, then maximum bending stress induced in the beam will be ________.
A50 kg/cm²
B100 kg/cm²
C150 kg/cm²
D225 kg/cm²
Answer is hidden
Question 1069 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load on a spring per unit deflection is called ________.
Astiffness
Bproof resilience
Cproof stress
Dproof load
Answer is hidden
Question 1070 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Moment required to produce unit rotation is called ________.
Aflexibility
Bstiffness
Crigidity
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1071 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Two beam sections, one is circular and other square made from same materials and having same cross-sectional area, when subjected to bending ________.
Amoment of resistance for both beams is same
Bcircular section has higher M.R.
Csquare section has higher M.R.
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1072 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The flexural member beam is designed for ________.
Amaximum SF at center
Bminimum shear force at center
Cmaximum BM at center
Dminimum bending moment at center
Answer is hidden
Question 1073 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The equation of flexure is ________.
AM/I = σ/y = E/R
B1/I = σ/y = E/R
CI/M = y/σ = E/R
DM/I = σ/y = E/R
Answer is hidden
Question 1074 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
As per the Euler's theory, failure in column will be by ________.
Abuckling
Bcrippling
Ccrushing
Dcrippling and buckling
Answer is hidden
Question 1075 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's formula is not valid, for mild steel column when slenderness ratio is ________.
Amore than 80
Bless than 80
Cmore than 120
Dmore than 30
Answer is hidden
Question 1076 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A column that fails due to direct stress is called ________.
Ashort column
Blong column
Cweak column
Dslender column
Answer is hidden
Question 1077 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The buckling load for a given column depends upon ________.
Across sectional area of column
Blength and least radius of gyration
Cmodulus of elasticity of column material
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1078 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The buckling load will be maximum for a column, if ________.
Aone end of column is clamped and other free
Bboth ends of the column are clamped
Cboth ends of the column are hinged
Done end of the column is hinged and other clamped
Answer is hidden
Question 1079 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The formula which can be used for column load to account combined effect of bending and direct stresses is ________.
AEuler's formula
BRankine's formula
CPerry's formula
DStraight line formula
Answer is hidden
Question 1080 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The load at which column just starts buckling is called ________.
Acrippling load
Bbuckling load
Ccritical load
Dany one of these
Answer is hidden
Question 1081 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Slenderness ratio of long column is ________.
Aarea of cross section divided by radius of gyration
Barea of cross section divided by least radius of gyration
Cradius of gyration divided by area of cross section
Dlength of column divided by least radius of gyration
Answer is hidden
Question 1082 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For long columns, the value of buckling load is ________ crushing load.
Aequal to
Bless than
Cmore than
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1083 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The direct stress induced in a long column is ________ as compared to bending stress.
Asame
Bmore
Cless
Dnegligible
Answer is hidden
Question 1084 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The nature of crippling load in a column is ________.
Atensile load
Bcompressive load
Clive load
Ddead load
Answer is hidden
Question 1085 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a long column with one end fixed and other end hinged, effective length is ________.
AL
BL/2
CL/√2
D2L
Answer is hidden
Question 1086 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Given that the unsupported length of the column with both ends fixed is L. What will be the unsupported length of an equivalent column with one end fixed and the other end free?
AL
BL/2
CL/4
DL/8
Answer is hidden
Question 1087 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of effective length to actual length of column with one end free and other end fixed is ________.
A2
B0.5
C0.33
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1088 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The effective length of column of length L, fixed against rotation and translation at one end is ________.
A0.5L
B0.7L
C1.414L
D2L
Answer is hidden
Question 1089 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a circular column having its ends hinged, the slenderness ratio is 160. The L/d ratio of the column is ________.
A80
B57
C40
D20
Answer is hidden
Question 1090 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
An electric pole is 5 m high from the ground level. Its effective length for design purpose will be ________.
A2.5 m
B3.53 m
C5.0 m
D10 m
Answer is hidden
Question 1091 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a column of length L is restrained against horizontal and vertical displacement and is free to rotate at both ends, its equivalent length will be ________.
A2L
BL
C0.5L
D0.707L
Answer is hidden
Question 1092 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What should be the effective length of compression members effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at both ends as per IS code?
A0.75L
B0.65L
C0.55L
D0.45L
Answer is hidden
Question 1093 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The effective length used in crippling load formula for a column with both ends fixed is ________.
AL/2
BL
C2L
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 1094 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A column of length L is fixed at both ends. It is equivalent to another column with both ends hinged having length ________.
AL
B2L
CL/2
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 1095 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When does Euler's buckling occur in a column?
AWhen the column is compressed beyond its yield strength
BWhen the column is subjected to torsional forces
CWhen the column is subjected to bending moments
DWhen the column is axially loaded and has a slenderness ratio above a critical value
Answer is hidden
Question 1096 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
P = π²EI/(4L²) is the equation of Euler's crippling load, if ________.
Aboth ends are fixed
Bboth ends are hinged
Cone end is fixed and other end is free
Done end is fixed and other end is hinged
Answer is hidden
Question 1097 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For the case of a slender column of length L and flexural rigidity EI built-in at base and free at top, Euler's critical load is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C3π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 1098 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's equation for crippling load when both ends of column are hinged is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B4π²EI/L²
Cπ²EI/(4L²)
D2π²EI/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 1099 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a column is fixed at both ends then corresponding Euler's critical load is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B4π²EI/L²
Cπ²EI/(4L²)
D2π²EI/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 1100 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Euler's crippling load formula with one end fixed and other hinged is given by ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C4π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 1101 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's crippling load for column of one end fixed and other end free condition is ________.
Aπ²EI/L²
B2π²EI/L²
C4π²EI/L²
Dπ²EI/(4L²)
Answer is hidden
Question 1102 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Euler's crippling load of a square column cross section will be ________ if its side is doubled.
A1/2 times
B1/4 times
C2 times
D16 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1103 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of Euler's crippling load for column with both ends fixed to that of both ends hinged is ________.
A0.5
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1104 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of Euler's crippling load for column with both ends fixed and column with one end fixed and other hinged is ________.
A2
B0.5
C0.25
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1105 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is statically determinate structure?
AFixed beam
BContinuous beam
CTwo hinged arch
DDouble overhanging beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1106 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is an example for statically determinate structure?
ATwo hinged arch
BCantilever beam
CFixed beam
DContinuous beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1107 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which condition applies for statically indeterminate beams?
ANo. of equilibrium conditions are more than no. of reactions
BNo. of reactions are more than no. of equilibrium conditions
CNo. of reactions are equal to no. of equilibrium conditions
DNo. of reactions are more than no. of forces
Answer is hidden
Question 1108 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the forces in the members of a structure as well as the reactions can be found by the conditions of equilibrium, then it is known as ________.
AStatically stable
BStatically unstable
CStatically determinate
DStatically indeterminate
Answer is hidden
Question 1109 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If 4 reactions are acting on a beam, then the system is ________.
AUnstable and indeterminate
BStable and indeterminate
CStable and determinate
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 1110 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How many compatibility equations should be written if we have n number of redundant reactions?
An - 1
Bn
Cn + 1
Dn + 2
Answer is hidden
Question 1111 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Static indeterminacy for rigid jointed plane frame is given by ________.
A(m + r) - 2j
B(m + r) - 3j
C(3m + r) - 3j
D(6m + r) - 6j
Answer is hidden
Question 1112 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Static indeterminacy for pin jointed plane frame is given by ________.
A(m + r) - 2j
B(m + r) - 3j
C(3m + r) - 3j
D(6m + r) - 6j
Answer is hidden
Question 1113 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If in a pin jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is ________. Where 'm' is number of members, 'r' is reaction components and 'j' is number of joints.
AUnstable
BStable and statically indeterminate
CStable and determinate
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1114 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a statically indeterminate pin-jointed plane truss, the relation between number of members 'm' and number of joints 'j' is expressed as ________.
Am = 3j - 6
Bm > 2j - 3
Cm = 2j - 3
Dm > 3j - 6
Answer is hidden
Question 1115 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically determinate if ________.
A(m + r) = 3j
B(3m + r) = 3j
C(m + 3r) = 3j
D(3m + r) < 2j
Answer is hidden
Question 1116 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A continuous beam has a fixed end at support A and roller support at B and C. What will be the degree of redundancy of the structure?
A3
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1117 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a structure has 2j - r number of members, then it will be ________.
AStable
BUnstable
CDepends upon structure
DDepends upon magnitude of load
Answer is hidden
Question 1118 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a structure has total 10 joints, then what should be the minimum number of joints in which equilibrium equations should be concurrently satisfied for stability?
A7
B8
C9
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1119 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A plane truss has 11 members and 8 joints, how many additional members are needed to make the truss stable?
A0
B1
C2
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 1120 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15 members, 3 reaction components and 14 joints is ________.
A2
B3
C6
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 1121 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The number of independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid jointed space frame is ________.
A2
B4
C6
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 1122 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of static indeterminacy of propped cantilever beam is ________.
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1123 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The propped cantilever beam is indeterminate by ________ degree.
A1
B2
C3
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 1124 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is indeterminate structure?
ATwo hinge arches
BThree hinge arches
CSimple supported beam
DCantilever beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1125 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of pin jointed plane frame is ________.
A2j - r
Bj - 2r
C3j - r
D2j + r
Answer is hidden
Question 1126 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The degree of Kinematic Indeterminacy (Dk) for pin jointed space frame if members are extensible is: Where, r = Number of reactions, j = Number of joints and m = Number of members (members whole, extension is neglected).
ADk = [3j - r]
BDk = [2j - (m + r)]
CDk = [2j - r]
DDk = [6j - r]
Answer is hidden
Question 1127 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Find the indeterminacy of given figure.
A0
B6
C4
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 1128 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Conservation of energy will be applicable only when ________.
AStatic load is applied
BDynamic load is applied
CCan be anything
DLarge load is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 1129 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Strain energy stored in a bar due to axial load P is ________.
AP²L/AE
BP²L/(2AE)
CPL/(2AE)
DP²L/(4AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 1130 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Interpret from the following which one is wrong with respect to strain energy method for finding deflection?
ADeflection can be found only in the direction of load
BDeflection can be found at any point in the desired direction
CDeflection can be found only at the loaded point
DStructure should be subjected to a single concentrated load
Answer is hidden
Question 1131 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The strain energy stored in a simply supported beam of span 'l' due to central point load 'w' is ________.
Aw²l³/(48EI)
Bw²l³/(48EI)
Cw²l³/(96EI)
Dw²l²/(96EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1132 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering permanent distortion, is known as ________.
AImpact energy
BProof resilience
CProof stress
DModulus of resilience
Answer is hidden
Question 1133 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The partial derivative of strain energy gives ________.
ADeflection
BSlope
CMoment
DRedundant force
Answer is hidden
Question 1134 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load and gradually applied load is ________.
A0.5
B1
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1135 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work can be applied when ________.
AElastic limit is exceeded
BElastic limit is not exceeded
CDoesn't depend upon elastic limit
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 1136 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work method can be applied when ________.
ASupports are moving
BSupports are not moving
CCan be applied in both case
DCan be applied in neither cases
Answer is hidden
Question 1137 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of virtual work is used to satisfy ________.
AMechanism condition
BEquilibrium condition
CPlasticity condition
DNo condition is satisfied
Answer is hidden
Question 1138 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work is used to determine ________.
AYield load
BElastic load
CPlastic load
DCollapse load
Answer is hidden
Question 1139 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a body is in equilibrium undergoes an infinitely small displacement, work imagined to be done is known as ________.
AImaginary work
BNegative work
CVirtual work
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1140 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a rigid body is in equilibrium under a system of forces, the virtual work done by this system of forces during virtual displacement is zero. This principle is known as ________.
AWork energy principle
BMecaulay's principle
CBernoulli's principle
DCastigliano's principle
Answer is hidden
Question 1141 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Virtual work refers to ________.
AVirtual work done by virtual forces
BVirtual work done by actual forces
CActual work done by actual forces
DActual work done by virtual forces
Answer is hidden
Question 1142 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following is important while designing Beam?
ASF at support
BBM at support
CSF at center
DBM at center
Answer is hidden
Question 1143 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment area method is not suitable for which type of beams?
ACantilevers beams
BContinuous beams
CSimply supported beams
DBeams fixed at both ends
Answer is hidden
Question 1144 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is ________.
AWl³/(48EI)
BWl³/(96EI)
CWl³/(192EI)
DWl³/(384EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1145 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at ________.
AFixed ends
BCenter of beam
Cl/3 from ends
DAny of these
Answer is hidden
Question 1146 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection at center of fixed beam with uniformly distributed load w per unit length over its length L is ________.
AwL⁴/(384EI)
BwL³/(384EI)
CwL⁴/(192EI)
DwL³/(192EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1147 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection at center of fixed beam with total load W (kN) applied uniformly over its length L is ________.
AWL⁴/(384EI)
BWL³/(384EI)
CWL⁴/(192EI)
DWL³/(192EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1148 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the case of a beam simply supported at both ends, if the same load instead of being concentrated at center is distributed uniformly throughout the length, then the deflection at center will get reduced by ________.
A1/2 times
B1/4 times
C5/8 times
D3/8 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1149 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A cantilever beam of length l carries a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at fixed end. The maximum deflection lies at ________.
AFree end
BFixed end
CMid-span
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1150 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Deflection at mid span of simply supported beam subjected to couple M at both ends is ________.
AML²/(16EI)
BML²/(8EI)
CML³/(24EI)
DML/(2EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1151 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The deflection of simply supported beam having point load W acting at its center is ________.
AWL³/(3EI)
BWL³/(12EI)
CWL³/(48EI)
D5WL³/(384EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1152 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the deflection of a cantilever beam subjected to a point load W at its free end?
AWL³/(3EI)
BWL⁴/(4EI)
CWL³/(6EI)
DWL²/(2EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1153 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection is ________.
A1/325 of the span
B1/300 of the span
C1/350 of the span
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1154 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If m₁ and m₂ are the two individual members of truss of a compound truss, the truss is determinate and static if ________.
Am = m₁ + m₂
Bm = m₁ + m₂ + 1
Cm = m₁ + m₂ + 2
Dm = m₁ + m₂ + 3
Answer is hidden
Question 1155 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a ________.
AFixed support
BHinged support
CRoller support
DFree support
Answer is hidden
Question 1156 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The conjugate method falls in the category of ________.
AForce method
BDisplacement
CStiffness
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1157 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives ________ in the actual beam.
ASlope
BDeflection
CCurvature
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1158 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment area method is not suitable for which type of beams?
ACantilevers beams
BContinuous beams
CSimply supported beams
DBeams fixed at both ends
Answer is hidden
Question 1159 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The relation, slope = area of BMD/EI, is given by ________.
AMohr's first theorem
BMohr's second theorem
CCastigliano's theorem
DMacaulay's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 1160 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Shear force at any section in a conjugate beam gives ________ in the actual beam.
ASlope
BDeflection
CCurvature
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1161 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the moment area method, the difference in slope between two sections of a beam is equal to the ________.
AArea of M/EI diagram between these two sections
BMoment of M/EI diagram between these two sections
C1/2 area of M/EI diagram between these two sections
D1/2 moment of M/EI diagram between these two sections
Answer is hidden
Question 1162 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In the moment area method, the deflection of point A from a tangent at B is equal to ________.
AArea of M/EI diagram between A and B
BMoment of M/EI diagram between A and B about A
CMoment of M/EI diagram between A and B about B
D1/2 area of M/EI diagram between A and B
Answer is hidden
Question 1163 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The theorem of three moments is applicable only when ________.
AThe beam is prismatic
BThe spans are equal
CThere is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
DThere are at least 2 spans
Answer is hidden
Question 1164 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fixed end of a continuous beam in Clapeyron's equation is replaced by an additional span of length ________.
AZero length
BInfinite length
CEqual to other span lengths
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1165 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In influence line diagrams (ILD) ________.
APoints remain fixed, position of load changes
BPoints change, position of loads remain fixed
CBoth of them change
DNeither of them changes
Answer is hidden
Question 1166 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line is ________.
AThe line showing stress function due to unit moving load
BThe line showing stress function due to unit load
CThe line showing stress function due to UDL
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1167 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD means ________.
AInfluence length diagram
BInfluence line diagram
CInfluence line distance
DInfluence line diagnosis
Answer is hidden
Question 1168 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line diagram refers to ________.
ADoes not have any impact on position of loading
BPoints change, position of loads remain fixed
CNo consideration of loads
DPoints remain fixed, position of load changes
Answer is hidden
Question 1169 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which statement is correct for ILD?
AILD of statically determinate beams consist of straight lines
BILD of statically indeterminate beams consist of curved lines
CBoth of the above
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1170 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence lines are drawn for structures ________.
AIndeterminate
BDeterminate
CAny type
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1171 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
How is an influence line diagram constructed?
ABy plotting the shear force and bending moment diagrams for a structure
BBy plotting the distribution of forces in a structure
CBy plotting the deflection of a structure under a load
DBy plotting the load effect on a specific point in a structure as a function of the position of the load
Answer is hidden
Question 1172 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For drawing ILD, what value of test load is assumed?
A1 unit
BArbitrary
CDepends upon structure
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 1173 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Identify the incorrect statement about Muller Breslau principle.
AIt is applicable when the material is within the elastic limit and obeys Hooke's law
BIt gives analytical method to find influence line diagram
CIt is applicable only for indeterminate structures
DIt gives excellent experimental approach to determine the influence lines for indeterminate structures
Answer is hidden
Question 1174 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Muller Breslau principle in structural analysis is used for ________.
ADrawing influence line diagram for any force function
BWriting virtual work equation
CSuperposition of load effects
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1175 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Muller Breslau principle of influence line is applicable for ________.
ASimple beam
BContinuous beam
CRedundant truss
DAll of these
Answer is hidden
Question 1176 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
To draw ILD for statically indeterminate beams, principle used is ________.
AMaxwell
BMuller-Breslau
CCastigliano
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1177 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The line showing the variations of stress function at a given point due to a unit load moving on a span is known as ________.
ALoad line
BInfluence line
CCurve line
DStress function line
Answer is hidden
Question 1178 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line for the structural function is used for obtaining maximum value because of: A. Uniformly distributed load B. Single point load C. Series of concentrated load.
AOnly A
BA and B
CB and C
DA, B and C
Answer is hidden
Question 1179 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What will be the shape of ILD curve for vertical reaction at point A (RAy)?
ATriangular
BCircular
CRectangular
DTrapezoidal
Answer is hidden
Question 1180 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for reaction at the support of a cantilever will be ________.
ATriangle with zero ordinate at fixed end and unit ordinate at free end
BTriangle with unit ordinate at fixed end and zero ordinate at free end
CRectangle with ordinate 1/2
DRectangle with unit ordinate
Answer is hidden
Question 1181 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for BM at a section of a simply supported beam will be a ______.
Atriangle with maximum ordinate at the section and zero at the support nearer to the two supports
Btriangle with maximum ordinate at the section and zero at the other support
Crectangle with unit ordinate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1182 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for BM at a section in a cantilever will be a triangle extending between the section and the ______.
Afixed end with maximum ordinate under the section
Bfixed end with maximum ordinate under the fixed end
Cunsupported end with maximum ordinate at the section
Dunsupported end with maximum ordinate at the supported end
Answer is hidden
Question 1183 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The influence line diagram for reaction at a support of a simply supported beam is ______.
Aa triangle with ordinate 1 at that support and zero at the other support
Ba triangle with ordinate 1
Ca rectangle with ordinate 1
Da rectangle with ordinate 1/2
Answer is hidden
Question 1184 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam AB of span L, if unit load is at x distance from A, then RB = ______.
A(L − x) / L
Bx / L
C(x − L) / L
DL / x
Answer is hidden
Question 1185 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam AB of span L, if unit load is at x distance from A, then RA = ______.
A(L − x) / L
Bx / L
C(x − L) / L
DL / x
Answer is hidden
Question 1186 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Equation to find ILD for member of Truss is ______.
Aa(L − a) / (Lh)
Ba(L − a) / L
Ca(L − a) / h
D(L − a) / (Lh)
Answer is hidden
Question 1187 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If on ILD analysis peak force comes out to be 2 kN, then what will be the peak force if loading is single point load?
A1 kN
B2 kN
C3 kN
D4 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 1188 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A single-rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15 m span. The absolute maximum bending moment will be ______.
A60 kN-m
B40 kN-m
C20 kN-m
D30 kN-m
Answer is hidden
Question 1189 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A single rolling load of 40 kN rolls from left end along a simply supported girder of span 20 m. The absolute maximum positive and negative shear force, respectively, are ______.
A14 kN and −26 kN
B40 kN and −40 kN
C26 kN and −14 kN
D20 kN and −20 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 1190 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A UDL of 10 kN/m of length 5 m is moving from left to right support on a simply supported beam of span 10 m. The maximum bending moment at 4 m from the left support is ______.
A70 kN-m
B90 kN-m
C50 kN-m
D30 kN-m
Answer is hidden
Question 1191 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder, moves from left to right, the conditions for maximum bending moment at a section is that ______.
Athe head of the load reaches the section
Bthe tail of the load reaches the section
Cthe load position should be such that the section divides it equally on both sides
Dthe load position should be such that the section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
Answer is hidden
Question 1192 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder ______.
Aalways occurs at center of span
Balways occurs under a wheel load
Cnever occurs under a wheel load
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1193 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Influence line diagram for bending moment in a simply supported beam is a ______.
Astraight line
Bparabola
Ctriangle
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1194 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD for reaction at fixed support of cantilever beam is ______.
A1 ordinate throughout the span
B1 ordinate at free end, 0 ordinate at fixed support
C1 ordinate at fixed support, 0 ordinate at free end
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1195 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD for shear force at a section for a cantilever beam is ______.
Atriangle between free and fixed end
Btriangle between free and section
Crectangle between free and fixed end
Drectangle between free and section
Answer is hidden
Question 1196 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
ILD for the shear force at the support of the cantilever beam is ______.
Azero throughout the span
Btriangle with zero at free end
Crectangle throughout the span
Dtriangle with zero at fixed end
Answer is hidden
Question 1197 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD of a three hinged arch of span L and rise h due to horizontal thrust H is ______.
Atriangle with maximum ordinate at center equals L/(24h)
Bsquare with its ordinate equal to L/(24h)
Csquare with its ordinate equal to L/(2h)
Dtriangle with its maximum ordinate at center equals L/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 1198 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following are statically determinate beams?
AOnly simply supported beams
BCantilever, overhanging and simply supported
CFixed beams
DContinuous beams
Answer is hidden
Question 1199 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In two-hinged arch, how many unknown forces exist?
AOne unknown
BTwo unknowns
CThree unknowns
DFour unknowns
Answer is hidden
Question 1200 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the degree of indeterminacy of a two hinged arch?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1201 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Identify the incorrect statement according to the hinged arches.
AThree hinged arch is a statically determinate structure
BTo analyze three hinged arch, equilibrium equations are sufficient
CFor three hinged parabolic arch subjected to UDL over the entire span, the bending moment is constant throughout the span
DFor two hinged parabolic arch subjected to UDL over the entire span, the bending moment is zero throughout the span
Answer is hidden
Question 1202 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In hinge less arch, it is supported to ______.
Astable
Bgeometrically unstable
C2nd degree
D3rd degree
Answer is hidden
Question 1203 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The masonry arches resist the external loads by ______.
Anormal thrust and shear
Bnormal thrust, radial shear and moment
Cbending moment and radial shear
Dthrust only
Answer is hidden
Question 1204 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
An arch can be treated as a curved beam ............
Awhose ends are restrained against horizontal movement
Bwhose ends do not provide any reaction
Cwhose ends are unsupported
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1205 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In arches and lintels, back is the ............
Ahighest point on the extrados of an arch
Bupper surface of an arch
Cunder surface of an arch
Douter curve of an arch ring
Answer is hidden
Question 1206 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The line of thrust of the linear arch is ............
Athe axis of the arch
Bthe imaginary line of thrust for a given set of loads
Cthe springing line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1207 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moments in the arch will be zero, if ............
Aends are hinged
Bends are fixed
Cthe arch axis coincides with the line of thrust
Dthe arch axis is parallel to the line of thrust
Answer is hidden
Question 1208 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The vertical reaction for the arch is [W load acting at 'a' distance from support with span 2l] ............
AWa/2l
BWl/a
CWa/l
DWa²/2l
Answer is hidden
Question 1209 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The vertical distance between the springing line and the highest point on the intrados is called ............ of the arch.
Adepth
Bextrados
Chaunch
Drise
Answer is hidden
Question 1210 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The top most part of an arch is called ............
Asoffit
Bcrown
Ccenter
Dabutment
Answer is hidden
Question 1211 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The normal thrust at any section along the tangent to the centerline of the arch is ............
AH cos θ + V sin θ
BV cos θ + H sin θ
CH cos θ − V sin θ
DV cos θ − H sin θ
Answer is hidden
Question 1212 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Radial shear in two hinged arch, tangent to the arch makes an angle theta with horizontal ............
AH cos θ + V sin θ
BV cos θ + H sin θ
CH cos θ − V sin θ
DV cos θ − H sin θ
Answer is hidden
Question 1213 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a two hinged arch, if one of the supports settles horizontally, then the horizontal thrust ............
Ais increased
Bis decreased
Cremains unchanged
Dbecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 1214 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a two-hinged arch, the moment will be zero under which condition?
AWhen the arch span is equal to the rise
BWhen the arch is subjected to a uniform load
CWhen the thrust axis and the hinge axis coincide
DWhen the supports are fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 1215 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a two hinged parabolic arch, an increase in temperature will ............
Adecrease the horizontal thrust
Bincrease the bending moment
Cincrease the horizontal thrust
Dmake no change in horizontal thrust
Answer is hidden
Question 1216 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The locus of the reaction of a two-hinged semi-circular arch is ............
Astraight line
Bparabola
Ccircle
Dhyperbola
Answer is hidden
Question 1217 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ILD of horizontal thrust in a 2 hinge parabolic arch is ............
Aparabolic
Bcircular
Ctriangular
Dfunicular polygon
Answer is hidden
Question 1218 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a two hinged arch having constant EI, the horizontal thrust H at a point (x, y) on the arch, in terms of beam moment M is given by ............
A∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y³ ds/EI)
B∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y ds/EI)
C∫My²(dy/dx) / ∫(y² ds/EI)
D∫My(dy/dx) / ∫(y² ds/EI)
Answer is hidden
Question 1219 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For given two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m, and 10 m respectively and carrying concentrated crown load W, ratio of horizontal thrust at their support will be ............
A1 : 1 : 1
B1 : 1.5 : 2
C2 : 1.5 : 1
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1220 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A parabolic two hinged arch is loaded with a concentrated load W at the crown. The horizontal thrust is equal to ............ [Where 'L' is the span and 'h' is the rise]
A54WL/128h
B25WL/128h
C50WL/128h
D36WL/128h
Answer is hidden
Question 1221 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged semicircular arch loaded with point load at its crown.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
DW/(2π)
Answer is hidden
Question 1222 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged semicircular arch loaded uniformly throughout with distributed load.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
DW/(2π)
Answer is hidden
Question 1223 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The horizontal thrust in a two hinged semi-circular arch subjected to UDL of w kN/m over left half span will be ............
A4wR/(3π)
BwR/2
CwR
D2wR/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 1224 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries a concentrated load W at the crown. Horizontal thrust acting on the arch at the hinge would be ............
AW/(2π)
BW/π
C2W/3
D4W/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 1225 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged parabolic arch loaded uniformly throughout with distributed load.
AWL²/(32H)
BWL²/(16H)
CWL²/(8H)
DWL²/(2H)
Answer is hidden
Question 1226 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Calculate the horizontal thrust for the two hinged parabolic arch loaded with point load at its crown.
AW/π
BW/(π sin² α)
C4RW/(3π)
D25WL/(128H)
Answer is hidden
Question 1227 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum shear force in three hinged parabolic arch usually occurs at ............
Aquarter span
Bcrown
Cspringings
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1228 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In three hinged arch, maximum hogging moment occurs when, the point load is at ............
Aspringing
Bcrown
Cquarter span
Dthe section itself
Answer is hidden
Question 1229 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged arch is hinged at supports end ............
Aat one quarter span
Bat the crown
Canywhere in arch
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1230 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Shape of three hinged arch is always ............
Ahyperbolic
Bcircular
Cparabolic
Dcan be any arbitrary curve
Answer is hidden
Question 1231 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every section of the arch resists ............
Acompressive force
Btensile force
Cshear force
Dbending moment
Answer is hidden
Question 1232 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum bending moment due to concentrated load in three hinged parabolic arches having one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at the distance ............
AL/4
BL/2
CL/(2√3)
DL/(3√2)
Answer is hidden
Question 1233 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The maximum ordinate under the crown hinge of influence line diagram for the horizontal thrust of three hinged arch is equal to where L is span of the arch and h is the height of the crown hinge.
AL/(4h)
BL/(8h)
CL/(2h)
DL/(6h)
Answer is hidden
Question 1234 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If the span of a three hinged arch is L, h is the rise and UVL with maximum ordinate 'w' acting over the entire span, the horizontal reaction at each support is given by:
AwL²/(8h)
BwL²/(10h)
CwL²/(16h)
DwL²/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 1235 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If 'L' is the span of a three hinged arch, 'h' is the rise and 'W' is the u.d.l. per unit length over the entire span, the horizontal reaction at each support is given by:
AWL²/(8h)
BWL²/(10h)
CWL²/(16h)
DWL²/(4h)
Answer is hidden
Question 1236 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Internal bending moment generated in a three hinged arch is always ............
A0
Binfinite
Cvaries
Dnon zero value but remains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 1237 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Internal shear force generated in a three hinged arch is always ............
A0
Binfinite
Cvaries
Dnon zero value but remains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 1238 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A three-hinged parabolic arch has a span of 30 m and the central rise is 5 m. It is subjected to a point load of 8 kN at a distance of 20 m from the right hinge. Calculate the vertical reaction component at its left support.
A35.35 kN
B40 kN
C13.13 kN
D26.67 kN
Answer is hidden
Question 1239 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In case of a symmetric, fixed parabolic arch of span L and rise h, elastic centre is at a depth ............ below the crown.
Ah/4
Bh/3
Ch/2
Dh
Answer is hidden
Question 1240 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Flexibility matrix method of analysis is basically ............
Aforce method
Bdisplacement method
Cequilibrium method
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1241 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Flexibility matrix is always ............
Asymmetric
Bnon-symmetric
Canti-symmetric
Ddepends upon loads applied
Answer is hidden
Question 1242 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Castigliano's theorem represents which one of the following methods?
Aequilibrium
Bflexibility
Cdisplacement
Dforce
Answer is hidden
Question 1243 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Castigliano's theorem fall under the category of ............
Adisplacement method
Bequilibrium method
Cforce method
Dstiffness method
Answer is hidden
Question 1244 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
According to Castigliano's first theorem partial derivative of strain energy U with respect to force P will give ............
Aslope
Bdeflection
Cmoment
Dshear force
Answer is hidden
Question 1245 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The Castigliano's second theorem can be used to compute deflections ............
Ain statically determinate structure only
Bat the point under the load
Cfor the beam and frame only
Dfor any type of structure
Answer is hidden
Question 1246 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The unit load method used in structural analysis is ............
Aapplicable only to statically determinate structures
Banother name of stiffness method
Can extension of Maxwell's reciprocal theorem
Dderived from Castigliano's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 1247 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Maxwell's reciprocal theorem is valid for all ............
Astatically determinate structures
Bstructures
Celastic structures
Dstructures with linear force displacement relations
Answer is hidden
Question 1248 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of least work is ............
ACastigliano's first theorem
BCastigliano's second theorem
CPrinciple of superposition
DMuller Breslau principle
Answer is hidden
Question 1249 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The systematic development of slope deflection method in the matrix form is known as ............
Astiffness matrix method
Bdisplacement matrix method
Cequilibrium method
Dall the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1250 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The fictitious method of finding slope and deflection of beam is ............
Aunit load method
BCastigliano's first theorem
CCastigliano's second theorem
Dconsistent deformation method
Answer is hidden
Question 1251 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Principle of superposition is applicable when ............
Adeflections are linear functions of applied forces
Bmaterial obeys Hooke's law
Cthe action of applied forces will be affected by small deformations of the structure
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1252 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The principle of superposition states that the total deflection of a structure under different sets of load is equal to the sum of deflections under each set of loads acting separately on the structure if the loads are within ............
Aelastic limit
Bplastic limit
Cbreaking point
Dyield point
Answer is hidden
Question 1253 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Force method is also called ............ as per structural analysis.
ASlope deflection method
BKani's method
CMoment distribution method
DColumn analogy method
Answer is hidden
Question 1254 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which one of the following methods is not classified as a force method?
AThe theorem of three moments
BThe moments distribution method
CThe method of consistent deformation
DCastigliano's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 1255 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In column analogy method, the area of an analogous column for a fixed beam of span L and flexural rigidity EI is taken as ............
AL/EI
BL/2EI
CL/4EI
DL/8EI
Answer is hidden
Question 1256 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In slope deflection method, all the joints of the frame are assumed to be ............
AMoving
BSimply supported
CRigid
DRolling
Answer is hidden
Question 1257 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The slope and deflection at the center of a simple beam carrying a central point load are ............
AZero and zero
BMaximum and zero
CMaximum and maximum
DMinimum and maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 1258 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
For a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load, if the length of the beam is doubled, deflection becomes ............ times.
A4
B2
C16
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 1259 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a simply supported beam of span L subjected to central concentrated load, the central deflection is 24 mm. Then the slope at supports is ............
A48/L radians
B36/L radians
C24/L radians
D72/L radians
Answer is hidden
Question 1260 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a cantilever beam, slope and deflection is maximum at ............
AFree end
BFixed end
CCenter
DOne fourth of span
Answer is hidden
Question 1261 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In slope deflection method, the slope and deflection of joints are computed using ............
ARigidity of joint
BElasticity of joint
CEquilibrium of structure
DEquilibrium of joint
Answer is hidden
Question 1262 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
A cantilever beam of length L has flexural rigidity EI up to length L/2 from the fixed end and EI/2 for the rest. It carries a moment M at the free end. The slope at the free end is given by ............
AM/2EI
B3ML/2EI
C2ML/3EI
DML/2EI
Answer is hidden
Question 1263 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The theorem of three moments cannot be applied to ............
AContinuous beams with overhangs
BTrusses and frames
CSingle span fixed beams
DContinuous beams with sinking supports and rotating joints
Answer is hidden
Question 1264 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The simultaneous equations of slope deflection method can be solved by iteration in ............
AConjugate beam method
BConsistent deformation method
CMoment distribution method
DWilliot Mohr method
Answer is hidden
Question 1265 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Moment distribution method is introduced by ............
AHardy Cross
BKani
CMuller Breslau
DOtto Mohr
Answer is hidden
Question 1266 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment distribution method is best suited for ............
AIndeterminate pin jointed truss
BRigid frames
CSpace frames
DTrussed beam
Answer is hidden
Question 1267 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Carryover moment is defined as ............
AThe moment applied at one end to cause unit slope at the support
BThe additional moment applied at one end to completely resist the rotation caused due to external loading
CThe moment developed or induced at one end due to a moment at another end
DThe moment applied at one end to cause unit slope at another end
Answer is hidden
Question 1268 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The factor by which the applied moment is multiplied to obtain the end moment of any member is known as the ............
ADistribution factor
BCarryover factor
CRelative stiffness
DTotal relative stiffness
Answer is hidden
Question 1269 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of cross section with diamond shape under flexure is ............
A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1270 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
When a structural member of the uniform section is subjected to a moment at one end only, then the moment required so as to rotate that end to produce a unit slope, is called ............
AResistance of member
BStiffness of member
CCapacity of member
DPotential of member
Answer is hidden
Question 1271 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Stiffness matrix method is also called ............
AFlexibility method
BForce method
CDisplacement method
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1272 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness method in structural analysis is also known as ............
AUnit load method
BConsistent deformation method
CForce method
DDisplacement method
Answer is hidden
Question 1273 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If kᵢ is the stiffness of ith member at a joint, the distribution factor for the member is ............
Akᵢ
Bkᵢ/Σkᵢ
CΣkᵢ
DΣkᵢ - kᵢ
Answer is hidden
Question 1274 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
What is the stiffness factor for a beam simply supported at both ends?
A3EI/L
B4EI/L
C2EI/L
DEI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1275 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Stiffness of the end A if the far end B is vertical guided roller is ............
AEI/L
B2EI/L
C3EI/L
D4EI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1276 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness of end A if the farther end is hinged is ............
A0
BEI/L
C3EI/L
D4EI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1277 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The stiffness for free end A if far end B is fixed is ............
A4EI/L
B3EI/L
C2EI/L
DEI/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1278 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The ratio of the stiffness of a beam at the near end when the far end is hinged to the stiffness of the beam at the near end when the far end is fixed ............
A1
B0.5
C1.33
D0.75
Answer is hidden
Question 1279 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
If point A goes down and point B goes up, then this will be ............
APositive rotation
BNegative rotation
CCan't say
DDepends upon magnitude
Answer is hidden
Question 1280 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Lowest plastic limit load is obtained when ............
AOnly equilibrium condition of plastic analysis is satisfied
BOnly equilibrium and mechanism condition of plastic analysis are satisfied
COnly mechanism condition of plastic analysis is satisfied
DEquilibrium, mechanism and plasticity condition of plastic analysis are satisfied
Answer is hidden
Question 1281 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The moment which makes all the fibers at the section to yield is known as ...............
AFlexural rigidity
BMoment of resistance
CPlastic moment capacity
DYield moment
Answer is hidden
Question 1282 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which load is obtained when equilibrium and mechanism conditions of plastic analysis are satisfied?
APlastic limit load
BUpper bound solution of true ultimate load
CLower bound solution of true ultimate load
DNo solution
Answer is hidden
Question 1283 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Which of the following relation is correct?
A-Mp ≥ M
BM > Mp
CM ≥ Mp
DM ≤ Mp
Answer is hidden
Question 1284 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The collapse load for a propped cantilever of span L subjected to a concentrated load W at mid-span is ...............
A2Mp/L
B3Mp/L
C4Mp/L
D6Mp/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1285 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Collapse load in a fixed beam of span L, carrying u.d.l. over entire span and having plastic moment capacity Mp is ...............
A6Mp/L
B8Mp/L
C8Mp/L²
D16Mp/L²
Answer is hidden
Question 1286 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of a diamond shaped section for bending about its diametric axis is ...............
A1.2
B1.5
C2
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1287 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
The shape factor of a circular section with radius R is ...............
A4R/(3π)
B4R/π
C16R/(3π)
D8R/(3π)
Answer is hidden
Question 1288 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
In a plastic analysis of structures, the segment between any two successive plastic hinges is assumed to deform as ...............
AA plastic material
BA rigid material
CAn elastic material
DAn inelastic material
Answer is hidden
Question 1289 of 2077Ch 4 · Structural Mechanics
Plastic analysis is particularly suitable for the structures with ...............
AHigh redundancy and ductility
BLow redundancy and rigidity
CHigh redundancy and rigidity
DLow redundancy and ductility
Answer is hidden
Question 1290 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
In selecting a source for a water supply scheme, the yield must be assessed on the basis of
Athe monsoon peak flow
Bthe average annual flow
Cthe flow on the day of the survey
Dthe minimum flow in the driest month of the driest year on record
Answer is hidden
Question 1291 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The maximum daily demand for a water supply system is commonly taken as
A2.7 times the average daily demand
B1.8 times the average daily demand
C0.5 times the average daily demand
D1.0 times the average daily demand
Answer is hidden
Question 1292 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The distribution system of a town is normally designed for
Athe peak hourly demand, or maximum daily plus fire demand, whichever is greater
Bthe minimum hourly demand
Cthe average daily demand
Dthe maximum daily demand only
Answer is hidden
Question 1293 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The geometric increase method of population forecasting is most appropriate for
Aa young, rapidly growing town
Bany town over any period
Can old, large, saturated city
Da town with a declining population
Answer is hidden
Question 1294 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
Components of a water supply system that are difficult to extend later, such as transmission mains, should be given
Aa longer design period than components that are easily added to
Bno design period at all
Ca shorter design period
Dthe same design period as all other components
Answer is hidden
Question 1295 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism in water quality testing because it
Ais abundant in faecal matter, easily detected, and survives slightly longer in water than most pathogens
Bis itself the most dangerous pathogen in water
Ccan be seen with the naked eye
Dis present in all clean water
Answer is hidden
Question 1296 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The drinking water standard for Escherichia coli is
A10 organisms per 100 ml
B1 organism per litre
Czero organisms per 100 ml
D100 organisms per 100 ml
Answer is hidden
Question 1297 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
Trachoma and scabies are classified as
Awater-washed diseases, caused by insufficient water for personal hygiene
Bwater-related insect vector diseases
Cwater-based diseases involving an aquatic host
Dwaterborne diseases, transmitted by drinking contaminated water
Answer is hidden
Question 1298 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The national drinking water standard for arsenic in Nepal is
A10 μg/L, the same as the WHO guideline
B50 μg/L, against the WHO guideline value of 10 μg/L
C500 μg/L
D100 μg/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1299 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The distinction between a water quality guideline and a water quality standard is that a standard
Ais advisory, whereas a guideline is enforceable
Bis always more lenient than a guideline
Capplies only to surface water
Dis legally enforceable, whereas a guideline is advisory
Answer is hidden
Question 1300 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
In a Nepali hill gravity water supply scheme, the characteristic structure that distinguishes it from a pumped urban system is the
Aelevated steel tank
Brapid gravity filter
Cpumping station
Dbreak pressure tank
Answer is hidden
Question 1301 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
The principal reason many rural water supply schemes fail a few years after construction is that
Athe pipes are always of the wrong material
Bthe tariff does not cover operation and maintenance, so there is no money for repairs
Cthe source dries up immediately
Dthe population declines
Answer is hidden
Question 1302 of 2077Ch 5 · Fundamentals of Water Sources and Supply Schemes
An increasing block tariff is generally preferred for domestic water supply because it
Amaximises total revenue in every case
Bprovides an affordable basic quantity while discouraging excessive consumption
Cis the simplest structure to administer
Dcharges the same amount regardless of consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 1303 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
The solubility of dissolved oxygen in water
Aincreases as the temperature rises
Bdepends only on the pH
Cis independent of temperature
Ddecreases as the temperature rises
Answer is hidden
Question 1304 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
In a thermally stratified reservoir during summer, the hypolimnion typically becomes
Asupersaturated with oxygen
Banaerobic, dissolving iron and manganese and producing hydrogen sulphide
Cthe warmest layer
Dfree of all dissolved substances
Answer is hidden
Question 1305 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
The autumn overturn of a reservoir is significant for a water treatment plant because it quality
Ahas no effect on water quality
Bimproves raw water quality immediately
Cpermanently removes the thermocline
Dmixes accumulated material through the whole depth, often causing a sudden deterioration in raw water
Answer is hidden
Question 1306 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
The critical point on an oxygen sag curve is the location at which
Athe dissolved oxygen returns to saturation
Bthe BOD is at its maximum
Cthe rate of deoxygenation equals the rate of reaeration, giving the minimum dissolved oxygen
Dthe discharge enters the stream
Answer is hidden
Question 1307 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
Self-purification of a stream proceeds fastest in a stream that is
Adeep, turbulent and warm
Bdeep, sluggish and warm
Cshallow, turbulent and cool
Dshallow, sluggish and warm
Answer is hidden
Question 1308 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
The BOD test is conventionally carried out over five days at 20 °C, and the result represents approximately
A10 per cent of the ultimate BOD
B68 to 70 per cent of the ultimate BOD
C100 per cent of the ultimate BOD
Dthe chemical oxygen demand
Answer is hidden
Question 1309 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
The chemical oxygen demand of a wastewater is always greater than its biochemical oxygen demand because COD agents
Aincludes organic matter that micro-organisms cannot degrade, as well as some inorganic reducing
Buses a weaker oxidising agent
Cexcludes the biodegradable fraction
Dis measured over a longer period
Answer is hidden
Question 1310 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
COD is preferred to BOD for day-to-day process control because it
Arequires no laboratory apparatus
Bcan be determined in about three hours rather than five days
Cis always numerically equal to BOD
Dis a better measure of the oxygen demand on the receiving water
Answer is hidden
Question 1311 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
Which parameter must be determined on a grab sample rather than a composite sample?
AChemical oxygen demand
BBiochemical oxygen demand
CDissolved oxygen
DTotal suspended solids
Answer is hidden
Question 1312 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
Biological monitoring using benthic macro-invertebrates has the advantage over spot chemical sampling that the organisms
Acan be identified without any training
Brespond instantly to every change
Care unaffected by water quality
Dintegrate conditions over weeks or months and therefore reveal intermittent pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 1313 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
An ambient or stream standard differs from an effluent standard in that the stream standard
Aspecifies the quality to be maintained in the receiving water according to its designated use
Bapplies only to industrial premises
Cis easier to monitor and enforce
Dlimits the concentration in the discharge at the outlet
Answer is hidden
Question 1314 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
In the hierarchy of water pollution control strategies, the most preferred option is
Aend-of-pipe treatment
Bprevention and source reduction
Cdilution in the receiving water
Dcontrolled disposal
Answer is hidden
Question 1315 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Quality Engineering and Management
Under Nepal's Water Resources Act, 2049, the first priority among competing uses of water is given to
Ahydropower generation
Bdrinking water and domestic use
Cindustrial use
Dirrigation
Answer is hidden
Question 1316 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
An intake on a river serving a town should be located
Aat the town's sewage outfall
Bupstream of the town, away from any discharge
Cat the outside of a sharp bend
Ddownstream of the town
Answer is hidden
Question 1317 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
The entry velocity at the screen of an intake is normally kept low, around 0.1 to 0.3 m/s, in order to
Aallow the use of a smaller screen
Bincrease the quantity of water abstracted
Cprevent the water from freezing
Davoid drawing fish and debris against the screen and to limit head loss
Answer is hidden
Question 1318 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
Ports at more than one level are provided in a reservoir intake tower so that
Athe tower can be used as a spillway
Bwater can be drawn from whichever depth has the best quality as conditions change
Cthe tower is structurally stronger
Dthe flow can be increased
Answer is hidden
Question 1319 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
The standard pipe material for buried transmission and distribution mains in Nepali rural water supply schemes is
Aductile iron
Bhigh density polyethylene
Cprestressed concrete
Dgalvanised iron
Answer is hidden
Question 1320 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
A sluice (gate) valve should be operated
Aat any intermediate position to control flow
Bonly partially open to reduce wear
Cas the principal flow control device
Deither fully open or fully closed, never partially open
Answer is hidden
Question 1321 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
Air valves and washout valves in a pipeline are located respectively at
Aboth at summits
Blow points and summits
Cboth at low points
Dsummits and low points
Answer is hidden
Question 1322 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
Thrust blocks are provided at bends, tees and dead ends in a pressure main in order to
Asupport the weight of the pipe
Bprevent corrosion of the fittings
Callow thermal expansion
Dresist the unbalanced hydraulic force that would otherwise pull the joints apart
Answer is hidden
Question 1323 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
The principal purpose of a break pressure tank in a gravity water supply scheme is to
Atreat the water before distribution
Breduce the pressure in the pipeline to atmospheric so that a lower pipe class can be used
Cincrease the flow in the pipeline
Dstore water for the whole village
Answer is hidden
Question 1324 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
A service reservoir allows the source, treatment plant and pumping works to be designed for
Athe peak hourly demand
Bthe minimum demand
Cthe average daily demand only
Dthe maximum daily demand rather than the peak hourly demand
Answer is hidden
Question 1325 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
The total capacity of a service reservoir is made up of
Abalancing storage alone
Bfire reserve alone
Cthe average daily demand
Dbalancing storage, breakdown reserve and fire reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 1326 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
Balancing storage for a service reservoir is determined from
Athe population alone
Bthe fire flow requirement
Cthe pipe diameter
Da mass curve of cumulative supply and cumulative demand
Answer is hidden
Question 1327 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
The principal disadvantage of a branched (dead-end) distribution system is that
Ait requires iterative network analysis
Ba break anywhere cuts off supply to everything beyond it, and water stagnates at the dead ends
Cit is more expensive than a looped system
Dit maintains excessive pressure throughout
Answer is hidden
Question 1328 of 2077Ch 5 · Intakes, Pipes and Water Supply Systems
Where a water main and a sewer must be laid in the same street, the water main should be
Alaid in the same trench to save cost
Blaid at exactly the same level
Claid above the sewer and at horizontal separation, never in the same trench
Dlaid below the sewer for protection
Answer is hidden
Question 1329 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
Filtration must precede disinfection in a water treatment plant because
Adisinfection would clog the filter
Bthe order makes no difference
Cturbidity shields micro-organisms from the disinfectant
Dfiltration removes the chlorine residual
Answer is hidden
Question 1330 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
In ideal settling theory, the removal efficiency of discrete particles in a sedimentation tank depends on
Athe tank volume alone
Bthe surface area of the tank and not on its depth
Cthe detention time alone
Dthe depth of the tank and not its surface area
Answer is hidden
Question 1331 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
The essential difference between coagulation and flocculation is that coagulation grows the flocs
Ais rapid mixing that chemically destabilises the colloids, while flocculation is slow gentle mixing that
Bremoves the floc and flocculation forms it
Crequires no chemicals
Dis slow mixing and flocculation is rapid mixing
Answer is hidden
Question 1332 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
When alum is used as a coagulant and the raw water has insufficient natural alkalinity
Ano adjustment is ever necessary
Bthe pH will rise automatically
Clime or soda ash must be added, or the pH will fall and coagulation will fail
Dmore alum should simply be added
Answer is hidden
Question 1333 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
The optimum coagulant dose for a particular raw water is determined by
Athe surface overflow rate
Btheoretical calculation from the turbidity
Cthe manufacturer's standard dose
Dthe jar test
Answer is hidden
Question 1334 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
The effective size of filter sand is defined as the sieve size through which
A90 per cent of the sand by weight passes
B10 per cent of the sand by weight passes
C60 per cent of the sand by weight passes
Dall of the sand passes
Answer is hidden
Question 1335 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
Compared with a rapid gravity filter, a slow sand filter operates at a filtration rate that is approximately
Athe same
Bfifty times higher
Ctwice as high
Dfifty times lower
Answer is hidden
Question 1336 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
The schmutzdecke in a slow sand filter is
Athe accumulated backwash water
Ba biological layer at the sand surface responsible for much of the purification
Cthe layer of gravel beneath the sand
Da mechanical screen fitted above the sand
Answer is hidden
Question 1337 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
A slow sand filter is cleaned by
Achemical dosing of the surface
Breplacing the entire bed
Cbackwashing with water and air
Dscraping off the top 20 to 25 mm of sand
Answer is hidden
Question 1338 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
Air scouring during the backwashing of a rapid gravity filter is provided in order to required
Aincrease the filtration rate
Badd oxygen to the filtered water
Cbreak up mudballs and dislodge material that water alone cannot remove, reducing the wash water
Dreplace the need for backwash water
Answer is hidden
Question 1339 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
A roughing filter is provided upstream of a slow sand filter in order to
Adisinfect the water before filtration
Bsoften the water
Creduce a high raw water turbidity that would otherwise clog the slow sand filter
Dincrease the filtration rate of the slow sand filter
Answer is hidden
Question 1340 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
Chlorination is more effective at low pH because
ApH has no effect on chlorination
Bthe hypochlorite ion is the stronger disinfectant
Chypochlorous acid, which predominates below pH 7.5, is far more powerful than the hypochlorite ion
Dchlorine dissolves better in alkaline water
Answer is hidden
Question 1341 of 2077Ch 5 · Water Treatment Processes and Technologies
Ozone and ultraviolet radiation share the limitation, compared with chlorine, that they
Acannot be applied to drinking water
Bare ineffective against bacteria
Cleave no residual to protect the water in the distribution system
Drequire very long contact times
Answer is hidden
Question 1342 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
The principal water quality danger of an intermittent water supply is that
Achlorine is completely removed by storage
Bthe water becomes too cold
Cthe pipes corrode from the outside
Dcontaminated groundwater is drawn in through leaks and joints while the mains are depressurised
Answer is hidden
Question 1343 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
An intermittent supply is also inequitable because
Aonly the poor receive water
Bpressure is identical everywhere
Cthe water is distributed by lottery
Dhouseholds with storage capacity draw more than their share during the supply hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1344 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
The principal advantage of a combined pumping and storage system over direct pumping is that
Ait eliminates the need for treatment
Bthe reservoir absorbs the demand variation, so the pump can run steadily at its best efficiency point
Cthe pumps can be much larger
Dit requires no reservoir
Answer is hidden
Question 1345 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
The balancing storage required in a service reservoir is determined from a mass curve as
Athe total daily demand
Bthe sum of the maximum surplus and the maximum deficit
Cthe difference between inflow and outflow at one instant
Dthe maximum surplus alone
Answer is hidden
Question 1346 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
In hilly terrain such as Nepal's, elevated service reservoirs are rarely built because
Athe water quality would deteriorate
Bground-level tanks hold more water
Celevated tanks are prohibited by law
Da ground-level reservoir on higher ground provides the same head far more cheaply
Answer is hidden
Question 1347 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
The inlet and outlet of a service reservoir should be located at opposite ends in order to
Areduce the cost of construction
Ballow the tank to be emptied faster
Csimplify the pipework
Dpromote circulation through the reservoir and prevent short-circuiting and stagnation
Answer is hidden
Question 1348 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
Reducing excess pressure in a distribution system is an effective means of controlling losses because
Alow pressure improves water quality
Bpressure has no relation to leakage
Cthe leakage rate from existing leaks and the frequency of new bursts both increase with pressure
Dhigh pressure prevents leaks from being detected
Answer is hidden
Question 1349 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
In the analysis of a looped water distribution network, the two conditions that must be satisfied are
Acontinuity at every junction and zero algebraic sum of head losses around every loop
Bequal flow in every pipe and equal length of every loop
Czero flow in every loop
Dequal diameter in every pipe and equal pressure at every node
Answer is hidden
Question 1350 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
In the Hardy Cross method using the Hazen-Williams formula, the exponent n used in the correction formula is
A2.0
B0.54
C1.85
D1.0
Answer is hidden
Question 1351 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
Non-revenue water is defined as
Athe volume lost through leaks alone
Bthe volume consumed by poor households
Cthe difference between the volume put into the system and the volume for which revenue is received
Dthe volume used for firefighting
Answer is hidden
Question 1352 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
Which of the following is an apparent (commercial) loss rather than a real loss?
AOverflow from a service reservoir
BLeakage from a service connection
CLeakage from a distribution main
DUnder-registration of consumer meters
Answer is hidden
Question 1353 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
Minimum night flow analysis is used in a district metered area to
Acalibrate the chlorine dose
Bestimate the level of leakage, since legitimate consumption is lowest in the small hours
Cmeasure the peak demand
Ddetermine the pipe diameter required
Answer is hidden
Question 1354 of 2077Ch 5 · Reservoirs and Distribution Systems
Active leakage control is necessary because
Amost water is lost through small leaks that never appear at the surface
Ball leaks become visible within a few days
Cleaks occur only in new pipes
Dreported leaks account for most of the loss
Answer is hidden
Question 1355 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
The total dynamic head that a pump must generate is
Athe total static head only
Bthe difference between suction and delivery pipe diameters
Cthe atmospheric pressure head
Dthe total static head plus all friction and minor losses plus the residual velocity head
Answer is hidden
Question 1356 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
A positive displacement pump must never have its delivery valve closed against it without a relief valve because it
Awould cavitate instantly
Bdelivers an almost fixed volume regardless of head, so the pressure would rise until something burst
Cwould run at zero power
Dwould stop delivering immediately
Answer is hidden
Question 1357 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
The operating point of a pumping installation is found at
Athe origin of both curves
Bthe best efficiency point in every case
Cthe highest point of the pump curve
Dthe intersection of the pump characteristic curve and the system curve
Answer is hidden
Question 1358 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
Partially closing a valve on the delivery side of a centrifugal pump will move the operating point to
Aa higher discharge at a lower head
Bzero discharge immediately
Ca lower discharge at a higher head
Dthe same discharge at a higher head
Answer is hidden
Question 1359 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
Selecting a pump considerably larger than the duty requires is undesirable because the pump will
Aconsume less power than necessary
Bnever require maintenance
Cdeliver too little water
Doperate far from its best efficiency point, causing recirculation, vibration and accelerated wear
Answer is hidden
Question 1360 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
Two identical centrifugal pumps operating in parallel will deliver
Aexactly twice the discharge of a single pump
Btwice the head of a single pump
Cless than twice the discharge of a single pump
Dthe same discharge as a single pump
Answer is hidden
Question 1361 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
According to the affinity laws, reducing the speed of a centrifugal pump to 80 per cent changes the power required to approximately
A40 per cent of the original
B51 per cent of the original
C64 per cent of the original
D80 per cent of the original
Answer is hidden
Question 1362 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
Cavitation in a pump is avoided by ensuring that
Athe delivery head is as high as possible
Bthe suction pipe is long and narrow
Cthe available NPSH exceeds the required NPSH by an adequate margin
Dthe pump is installed as high as possible above the water
Answer is hidden
Question 1363 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
At a high-altitude site in the Nepali hills, the available NPSH for a given installation is
Ahigher than at sea level
Blower than at sea level, because atmospheric pressure is reduced
Calways zero
Dunaffected by altitude
Answer is hidden
Question 1364 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
The most severe pressure transient in a pumping main usually arises from
Asudden stoppage of the pumps on power failure
Bnormal starting of the pump
Ca gradual change in demand
Dslow opening of a valve
Answer is hidden
Question 1365 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
A flywheel is sometimes fitted to a pump set in order to
Aextend the run-down time after power failure and so reduce the severity of the surge
Bincrease the delivered head
Cimprove the efficiency at the duty point
Dreduce the starting current
Answer is hidden
Question 1366 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
The volume of a pump sump is determined principally by the requirement to
Aprovide fire fighting reserve
Bsettle out all suspended solids
Cstore a full day's water supply
Dlimit the number of pump starts per hour so that the motor does not overheat
Answer is hidden
Question 1367 of 2077Ch 5 · Pumps and Pumping Stations
In a solar photovoltaic pumping system, water is stored in a tank rather than energy in batteries because
Atanks are required by regulation
Ba water tank is cheaper, longer-lived and far less troublesome than a battery bank
Cbatteries cannot be used with solar panels
Dwater storage produces more energy
Answer is hidden
Question 1368 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
Large hydropower is correctly classified as
Aa non-renewable and non-conventional source
Ba non-renewable and conventional source
Ca renewable but conventional source of energy
Da renewable and non-conventional source
Answer is hidden
Question 1369 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
Electricity is best described as
Aa non-renewable primary source
Ba fossil fuel
Ca primary renewable source
Da secondary energy carrier rather than a primary energy source
Answer is hidden
Question 1370 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The single largest component of Nepal's total energy consumption has historically been
Acoal
Belectricity
Cimported petroleum
Dtraditional biomass, chiefly fuelwood
Answer is hidden
Question 1371 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The principal technical problem of Nepal's electricity system is
Aa shortage of hydropower potential
Bexcessive thermal generation
Cthe absence of any transmission network
Dthe seasonal mismatch between monsoon and dry season hydropower output
Answer is hidden
Question 1372 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The theoretical hydropower potential of Nepal is conventionally quoted as approximately
A420 MW
B830,000 MW
C83,000 MW, of which about 42,000 MW is considered economically feasible
D8,300 MW, of which 4,200 MW is feasible
Answer is hidden
Question 1373 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The relationship between the Human Development Index and per capita energy consumption is
Aentirely absent
Bsteeply rising at low consumption and then flattening into a plateau
Cinversely proportional throughout
Da straight line of constant slope
Answer is hidden
Question 1374 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The shape of the HDI-energy curve implies that consumption in a rich one
Aincreasing energy access in a poor country yields far greater development benefit than increasing
Benergy has no relation to development
Cevery country must reach the consumption level of the richest
Dreducing energy use always improves development
Answer is hidden
Question 1375 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The energy trilemma refers to the simultaneous pursuit of
Asolar, wind and hydro
Benergy security, energy equity and environmental sustainability
Cgeneration, transmission and distribution
Dcoal, oil and gas
Answer is hidden
Question 1376 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The statement that the cheapest unit of energy is the one not used reflects the fact that a unit saved at the point of use
Aalso avoids the transmission and distribution losses upstream of it
Bincreases demand elsewhere
Ctakes longer to obtain than new generation
Dcosts the same as a unit generated
Answer is hidden
Question 1377 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
Replacing incandescent lamps with LEDs reduces lighting energy consumption by approximately
A10 per cent
B90 per cent for the same light output
Cno reduction at all
D25 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1378 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
Capacitors are installed in an industrial installation principally to
Aincrease the supply voltage
Bimprove the power factor and so reduce the current drawn for the same real power
Cfilter the drinking water
Dstore energy for use at night
Answer is hidden
Question 1379 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
Demand side management in an electricity system aims principally to
Areduce the voltage supplied to consumers
Beliminate the need for metering
Cincrease total consumption
Dshift consumption away from the peak period, reducing the generation capacity required
Answer is hidden
Question 1380 of 2077Ch 6 · Energy Basics
The simple payback period of an energy conservation measure is calculated as
Athe capital cost multiplied by the annual saving
Bthe capital cost divided by the annual saving
Cthe annual saving divided by the capital cost
Dthe annual energy consumption divided by the cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1381 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
A hydropower plant has a net head of 50 m, a discharge of 4 m³/s and an overall efficiency of 80 per cent. Its output is approximately
A1960 kW
B200 kW
C125 kW
D1570 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 1382 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
The net head available to a turbine is
Athe gross head less all hydraulic losses in the waterway
Bthe difference between headrace and forebay levels
Cthe height of the penstock alone
Dthe gross head plus the velocity head
Answer is hidden
Question 1383 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
A pumped storage scheme is best described as
Aa renewable source of energy
Ba net producer of energy
Ca method of increasing total generation
Da net consumer of energy that stores off-peak energy for release at peak
Answer is hidden
Question 1384 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
A settling basin is provided in a Himalayan hydropower scheme principally to
Aremove suspended sediment that would otherwise abrade the turbine runner
Bstore water for the dry season
Cincrease the head available
Dregulate the frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 1385 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
A surge tank is provided on a long pressure tunnel in order to
Agenerate additional power
Bincrease the net head
Creflect the pressure wave on sudden gate closure and supply water immediately on load increase
Dsettle out sediment
Answer is hidden
Question 1386 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
The economic diameter of a penstock is the diameter at which
Athe pipe is cheapest to buy
Bthe annual cost of the pipe plus the annualised value of the energy lost to friction is a minimum
Cthe head loss is zero
Dthe velocity is highest
Answer is hidden
Question 1387 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
A draft tube is fitted to
Aimpulse turbines only, such as Pelton
Ball turbines without exception
Creaction turbines only, such as Francis and Kaplan
Dno turbines in modern practice
Answer is hidden
Question 1388 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
The essential difference between an impulse and a reaction turbine is that in an impulse turbine
Aa draft tube is always required
Bthe runner is fully enclosed and flooded
Cthe water remains under pressure throughout the runner
Dthe entire pressure head is converted to velocity in the nozzle before the water reaches the runner
Answer is hidden
Question 1389 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
For a site with a head of 400 m and a small discharge, the appropriate turbine is
Aa propeller turbine
Ba bulb turbine
Ca Kaplan turbine
Da Pelton wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 1390 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
The turbine most commonly used in Nepali micro-hydro schemes is the
Abulb turbine
BFrancis turbine
CKaplan turbine
Dcross-flow (Banki-Michell) turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 1391 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
Specific speed is used in turbine selection because power
Ait determines the efficiency of the generator
Bit fixes the penstock diameter
Cit gives the rotational speed of the generator
Dit characterises the runner shape and indicates directly which type of turbine suits a given head and
Answer is hidden
Question 1392 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
In micro-hydro schemes an electronic load controller is used in place of a mechanical governor because it simpler
Aeliminates the need for a generator
Bincreases the turbine efficiency
Creduces the head required
Dkeeps the turbine at full flow and dumps surplus power into a ballast load, which is far cheaper and
Answer is hidden
Question 1393 of 2077Ch 6 · Hydropower
Cavitation in a reaction turbine is avoided by
Araising the runner as high as possible
Bremoving the draft tube
Cincreasing the discharge
Dlowering the setting of the runner relative to the tailwater level
Answer is hidden
Question 1394 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
The solar constant is approximately
A100 W/m²
B5000 W/m²
C1367 W/m², measured outside the atmosphere normal to the sun's rays
D1000 W/m², measured at the earth's surface
Answer is hidden
Question 1395 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
A concentrating solar collector can make use of
Aboth beam and diffuse radiation equally
Breflected radiation only
Cbeam (direct) radiation only
Ddiffuse radiation only
Answer is hidden
Question 1396 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
The term peak sun hours for a site refers to
Athe maximum instantaneous irradiance
Bthe hours between sunrise and sunset
Cthe number of hours of bright sunshine
Dthe number of hours at 1000 W/m² that would deliver the same daily energy as the actual radiation
Answer is hidden
Question 1397 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
For a fixed photovoltaic array in Nepal, the optimum annual tilt angle is approximately equal to
Azero, that is horizontal
Bthe latitude of the site
Ctwice the latitude
D90 degrees, that is vertical
Answer is hidden
Question 1398 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
Shading a small part of one module in a photovoltaic string
Ahas no effect on the output
Bincreases the output of the remaining modules
Creduces the output of the whole string disproportionately, because the cells are in series
Dreduces the output of that module only, in proportion to the area shaded
Answer is hidden
Question 1399 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
In a thermosyphon solar water heating system, the storage tank must be placed
Aanywhere, since a pump circulates the water
Babove the collector, so that the warmer, less dense water rises into it
Cbelow the collector
Dat the same level as the collector
Answer is hidden
Question 1400 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
The electrical output of a photovoltaic module as its operating temperature rises
Afalls to zero above 40 °C
Bis unaffected by temperature
Cincreases, by roughly 0.5 per cent per degree Celsius
Ddecreases, by roughly 0.4 to 0.5 per cent per degree Celsius
Answer is hidden
Question 1401 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
A monocrystalline silicon module compared with a thin film module of the same rated output will
Aoccupy more area and cost less
Boccupy less area, being more efficient, but cost more
Cproduce alternating current directly
Dhave the same area and cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1402 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
A maximum power point tracker is used in a photovoltaic system in order to
Aconvert direct current to alternating current
Bcontinuously adjust the operating point so that the array delivers its maximum available power
Crotate the array to follow the sun
Dprevent the battery from overcharging
Answer is hidden
Question 1403 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
In a photovoltaic array, connecting modules in series
Aincreases the current while the voltage remains that of one module
Breduces the total power
Cincreases the voltage while the current remains that of one module
Dincreases both voltage and current
Answer is hidden
Question 1404 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
A standalone solar photovoltaic system must be sized on the basis of
Athe radiation at the summer solstice
Bthe best month's radiation
Cthe annual average radiation
Dthe worst month's solar radiation, not the annual average
Answer is hidden
Question 1405 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
The depth of discharge of a lead-acid battery in a solar system is normally limited to about
A50 per cent, to avoid shortening the battery life
B80 per cent, the same as lithium-ion
C100 per cent, to use the full capacity
D5 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1406 of 2077Ch 6 · Solar Energy
Solar water pumping systems store water in a tank rather than energy in batteries because
Abatteries cannot be charged by solar panels
Btanks are required by regulation
Cwater storage generates additional energy
Da tank is cheaper, longer-lived and far less troublesome than a battery bank
Answer is hidden
Question 1407 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
If the wind speed at a site doubles, the power available in the wind increases by a factor of
A4
B2
C16
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 1408 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
The Betz limit states that the maximum fraction of the wind's kinetic energy that any turbine can extract is
A85 per cent
B33.3 per cent
C100 per cent
D59.3 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1409 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
A wind turbine installed at high altitude in Nepal will, in the same wind speed, produce
Ano power at all
Bmore power than at sea level
Cexactly the same power
Dless power than at sea level, because the air density is lower
Answer is hidden
Question 1410 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
Doubling the rotor diameter of a wind turbine increases the power available by a factor of
A16
B8
C2
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1411 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
The cut-out wind speed of a large wind turbine is typically about
A50 m/s
B25 m/s, above which the machine is shut down to prevent damage
C3 m/s
D12 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 1412 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
Pitch regulation of a wind turbine differs from stall regulation in that pitch regulation
Ais used only on very small turbines
Bactively turns the blades to control the power, giving more precise regulation
Crelies on passive flow separation over the blade
Dhas no moving parts
Answer is hidden
Question 1413 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
Turbines in a wind farm are spaced several rotor diameters apart principally to
Aallow vehicles to pass between them
Blimit the wake effect, in which a downwind machine receives slower and more turbulent air
Creduce the cost of the foundations
Dincrease the total land area required
Answer is hidden
Question 1414 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
A vertical axis wind turbine has the advantage over a horizontal axis machine that it
Aaccepts wind from any direction without a yaw mechanism and places the generator at ground level
Bis significantly more efficient
Crequires no tower or support at all
Dproduces more power for the same swept area
Answer is hidden
Question 1415 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
The average geothermal gradient in the earth's crust is approximately
A25 to 30 °C per kilometre of depth
B2 to 3 °C per kilometre
Cconstant at all depths
D250 °C per kilometre
Answer is hidden
Question 1416 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
The commonest type of geothermal power plant is the
Amagma plant
Bflash steam plant
Cbinary cycle plant
Ddry steam plant
Answer is hidden
Question 1417 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
A binary cycle geothermal plant is significant because it
Arequires no working fluid at all
Bdischarges the geothermal fluid to atmosphere
Callows resources at lower temperatures, from about 85 °C, to be used for power generation
Dcan operate only above 300 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 1418 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
Compared with solar and wind, geothermal power has the distinctive advantage that it
Ais available at every site
Bprovides continuous base load generation independent of weather and season
Crequires no drilling
Dproduces no waste fluid
Answer is hidden
Question 1419 of 2077Ch 6 · Wind and Geothermal Energy
The current status of geothermal energy in Nepal is that
Ageothermal supplies most of the national electricity
Bnumerous hot springs exist and are used for bathing, but there is no geothermal electricity generation
Cno geothermal manifestations have been found
Dseveral geothermal power stations are in operation
Answer is hidden
Question 1420 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
Biomass is described as carbon neutral, but this holds only if
Athe ash is buried afterwards
Bthe biomass is burned at high temperature
Cthe biomass is replaced by regrowth that reabsorbs the carbon dioxide released
Dthe biomass contains no carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 1421 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
The essential difference between combustion, gasification and pyrolysis is
Athe supply of oxygen: full for combustion, restricted for gasification and absent for pyrolysis
Bthe temperature alone
Cthe type of biomass used
Dthe pressure at which each is carried out
Answer is hidden
Question 1422 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
Biodiesel is produced from vegetable oil by
Aanaerobic digestion
Bfermentation with yeast
Ctransesterification with methanol in the presence of an alkali catalyst
Dgasification at 900 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 1423 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
In anaerobic digestion, the slowest and most sensitive stage is
Aacetogenesis
Bmethanogenesis
Chydrolysis
Dacidogenesis
Answer is hidden
Question 1424 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
The methane content of biogas from a domestic digester is typically
A5 to 10 per cent
B50 to 70 per cent
C90 to 99 per cent
D20 to 30 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1425 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
The fixed-dome biogas digester, the standard design in Nepal, has the advantage over the floating-drum type that it
Ahas no moving parts and therefore a much longer life
Brequires no gas storage
Cdelivers gas at constant pressure
Doperates at any temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 1426 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
The principal health benefit of an improved cooking stove is that it
Arequires no fuelwood at all
Bcan burn any material
Cvents the smoke outside, reducing indoor air pollution
Dproduces more heat per unit of fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 1427 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
In both galvanic and electrolytic cells
Aoxidation occurs at the anode and reduction at the cathode
Bno electron transfer occurs
Creduction occurs at the anode in an electrolytic cell
Doxidation occurs at the cathode in a galvanic cell
Answer is hidden
Question 1428 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
A fuel cell differs from a battery principally in that a fuel cell
Astores its reactants internally
Breceives its reactants continuously from an external supply and so does not run down
Ccannot be recharged
Dproduces alternating current
Answer is hidden
Question 1429 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
A fuel cell can achieve a higher efficiency than a thermal power plant because it by the Carnot efficiency
Auses no fuel
Bhas no electrodes
Cconverts chemical energy directly to electricity without an intermediate heat engine, so it is not limited
Doperates at a much higher temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 1430 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
A proton exchange membrane fuel cell is used in vehicles rather than a solid oxide fuel cell because it
Atolerates carbon monoxide in the fuel
Bcan reform natural gas internally
Coperates at low temperature and starts quickly
Dreaches a higher electrical efficiency
Answer is hidden
Question 1431 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
The principal difficulty in storing hydrogen arises from its
Ahigh density
Btendency to solidify at room temperature
Cvery low energy content per unit mass
Dvery low energy content per unit volume, despite the highest energy content per unit mass of any fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 1432 of 2077Ch 6 · Biomass, Bioenergy, Hydrogen and Fuel Cells
Liquefaction of hydrogen for storage is energy intensive, consuming approximately
A3 per cent
Bno energy at all
C30 per cent of the energy contained in the hydrogen stored
D80 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1433 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
A fair comparison of the environmental impacts of different energy sources must be made
Aper unit of energy delivered over the whole life cycle
Bby installed capacity
Cat the operating stage only
Dby capital cost alone
Answer is hidden
Question 1434 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
A run-of-river hydropower scheme creates a dewatered reach between the intake and the powerhouse, which is mitigated by average flow
Areleasing a minimum environmental flow, conventionally at least 10 per cent of the lowest monthly
Bincreasing the diverted flow
Cremoving all fish from the reach
Dlining the river bed with concrete
Answer is hidden
Question 1435 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
The principal hazard associated with charging lead-acid batteries in an enclosed space is
Athe emission of ozone
Bthe release of carbon monoxide
Cthe evolution of hydrogen, which is explosive over a wide range of concentration
Dexcessive noise
Answer is hidden
Question 1436 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
Thermal runaway in a lithium-ion battery is particularly dangerous because extinguish
Athe exothermic reaction is self-sustaining and the cell supplies its own oxidant, so the fire is hard to
Bit can be stopped simply by disconnecting the load
Cit produces only water vapour
Dthe battery becomes extremely cold
Answer is hidden
Question 1437 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
The most intractable problem associated with nuclear power is operation
Athe long-term disposal of high-level radioactive waste, for which no permanent repository is yet in
Bthe emission of carbon dioxide during operation
Cthe intermittency of the output
Dthe very low energy density of the fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 1438 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
The three principles of radiation protection are
Adetection, measurement and reporting
Bjustification, optimisation and limitation
Ctime, distance and shielding
Dprevention, treatment and disposal
Answer is hidden
Question 1439 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
A hybrid electric vehicle differs from a plug-in hybrid in that the hybrid
Acannot be charged from the mains; its battery is charged only by the engine and by regenerative braking
Bproduces no emissions at all
Chas a larger battery
Dhas no internal combustion engine
Answer is hidden
Question 1440 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
The claim that a battery electric vehicle is a zero-emission vehicle is accurate only
Aunder all circumstances
Bif the vehicle is never driven
Cwhen charged from a coal-fired grid
Dat the tailpipe; the total emissions depend on how the electricity is generated
Answer is hidden
Question 1441 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
Regenerative braking gives the greatest benefit in
Asteady high-speed motorway driving
Bdownhill coasting only
Curban stop-start driving
Dstationary idling
Answer is hidden
Question 1442 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
The feature that most distinguishes a smart grid from a conventional electricity network is
Athe absence of any metering
Bthe use of higher transmission voltages
Ctwo-way flow of both electricity and information between the utility and the consumer
Dthe exclusive use of thermal generation
Answer is hidden
Question 1443 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
A capacitor installed for power factor correction at an industrial site consumed
Areduces the real power consumed by the plant
Breduces the current drawn from the supply, and therefore the losses, without reducing the real power
Cincreases the current drawn from the supply
Dconverts reactive power into real power
Answer is hidden
Question 1444 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
Compared with a battery, a supercapacitor has
Amuch higher power density but much lower energy density
Bidentical characteristics
Cmuch higher energy density but lower power density
Dboth higher energy and higher power density
Answer is hidden
Question 1445 of 2077Ch 6 · Environmental Impacts of Energy Sources
Indoor air pollution from cooking on open biomass fires is significant because it
Aposes no measurable health risk
Bis a leading cause of respiratory disease, falling mainly on women and children
Coccurs only in urban areas
Daffects only outdoor air quality
Answer is hidden
Question 1446 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
In the waste management hierarchy, reuse is placed above recycling because reuse
Aproduces a higher quality product in every case
Bavoids the energy and material cost of reprocessing the material
Cis always more profitable
Drequires no collection system
Answer is hidden
Question 1447 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
The characteristic that most distinguishes municipal solid waste in Nepal from that in a high-income country is its
Avery high calorific value
Bvery high plastic content
Cvery high organic content, commonly 60 to 70 per cent by weight
Dvery low moisture content
Answer is hidden
Question 1448 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Mass-burn incineration of unsegregated municipal waste has repeatedly failed in South Asian cities principally because the waste
Ahas too low a calorific value and too high a moisture content to burn without supplementary fuel
Bis produced in too small a quantity
Ccontains too much plastic
Dis too dry to handle safely
Answer is hidden
Question 1449 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Integrated sustainable solid waste management holds that a scheme will fail if it is
Adesigned by engineers rather than planners
Btechnically sound but financially or institutionally unsustainable
Coperated by the private sector
Dtechnically unsound but well financed
Answer is hidden
Question 1450 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Integrated sustainable solid waste management recommends that informal waste pickers should be
Aremoved from the system entirely
Bprosecuted for handling waste
Cignored, since they handle very little material
Dintegrated into the formal system rather than displaced by it
Answer is hidden
Question 1451 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
A waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits
Aignitability, corrosivity, reactivity or toxicity
Ba strong odour
Ca low calorific value
Da high moisture content
Answer is hidden
Question 1452 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Household hazardous waste is of particular concern because it
Ais dispersed through the general municipal stream, where it cannot easily be separated or controlled
Bis more toxic than industrial hazardous waste
Cis always collected separately
Dis generated in very large quantities
Answer is hidden
Question 1453 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Of the total waste generated by a hospital, the proportion that is actually hazardous is approximately
A100 per cent
B75 to 90 per cent
Cless than 1 per cent
D10 to 25 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1454 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
The most important single measure in healthcare waste management is
Asegregation of the hazardous fraction at the point of generation
Blandfilling all waste in a secure cell
Cchemical disinfection of the general waste
Dincineration of all healthcare waste
Answer is hidden
Question 1455 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Sharps containers must be
Arigid and puncture-proof, and filled to no more than about three-quarters of their capacity
Bopened for sorting before treatment
Cfilled completely before disposal
Dflexible plastic bags
Answer is hidden
Question 1456 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
The preferred treatment for infectious healthcare waste, other than anatomical and cytotoxic waste, is
Aopen burning in the hospital compound
Bdischarge to the sewer
Cautoclaving, because it is effective and produces no dioxins
Ddirect disposal to the municipal landfill
Answer is hidden
Question 1457 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Open burning of healthcare waste containing chlorinated plastics is particularly objectionable because it
Aconsumes excessive fuel
Bproduces dioxins and furans at low combustion temperature
Cis slower than incineration
Dproduces too much ash
Answer is hidden
Question 1458 of 2077Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Solid Waste and Its Management
Cytotoxic waste from chemotherapy is classified as
Athe most hazardous category of healthcare waste, requiring high-temperature incineration
Bordinary infectious waste
Crecyclable material
Dgeneral waste
Answer is hidden
Question 1459 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
A density figure quoted for municipal solid waste is meaningless unless it states
Athe colour of the waste
Bthe country of origin
Cthe time of day of collection
Dthe degree of compaction at which it was measured
Answer is hidden
Question 1460 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Leachate is generated in a landfill only after
Athe field capacity of the waste has been exceeded
Bthe landfill has been closed and capped
Cthe waste has become fully anaerobic
Dthe gas collection system is installed
Answer is hidden
Question 1461 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Proximate analysis of solid waste reports
Agross and net calorific value
Bthe carbon to nitrogen ratio
Cmoisture, volatile combustible matter, fixed carbon and ash
Dcarbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur
Answer is hidden
Question 1462 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
In Dulong's formula for calorific value, the hydrogen term appears as (H − O/8) because
Aoxygen is always present in excess
Bthe hydrogen already combined with oxygen in the fuel contributes nothing on combustion
Cthe formula is empirical with no physical basis
Dhydrogen is only one eighth as reactive as carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 1463 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
For municipal waste to be incinerated without supplementary fuel, its net calorific value must be at least about
A7 MJ/kg
B20 MJ/kg
C2 MJ/kg
D40 MJ/kg
Answer is hidden
Question 1464 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
The optimum carbon-to-nitrogen ratio for composting is approximately
A5 to 10
B25 to 30
C100 to 150
D1 to 2
Answer is hidden
Question 1465 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Food waste and dry leaves are commonly blended before composting because
Adry leaves are the only source of moisture
Bfood waste contains no nitrogen
Cthe mixture is lighter to handle
Dfood waste is nitrogen-rich with a low C/N ratio while dry leaves are carbon-rich with a high one
Answer is hidden
Question 1466 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Newsprint has a high volatile solids content but a low biodegradability because it
Acontains no organic carbon
Bis rich in lignin, which micro-organisms degrade only very slowly
Cis chemically inert
Dhas a very high moisture content
Answer is hidden
Question 1467 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Collection of municipal waste in a warm climate should be at intervals shorter than about one week principally because
Aflies complete their breeding cycle in uncollected waste in about that time
Bthe containers corrode
Cthe calorific value falls
Dthe waste becomes too heavy to lift
Answer is hidden
Question 1468 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
Refuse-derived fuel is particularly suitable for use in cement kilns because into the clinker
Acement kilns produce no emissions
Bcement kilns operate at low temperature
Ctheir high temperature and long residence time destroy organics completely and the ash is incorporated
DRDF requires no preparation
Answer is hidden
Question 1469 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
For Nepali municipal solid waste, the more appropriate energy recovery route is
Aanaerobic digestion of the organic fraction, because the waste is wet and highly organic
Bmass-burn incineration, because the calorific value is high
Cdirect combustion without any separation
Dpyrolysis of the mixed waste
Answer is hidden
Question 1470 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
A waste-to-energy plant converting waste to electricity typically achieves an overall conversion efficiency of about
A60 per cent
B5 per cent
C90 per cent
D20 to 25 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1471 of 2077Ch 7 · Properties of Solid Waste
The principal practical obstacle to producing green hydrogen from municipal solid waste is
Athe complete lack of research interest
Bthe low energy content of hydrogen per kilogram
Cthe need for a consistent segregated feedstock, which mixed municipal waste does not provide
Dthe absence of any suitable chemical route
Answer is hidden
Question 1472 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
In a hauled container system of solid waste collection
Athe container remains at the generation point and only the waste is transported
Bthe container itself is transported to the disposal point and returned
Cthe waste is transported manually
Dno container is used at all
Answer is hidden
Question 1473 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
A stationary container system is most appropriate for
Aa construction site
Ban industrial premises with a dedicated container
Cscattered residential generators producing small quantities
Da single large market producing many tonnes a day
Answer is hidden
Question 1474 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
Collection typically accounts for what proportion of the total cost of a municipal solid waste management system?
A60 to 80 per cent
B90 to 95 per cent
C30 to 40 per cent
D10 to 20 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1475 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
Segregation of waste at source is preferred to separation at a central facility because largely lost
Asource segregation requires no public cooperation
Bcentral separation is technically impossible
Ccentral facilities cannot handle organic waste
Donce wet organic waste is mixed with dry recyclables, both are contaminated and the value of each is
Answer is hidden
Question 1476 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
In planning a collection route on a steep hill street, waste should be collected
Aonly on level sections
Bwhile travelling uphill, to keep the vehicle light at the start
Cin no particular direction
Dwhile travelling downhill, so that the vehicle gains load as it descends
Answer is hidden
Question 1477 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
Off-route time in a collection operation refers to
Athe time spent at the disposal site
Ball unproductive time, including travel to and from the depot, breaks, waiting and breakdowns
Cthe time spent picking up containers
Dthe time spent hauling the loaded vehicle
Answer is hidden
Question 1478 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
A transfer station is economically justified when of double handling
Athe collection vehicles are already large
Bthe disposal site is very close to the city
Cwaste generation is very small
Dthe saving in haul cost from using large vehicles over a long distance exceeds the cost of the station and
Answer is hidden
Question 1479 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
In a direct discharge transfer station
Acollection vehicles discharge straight into the transfer vehicle, which requires the two to be synchronised
Bthe waste is treated before transfer
Cno transfer vehicle is used
Dwaste is stored in a pit and loaded later
Answer is hidden
Question 1480 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
A transfer station should ideally be located
Aat the edge of the municipality farthest from generation
Bnear the centroid of the waste generation area, with good access to a major road
Cin the most densely populated residential street
Dadjacent to the disposal site
Answer is hidden
Question 1481 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
The capacity of a transfer station must be designed for
Athe peak arrival rate of collection vehicles, not the daily average
Bthe minimum arrival rate
Cthe annual total tonnage divided by 365
Dthe daily average arrival rate
Answer is hidden
Question 1482 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
Which collection service gives the highest level of service to the householder at the highest cost?
AKerbside collection
BHousehold self-haul to the disposal site
CCommunity bin collection
DSet-out set-back service, in which a crew member carries the container from the premises and returns it
Answer is hidden
Question 1483 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
Storage capacity for waste at the household must be matched to
Athe collection frequency, subject to the limit imposed by odour and fly breeding in a warm climate
Bthe size of the household's kitchen
Cthe calorific value of the waste
Dthe distance to the disposal site
Answer is hidden
Question 1484 of 2077Ch 7 · Collection and Transportation
The commonest arrangement for residential waste collection in Nepali towns is system
Apneumatic collection through underground pipes
Bhousehold self-haul to a sanitary landfill
Cmechanically loaded hauled container system
Ddoor-to-door collection by a small vehicle or handcart, that is a manually loaded stationary container
Answer is hidden
Question 1485 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
The essential difference between an open dump and a sanitary landfill is that a sanitary landfill has
Aa larger area
Ba higher degree of waste compaction only
Ca different type of waste deposited in it
Da liner, leachate collection, gas management, daily cover and long-term monitoring
Answer is hidden
Question 1486 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
The area method of landfilling is used in preference to the trench method where
Athe water table is high or the ground is rocky, so excavation is impracticable
Bcover material is abundant on site
Cthe ground is flat with a deep water table
Dthe site is a disused quarry
Answer is hidden
Question 1487 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
A cell in landfill operation refers to
Athe waste deposited and compacted in one day together with its daily cover
Bone complete layer of waste across the site
Cthe whole landfill site
Dthe leachate collection sump
Answer is hidden
Question 1488 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
The most important group of criteria in selecting a landfill site is
Athe distance from the nearest school only
Bthe hydrogeology, since the principal risk is contamination of groundwater
Cthe aesthetic appearance of the site
Dthe availability of electricity
Answer is hidden
Question 1489 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
A composite landfill liner combines compacted clay with a geomembrane because
Athe two materials fail in different ways, so the clay limits leakage through any puncture in the membrane
Bthe geomembrane provides structural support for the waste
Cregulations require two layers of the same material
Dclay alone is completely impermeable
Answer is hidden
Question 1490 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
Groundwater monitoring wells at a landfill must be located
Aat the centre of the waste mass
Bdowngradient only
Cupgradient only
Dboth upgradient and downgradient, so that background quality is established
Answer is hidden
Question 1491 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
During the acid phase of waste decomposition in a landfill, the leachate produced is biologically
Aweak, with a BOD/COD ratio below 0.1
Bidentical to that of an old landfill
Cstrong, with very high BOD and a BOD/COD ratio above about 0.5, and therefore readily treatable
Dneutral in pH and free of metals
Answer is hidden
Question 1492 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
Landfill gas typically consists of approximately
A90 per cent carbon dioxide
Bhalf methane and half carbon dioxide
C90 per cent methane
Dpure hydrogen sulphide
Answer is hidden
Question 1493 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
Flaring landfill gas is environmentally beneficial even when the energy is not recovered because
Athe flare produces no emissions at all
Bcombustion converts methane to carbon dioxide, which has a far lower global warming potential
Cflaring destroys the carbon dioxide
Dit increases the landfill capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 1494 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
Methane migrating laterally from a landfill is dangerous because it
Ais explosive between about 5 and 15 per cent in air and can accumulate in nearby buildings and services
Bis acutely toxic at low concentration
Cincreases leachate production
Dcorrodes the landfill liner
Answer is hidden
Question 1495 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
In the water balance method, leachate generation is calculated as
Aprecipitation less surface runoff, evapotranspiration and the change in moisture storage in the waste
Bthe volume of waste multiplied by its density
Cthe area of the site multiplied by the depth
Dprecipitation alone
Answer is hidden
Question 1496 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
The most effective measure for controlling leachate production at a landfill is to
Arecirculate all the leachate indefinitely
Bincrease the capacity of the leachate treatment plant
Ckeep water out of the waste, by capping progressively and diverting surface water around the site
Dincrease the compaction of the waste only
Answer is hidden
Question 1497 of 2077Ch 7 · Waste Disposal and Landfilling
The principal hazard of electronic waste arises from
Athe volume of waste generated
Binformal recycling practices such as open burning of cable and acid leaching of circuit boards
Cits tendency to decompose rapidly
Dits high moisture content
Answer is hidden
Question 1498 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
The 3R principles are listed as reduce, reuse, recycle in that order because
Athe order expresses the priority, reduction being preferable to reuse and reuse to recycling
Brecycling is the most important of the three
Cthe order has no significance
Dthe order is alphabetical
Answer is hidden
Question 1499 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
A dirty material recovery facility differs from a clean one in that a dirty MRF
Agenerates no residue for disposal
Bproduces a higher quality product
Creceives source-separated recyclables
Dreceives mixed waste, giving a lower recovery rate and contaminated, low-value material
Answer is hidden
Question 1500 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
An eddy current separator in a material recovery facility is used to recover
Apaper and cardboard
Bnon-ferrous metals, chiefly aluminium
Cferrous metals such as steel
Dglass by colour
Answer is hidden
Question 1501 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Recycling aluminium saves approximately what proportion of the energy required to produce it from bauxite?
A20 per cent
B50 per cent
C95 per cent
DNo energy saving at all
Answer is hidden
Question 1502 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Paper can be recycled only about five to seven times because
Athe fibre shortens with each cycle until it is too short to form a sheet
Bthe market for recycled paper is limited
Cthe ink cannot be removed
Dpaper is not a renewable material
Answer is hidden
Question 1503 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
The most important practical constraint on a recycling scheme is usually
Athe availability of collection vehicles
Bthe existence of a secure end market for the recovered material
Cthe weight of the material
Dthe colour of the collection bins
Answer is hidden
Question 1504 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Composting is defined as a process that is
Aanaerobic, excluding oxygen entirely
Bindependent of moisture content
Caerobic, so that oxygen must be maintained throughout the mass
Dcarried out at ambient temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 1505 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
The thermophilic phase of composting, at 55 to 65 °C, is essential because it
Adries the compost completely
Bincreases the carbon to nitrogen ratio
Cdestroys pathogens and weed seeds
Dkills all the decomposing micro-organisms
Answer is hidden
Question 1506 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Vermicomposting differs from conventional composting in that it
Arequires no moisture control
Breaches a higher temperature than windrow composting
Cis faster than in-vessel composting
Doperates at ambient temperature and therefore does not achieve pathogen destruction
Answer is hidden
Question 1507 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
A compost is judged mature when, among other indicators, its carbon-to-nitrogen ratio has fallen to about
A50 to 60
B1 to 2
C10 to 15
D25 to 30
Answer is hidden
Question 1508 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Incineration of municipal solid waste reduces its volume by approximately
A90 per cent, leaving bottom ash and fly ash
B20 per cent
C50 per cent
D100 per cent, leaving no residue
Answer is hidden
Question 1509 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
The three Ts of good combustion in an incinerator are
Atime, transport and treatment
Btemperature, time and turbulence
Cturbulence, transfer and tipping
Dtemperature, toxicity and tonnage
Answer is hidden
Question 1510 of 2077Ch 7 · Material Recovery, Composting and Incineration
Rapid quenching of incinerator flue gas through the range 250 to 400 °C is required because
Aquenching recovers additional energy
Bthe gas would otherwise solidify
Cthe fabric filter cannot operate above 250 °C only
Ddioxins and furans re-form in that temperature window as the gas cools
Answer is hidden
Question 1511 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Under Nepal's Solid Waste Management Act, 2068, the primary responsibility for the collection, treatment and disposal of solid waste rests with
Athe local body
Bthe federal ministry directly
Cprivate companies exclusively
Dthe individual householder alone
Answer is hidden
Question 1512 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Under the Solid Waste Management Act, 2068, hazardous, chemical, medical and industrial waste must be
Aexported for treatment in every case
Bmanaged by the generator itself at its own cost, under the prescribed standards
Cmixed with municipal waste for disposal
Dcollected free of charge by the municipality
Answer is hidden
Question 1513 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The Solid Waste Management Act, 2068 requires waste generators to
Atransport their waste to the landfill themselves
Bstore waste for a minimum of one week
Csegregate waste at source into organic and inorganic fractions
Dburn their own waste
Answer is hidden
Question 1514 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The single greatest gap in solid waste management in Nepal is generally identified as
Aexcessive public participation
Ba shortage of collection vehicles
Cthe absence of effective segregation at source
Da lack of landfill sites alone
Answer is hidden
Question 1515 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The composition of Nepali municipal solid waste makes the greatest diversion opportunity lie in
Athe plastic fraction, through incineration
Bthe glass fraction, through recycling
Cthe organic fraction, through composting and anaerobic digestion
Dthe metal fraction, through smelting
Answer is hidden
Question 1516 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Most recycling in Nepali cities is carried out by
Athe informal sector of waste pickers, itinerant buyers and scrap dealers
Bforeign contractors
Cmunicipal material recovery facilities
Dthe federal government
Answer is hidden
Question 1517 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The vicious circle affecting solid waste finance in Nepali municipalities is that
Apoor service reduces willingness to pay, which reduces revenue, which further degrades the service
Bdonors always provide operating costs
Chigh fees discourage waste generation
Dwaste collection is inherently profitable
Answer is hidden
Question 1518 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The NIMBY problem in solid waste management refers to
Athe absence of legislation
Bopposition by communities near any proposed facility, which has repeatedly closed landfill sites
Cthe high moisture content of the waste
Dthe shortage of waste to fill landfills
Answer is hidden
Question 1519 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The Solid Waste Management Act, 2068 (2011) replaced
Athe Solid Waste (Management and Resource Mobilization) Act, 2044 (1987)
Bthe Environment Protection Act, 2076
Cthe Local Government Operation Act, 2074
Dthe Public Health Service Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1520 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Under the Solid Waste Management Act, a local body may involve the private sector in waste management
Anot at all, since the function is exclusively public
Bonly by direct appointment without any process
Conly with federal approval for each contract
Dthrough a competitive process, with a licence and an agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 1521 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Open burning of solid waste in Nepal is
Apermitted if carried out at night
Bpermitted for organic waste only
Cprohibited under the Solid Waste Management Act
Dthe recommended disposal method for rural areas
Answer is hidden
Question 1522 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
Environmental assessment of a proposed landfill site in Nepal is required under
Athe Local Government Operation Act only
Bthe Solid Waste Management Act alone
Cthe Environment Protection Act, 2076 and the Environment Protection Rules, 2077
Dno legislation at all
Answer is hidden
Question 1523 of 2077Ch 7 · Governance, Acts and Policies
The Solid Waste Management Technical Support Centre was established in order to
Aprovide technical assistance to local bodies in managing solid waste
Bregulate private sector tariffs nationally
Coperate all landfills in the country directly
Dcollect waste in the Kathmandu Valley
Answer is hidden
Question 1524 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Raising the height of a stack is correctly described as
Aa treatment that destroys the pollutant
Bthe most effective form of emission control
Cdispersion rather than control, because the mass of pollutant emitted is unchanged
Da method that reduces the total mass emitted
Answer is hidden
Question 1525 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Ozone in the lower atmosphere is classified as a secondary pollutant because it is
Aformed in the atmosphere by reaction of nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in sunlight
Bemitted directly from vehicle exhaust
Ca product of incomplete combustion at the source
Dreleased from stratospheric transport only
Answer is hidden
Question 1526 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
The reason every ambient air quality standard specifies an averaging time is that
Ainstruments cannot read instantaneously
Bit simplifies the arithmetic of reporting
Cconcentrations are constant over any period
Dthe health effect depends on the duration of exposure as well as on the concentration
Answer is hidden
Question 1527 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
The volume ratio in parts per million is preferred for reporting gaseous pollutants in a duct because it is
Aalways numerically larger than μg/m³
Bindependent of the temperature and pressure of the gas
Ceasier to measure than a mass concentration
Dapplicable to particulate matter as well
Answer is hidden
Question 1528 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
At 25 °C and one atmosphere, the molar volume used to convert between ppm and μg/m³ is
A18.00 litres per mole
B24.45 litres per mole
C22.41 litres per mole
D28.80 litres per mole
Answer is hidden
Question 1529 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Particulate matter is always reported as a mass concentration rather than as a volume ratio because it
Acannot be collected on a filter
Bdoes not disperse in the atmosphere
Cis always present at very low levels
Dhas no single molecular mass
Answer is hidden
Question 1530 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
The principal physical reason for the severity of winter air pollution in the Kathmandu Valley is
Athe absence of any industry in the valley
Ban unusually high rainfall in winter
Cstrong and persistent valley winds
Dthe enclosing topography combined with a strong night-time temperature inversion
Answer is hidden
Question 1531 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Diesel three-wheeler tempos were banned from the Kathmandu Valley in 1999 and replaced by
Atwo-stroke petrol tempos
Bdiesel minibuses with filters
Cbattery-electric Safa Tempos
Dcompressed natural gas buses
Answer is hidden
Question 1532 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Carbon monoxide is dangerous at low concentrations principally because it
Ais strongly acidic in solution
Bbinds haemoglobin with roughly two hundred times the affinity of oxygen
Cis a powerful oxidising agent
Dis corrosive to the lining of the airway
Answer is hidden
Question 1533 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Sulphur dioxide affects mainly the upper airway while nitrogen dioxide reaches the lower airway because sulphur dioxide is
Afar more soluble in water and is absorbed on the moist upper surfaces
Bchemically inert in the body
Cpresent at far higher concentrations
Dmuch heavier as a molecule
Answer is hidden
Question 1534 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Sulphur dioxide damages marble and limestone monuments by converting calcium carbonate to
Agypsum, which is bulkier and soluble, so the surface blisters and spalls
Bcalcium oxide, which is inert and protective
Ccalcium chloride, which is washed away harmlessly
Dcalcium silicate, which hardens the surface
Answer is hidden
Question 1535 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
Visibility is reduced most efficiently by particles in the size range
Abelow 0.01 μm, which are the most numerous
Bexactly 10 μm, the PM10 cut size
Cabove 50 μm, which are the most visible individually
Dabout 0.1 to 1 μm, comparable with the wavelength of visible light
Answer is hidden
Question 1536 of 2077Ch 8 · Introduction to Air Pollution Control
In the hierarchy of air pollution control practices the first option to be considered is
Arelocating the plant away from the city
Binstalling an electrostatic precipitator
Cchanging or treating the input, such as using a lower-sulphur fuel
Draising the stack height
Answer is hidden
Question 1537 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
A cyclone of 90 per cent efficiency is followed by a precipitator of 98 per cent efficiency. The overall efficiency is
A94.0 per cent
B99.98 per cent
C99.8 per cent
D98.0 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1538 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
The chief honest limitation of any air pollution control device is that it
Aworks only on gaseous pollutants
Breduces the volumetric flow rate excessively
Ctransfers the pollutant to a solid or liquid stream rather than destroying it
Dalways increases the mass of pollutant
Answer is hidden
Question 1539 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Among the following, the device that genuinely destroys rather than transfers the pollutant is the
Afabric filter
Bcatalytic oxidiser
Ccyclone separator
Delectrostatic precipitator
Answer is hidden
Question 1540 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Deliberately admitting dilution air ahead of a control device is objectionable because it equipment
Araises the measured concentration unfairly
Blowers the measured concentration without reducing the mass emitted, while enlarging all the
Clowers the fan power requirement
Dremoves the pollutant too efficiently
Answer is hidden
Question 1541 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Emission concentrations from combustion sources are corrected to a reference oxygen content in order to
Aconvert between ppm and mg/m³
Bcompensate for the moisture in the flue gas
Callow for variation in the fuel calorific value
Dprevent apparent compliance being achieved by admitting excess air
Answer is hidden
Question 1542 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Calculations across a combustion or absorption process are conveniently based on the inert flow rate because the inert flow is
Aeasier to measure than the total flow
Balways the largest component present
Cequal to the pollutant flow
Dconserved while the total flow changes
Answer is hidden
Question 1543 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
A flue gas measured at 1000 m³/h at 0 °C will occupy, at 150 °C and the same pressure, approximately
A2730 m³/h
B1550 m³/h
C850 m³/h
D1150 m³/h
Answer is hidden
Question 1544 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Ducts carrying dust-laden gas are designed for 15 to 25 m/s because below that velocity
Athe fan cannot develop sufficient head
Bdust settles out of suspension and plugs the duct
Cthe gas cools below the acid dew point
Dthe pressure drop becomes excessive
Answer is hidden
Question 1545 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
The acid dew point of a flue gas containing sulphur trioxide is
Aindependent of the sulphur content
Bequal to the water dew point
Cmuch higher than the water dew point, typically 120 to 160 °C
Dmuch lower than the water dew point
Answer is hidden
Question 1546 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Cooling a flue gas below its acid dew point results in
Aa reduction in the fan power required
Brapid low-temperature corrosion of air heaters, ducts and stack liners
Cimproved collection of fine particulate
Dcomplete removal of sulphur dioxide
Answer is hidden
Question 1547 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Selective catalytic reduction of nitrogen oxides with ammonia typically operates in the temperature range
A850 to 1100 °C
B300 to 400 °C
C1300 to 1500 °C
D100 to 150 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 1548 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
The three-way catalytic converter can control carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides simultaneously only when the engine runs
Awith a substantial excess of fuel
Bvery close to the stoichiometric air-fuel ratio
Cat full throttle at all times
Dwith a large excess of air
Answer is hidden
Question 1549 of 2077Ch 8 · Approaches for Air Pollution Control
Unleaded petrol became a legal requirement principally because lead
Alowers the acid dew point of the exhaust
Bincreases the formation of nitrogen oxides
Cpoisons the catalyst in the three-way converter
Draises the octane number excessively
Answer is hidden
Question 1550 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
The terminal settling velocity of a particle in the Stokes regime varies with the particle diameter as
Athe square root of the diameter
Bthe first power of the diameter
Cthe cube of the diameter
Dthe square of the diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 1551 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
A 10 μm particle of density 2000 kg/m³ settles in air at viscosity 1.8 × 10⁻⁵ Pa·s at approximately
A0.6 mm per second
B6 mm per second
C6 cm per second
D6 m per second
Answer is hidden
Question 1552 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
The Cunningham slip correction factor must be applied to particles below about one micrometre because such particles
Aare no longer spherical
Bcarry an electrical charge
Care comparable in size with the mean free path of the gas molecules and slip between them
Dhave a much higher density
Answer is hidden
Question 1553 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
Stokes' law ceases to be valid when the particle Reynolds number exceeds approximately
Aone thousand
Bone
Ctwo thousand one hundred
Done hundred thousand
Answer is hidden
Question 1554 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
For the same dust, the mass median diameter compared with the count median diameter is
Aalways smaller
Blarger only for log-normal dusts
Calways equal
Dalways larger
Answer is hidden
Question 1555 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
The aerodynamic diameter of a particle is defined as the diameter of a sphere that has
Athe same volume as the particle
Ba density of 1000 kg/m³ and the same settling velocity as the particle
Cthe same mass as the particle
Dthe same surface area as the particle
Answer is hidden
Question 1556 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
PM10 is correctly defined as particulate matter collected with
Aa fifty per cent cut at an aerodynamic diameter of 10 μm
Ba complete cut at a geometric diameter of 10 μm
Call particles smaller than 10 μm and none larger
Dall particles larger than 10 μm
Answer is hidden
Question 1557 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
Deposition of particles in the respiratory tract is at a minimum at a diameter of about
A5 μm
B0.3 to 0.5 μm
C0.01 μm
D10 μm
Answer is hidden
Question 1558 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
Fine particles of 0.1 to 2 μm have the longest atmospheric residence time because they are removed
Avery rapidly by impaction on surfaces
Bonly by chemical reaction
Cefficiently by settling but not by rain
Dneither efficiently by settling nor efficiently by diffusion and coagulation
Answer is hidden
Question 1559 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
The scavenging of particles by raindrops falling beneath a cloud is called
Adry deposition
Bsedimentation
Crainout
Dwashout
Answer is hidden
Question 1560 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
A city that controls only its primary dust emissions typically finds that its PM2.5 concentration
Afalls almost to zero
Brises sharply
Cis unaffected by any control at all
Dfalls far less than expected, because precursor gases continue to form secondary particles
Answer is hidden
Question 1561 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
Thermal nitrogen oxide formation becomes significant above a flame temperature of about
A600 °C
B1300 °C
C850 °C
D2500 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 1562 of 2077Ch 8 · Nature of Particulate Pollutants and Their Control
Low-NOx burners, flue gas recirculation and staged combustion all reduce nitrogen oxide emission principally by
Araising the flame temperature to destroy NOx
Bincreasing the excess air supplied
Clowering the peak flame temperature and the oxygen available in the hottest zone
Dadding ammonia to the flue gas
Answer is hidden
Question 1563 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
Isokinetic sampling requires that the sample be drawn into the nozzle at
Athe velocity giving the maximum collected mass
Bexactly the local velocity of the gas in the duct
Ctwice the local gas velocity
Dhalf the local gas velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 1564 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
If a particulate sample is drawn sub-isokinetically, that is too slowly, the measured dust loading will be
Aover-estimated only for gaseous pollutants
Bunaffected, since the concentration is a ratio
Cunder-estimated, because less gas is collected
Dover-estimated, because coarse particles enter by inertia while gas spills around the nozzle
Answer is hidden
Question 1565 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
Isokinetic sampling is unnecessary when measuring gaseous pollutants because gas molecules
Aare destroyed by the sampling pump
Bare always uniformly distributed in the duct
Chave negligible inertia and follow the streamlines at any sampling rate
Dcannot be collected on a filter
Answer is hidden
Question 1566 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
A stack sampling plane should be located
Aimmediately after a bend to ensure mixing
Bat least eight duct diameters downstream and two upstream of any disturbance
Cwherever access is most convenient
Dimmediately at the stack exit
Answer is hidden
Question 1567 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
The sample line between the stack and the analyser is heated principally to prevent
Acondensation of water, which would absorb and remove soluble gases
Bthe particulate from settling in the line
Cthe analyser from overheating
Dthe sample from igniting
Answer is hidden
Question 1568 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
The Air Quality Index for a day is taken as
Athe sub-index for particulate matter only
Bthe arithmetic mean of the sub-indices
Cthe sum of all the sub-indices
Dthe highest of the individual pollutant sub-indices
Answer is hidden
Question 1569 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
Nitrogen dioxide is measured by chemiluminescence by
Ameasuring NO2 directly by its own light emission
Bultraviolet absorption at 254 nm
Ccollecting it on a filter and weighing it
Dmeasuring NO directly and NOx after conversion, and taking the difference
Answer is hidden
Question 1570 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
The emission rate from a stack is correctly obtained as the concentration multiplied by the volumetric flow rate provided that
Athe gas is at standard conditions by definition
Bthe concentration is in ppm and the flow in m³/s
Cthe flow is measured at the stack exit only
Dboth are expressed at the same temperature and pressure conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 1571 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
A stack of 1.13 m² area carries gas at 12 m/s and 180 °C with a loading of 150 mg/Nm³. The emission rate is approximately
A7.3 kg per hour
B4.4 kg per hour
C2.0 kg per hour
D0.6 kg per hour
Answer is hidden
Question 1572 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
The principal limitation of using a published emission factor in place of a measurement is that the factor
Acannot be used for inventories
Bis always lower than the true value
Capplies only to gaseous pollutants
Dis a population average and may be seriously wrong for an individual plant
Answer is hidden
Question 1573 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
On the Ringelmann scale, a reading of 2 corresponds to an opacity of
A40 per cent
B60 per cent
C100 per cent
D20 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1574 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
Opacity monitoring is a useful compliance screen but is misleading when the plume
Acontains only coarse particles
Bcomes from a tall stack
Cis emitted at night
Dcontains condensed water vapour, which is white and obscures light without being a pollutant
Answer is hidden
Question 1575 of 2077Ch 8 · Air Pollution Measurements and Emission Estimates
A duct cross-section is traversed at the centroids of equal-area segments rather than sampled at a single point because
Aone point would take too little time
Bthe pitot tube cannot be held steady
Cboth velocity and dust loading vary systematically across the duct
Dthe nozzle must be changed for each point
Answer is hidden
Question 1576 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
In the Deutsch-Anderson equation for an electrostatic precipitator, doubling the collecting plate area
Asquares the penetration, so efficiency rises from 95 to about 99.75 per cent
Bhalves the efficiency
Cdoubles the efficiency
Dleaves the efficiency unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 1577 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
A dust of very high electrical resistivity degrades precipitator performance because the collected layer
Ashort-circuits the discharge electrode
Bloses its charge instantly and is re-entrained
Cretains its charge until it breaks down, emitting a back corona that neutralises incoming particles
Dbecomes too heavy to be rapped off
Answer is hidden
Question 1578 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
Several small cyclones operated in parallel are preferred to one large cyclone of the same total capacity because collection efficiency improves as
Athe body diameter is increased
Bthe inlet velocity is reduced
Cthe body diameter is reduced
Dthe gas temperature is raised
Answer is hidden
Question 1579 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
Raising the inlet velocity of a cyclone improves its collection efficiency but
Areduces the centrifugal force available
Braises the pressure drop with the square of the velocity
Chas no effect on pressure drop
Dlowers the pressure drop proportionally
Answer is hidden
Question 1580 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
In an established fabric filter the actual filtration is performed mainly by
Athe supporting cage
Belectrostatic attraction to the bag
Cthe pores of the clean fabric alone
Dthe dust cake deposited on the fabric
Answer is hidden
Question 1581 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The chief advantage of a fabric filter over an electrostatic precipitator is that its performance is
Aessentially independent of the electrical resistivity of the dust
Bunaffected by gas temperature
Cobtained at a lower pressure drop
Dunaffected by moisture in the gas
Answer is hidden
Question 1582 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
A fabric filter is unsuitable where the flue gas
Ais at ambient temperature
Bfalls below its dew point, because moisture blinds the fabric
Chas a low dust loading
Dcontains very fine particles
Answer is hidden
Question 1583 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The venturi scrubber achieves submicron collection principally through
Agravitational settling in the throat
Bchemical dissolution of the particles
Cthe very high relative velocity between gas and atomised droplets in the throat
Delectrostatic attraction between droplet and particle
Answer is hidden
Question 1584 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The unique advantage of a wet scrubber over all the dry collectors is that it can
Acollect dust without producing any waste
Bwork at unlimited gas temperature
Coperate with no pressure drop
Dremove particulate matter and absorb soluble gases in the same unit
Answer is hidden
Question 1585 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The maximum ground-level concentration downwind of a stack varies with the effective stack height as
Athe inverse cube
Bthe inverse square of the effective height
Cthe inverse first power
Dthe square of the height
Answer is hidden
Question 1586 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The stack exit velocity is conventionally kept above about 1.5 times the wind speed in order to avoid
Aerosion of the stack lining
Bexcessive plume rise
Cdownwash of the plume into the lee eddy behind the stack
Dcondensation in the stack
Answer is hidden
Question 1587 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
The plume condition that produces the highest short-term ground-level concentrations is
Afanning
Blofting
Cconing
Dfumigation
Answer is hidden
Question 1588 of 2077Ch 8 · General Ideas in Air Pollution Control
An atmosphere in which the environmental lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate of 9.8 °C per kilometre is
Astable, and suppresses vertical mixing
Bneutral, giving a coning plume
Cunstable, and disperses pollutants well
Dalways accompanied by an inversion
Answer is hidden
Question 1589 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
Two machines each producing 80 dB operating together produce a level of
A83 dB
B86 dB
C160 dB
D80 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1590 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
If one source is 10 dB louder than another, silencing the quieter source will reduce the combined level by
A10 dB
Bless than 0.5 dB, so it achieves effectively nothing
C3 dB
D5 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1591 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
The sound pressure level from a point source in free field decreases with distance by
A6 dB for each ten-fold increase in distance
B10 dB for each doubling of distance
C6 dB for each doubling of distance
D3 dB for each doubling of distance
Answer is hidden
Question 1592 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
A point source gives 90 dB at 10 m. At 40 m the level in free field will be approximately
A78 dB
B87 dB
C84 dB
D72 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1593 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
A-weighting is applied to environmental noise measurements because it
Ais required for impulsive noise
Bremoves the contribution of high frequencies
Capproximates the reduced sensitivity of the ear to low frequencies
Dincreases the measured level to give a margin of safety
Answer is hidden
Question 1594 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
The equivalent continuous sound level Leq is best described as
Athe arithmetic mean of the readings in decibels
Bthe highest level recorded during the period
Cthe steady level containing the same acoustic energy as the fluctuating noise over the period
Dthe level exceeded for ten per cent of the time
Answer is hidden
Question 1595 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
The day-night level Ldn is computed by adding a penalty to night-time levels of
A3 dB
B10 dB
C5 dB
D20 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1596 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
Noise-induced hearing loss characteristically appears first in the audiogram as a notch at
A15 kHz
B4 kHz
C250 Hz
D1 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 1597 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
The occupational noise exposure limit of 85 dB(A) applies to a working day of
Atwelve hours, halving for every 5 dB
Beight hours, with a halving of permitted time for every 3 dB increase under the ISO rule
Ceight hours, halving for every 10 dB
Dfour hours, halving for every 3 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1598 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
A noise barrier beside a road is effective only if it
Ais placed exactly midway between them
Bis porous to allow air movement
Cbreaks the line of sight between the source and the receiver
Dis planted with dense vegetation
Answer is hidden
Question 1599 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
A line of dense trees planted as a noise barrier typically provides an attenuation of about
A1 to 3 dB, which is negligible
B20 to 25 dB
C30 dB or more
D10 to 15 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1600 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
According to the mass law, doubling the surface mass of a partition increases its sound transmission loss by about
A20 dB
B10 dB
C6 dB
D3 dB
Answer is hidden
Question 1601 of 2077Ch 8 · Noise Pollution
The Nepali national noise standard for an urban residential area is commonly cited as
A75 dB(A) by day and 70 dB(A) at night
B65 dB(A) by day and 55 dB(A) at night
C55 dB(A) by day and 50 dB(A) at night
D45 dB(A) by day and 40 dB(A) at night
Answer is hidden
Question 1602 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The chemical oxygen demand of a wastewater is always greater than its five-day biochemical oxygen demand because COD
Ais measured over a longer period
Bincludes the oxygen dissolved in the sample
Calso oxidises the non-biodegradable organic matter
Dis measured at a higher temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 1603 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
A wastewater with a BOD5 to COD ratio of 0.15 is best treated by
Aconventional activated sludge
Ba trickling filter
Ca facultative stabilization pond
Da physico-chemical process, since the waste is poorly biodegradable
Answer is hidden
Question 1604 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
Volatile suspended solids are determined as the fraction of suspended solids lost on ignition at
A105 °C, and they represent the water content
B550 °C, and they represent the organic matter
C1000 °C, and they represent the mineral matter
D180 °C, and they represent the dissolved solids
Answer is hidden
Question 1605 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
For a town of 10 000 people the Harmon peaking factor is approximately
A4.50
B2.96
C1.50
D2.00
Answer is hidden
Question 1606 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The hydraulic elements of a treatment plant — channels, weirs and pumps — are sized on the
Aminimum flow
Baverage day flow
Cpeak hour flow
Dannual mean flow
Answer is hidden
Question 1607 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The chief disadvantage of a combined sewerage system is that
Athe sewers are never self-cleansing
Bit cannot accept storm water at all
Cin heavy rain the excess flow must be discharged as a combined sewer overflow containing raw sewage
Dit requires two sets of pipes to be laid
Answer is hidden
Question 1608 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The volume of sewage generated is commonly taken as what proportion of the water supplied?
A30 to 40 per cent
B70 to 80 per cent
C100 per cent
D120 to 130 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 1609 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The principal purpose of preliminary treatment is to
Aprotect the downstream units from damage, abrasion and blockage
Bremove nutrients from the wastewater
Cremove dissolved organic matter
Ddisinfect the flow before discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 1610 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
Nitrogen and phosphorus removal belongs to which stage of treatment?
APreliminary treatment
BSludge handling
CPrimary treatment
DTertiary or advanced treatment
Answer is hidden
Question 1611 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The hydraulic profile of a treatment plant is drawn
Awithout reference to the receiving water
Bbackwards from the outfall, because the available head is fixed by the receiving water level
Cfrom the biological reactor outwards in both directions
Dforwards from the inlet, because the inflow is known first
Answer is hidden
Question 1612 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
A wastewater treatment plant should preferably be located
Ain the centre of the area served
Bdownstream of the town, below the lowest point of the sewer system and downwind of habitation
Cat the highest point of the catchment
Dupstream of the town for easy access
Answer is hidden
Question 1613 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
The ultimate BOD of a sewage with BOD5 of 220 mg/L, taking BOD5 as 0.68 of the ultimate, is approximately
A440 mg/L
B320 mg/L
C150 mg/L
D220 mg/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1614 of 2077Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Wastewater Treatment
Effluent discharged into a public sewer is permitted at a weaker quality than effluent discharged to a river because
Asewers dilute the discharge completely
Bsewer discharges are never monitored
Cthe sewer leads to further treatment at the plant
Dthe standards have not yet been written for sewers
Answer is hidden
Question 1615 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
In a circular sewer the velocity of flow is a maximum when the depth of flow is about
A0.94 of the diameter
Bequal to the diameter
C0.81 of the diameter
D0.50 of the diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 1616 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
The discharge carried by a circular sewer is a maximum at a depth of flow of about
A0.94 of the diameter, where it exceeds the full-bore discharge by about eight per cent
Bexactly full, by definition
C0.50 of the diameter
D0.81 of the diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 1617 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
When a circular sewer flows exactly half full, the velocity compared with the full-bore velocity is
Atwice as great
Bhalf of it
Cfourteen per cent greater
Dexactly equal to it
Answer is hidden
Question 1618 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
The minimum self-cleansing velocity normally specified for a sanitary sewer is
A1.5 to 2.0 m/s
B0.6 to 0.8 m/s
C3.0 m/s
D0.2 to 0.3 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 1619 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
For a circular pipe flowing full, the hydraulic radius is equal to
AD
BD/2
CD/4
DD/8
Answer is hidden
Question 1620 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
A 300 mm concrete sewer (n = 0.013) laid at a slope of 1 in 400 flows full at a velocity of approximately
A0.34 m/s
B1.36 m/s
C0.68 m/s
D2.10 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 1621 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
Sanitary sewers are normally designed to flow only half to three-quarters full at peak flow in order to
Aallow for underestimation of flow and to provide ventilation space for sewer gases
Bminimise the quantity of concrete used
Cpermit the sewer to be used as a storm drain
Dreduce the velocity below the self-cleansing value
Answer is hidden
Question 1622 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
The egg-shaped sewer was adopted for combined systems because its narrow invert
Aresists external earth loading best
Bis the cheapest shape to manufacture
Cgives the greatest possible discharge capacity
Dmaintains a self-cleansing velocity at the small dry-weather flow
Answer is hidden
Question 1623 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
Crown corrosion of a concrete sewer is caused by
Ahydrogen sulphide being oxidised by bacteria on the moist crown to sulphuric acid
Belectrolytic action between reinforcement and concrete
Cabrasion by grit carried in suspension
Ddirect attack of the sewage on the cement
Answer is hidden
Question 1624 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
Sewer pipes are laid starting from the downstream end with the sockets facing upstream because
Athe sockets are stronger in that orientation
Bwater in the trench drains away from the work and the joint is protected from flowing water
Cit allows a steeper gradient to be used
Dit is easier to transfer levels in that direction
Answer is hidden
Question 1625 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
The minimum diameter normally permitted for a public sanitary sewer is
A300 mm
B150 mm
C75 mm
D450 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 1626 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
Where a sewer and a water main cross, the sewer must be laid
Aabove the water main for easier access
Bat exactly the same level
Cbelow the water main, so that a leak cannot contaminate the supply
Din the same trench as the water main
Answer is hidden
Question 1627 of 2077Ch 9 · Design of Sewers
Compared with a concrete sewer, a PVC sewer of the same size and gradient will carry
Athe same discharge, since n does not affect discharge
Ba smaller discharge, because it is lighter
Ca greater discharge, because its Manning's n is lower
Da greater discharge, because its hydraulic radius is larger
Answer is hidden
Question 1628 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
The parameter that governs the removal of discrete particles in a sedimentation tank is the
Asurface overflow rate
Btank depth
Cdetention time
Dweir length
Answer is hidden
Question 1629 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
Primary sedimentation removes about 60 per cent of suspended solids but only about 30 per cent of BOD because
ABOD is destroyed rather than removed
Bthe tank depth is insufficient
Croughly half of the BOD in domestic sewage is dissolved or colloidal and cannot settle
Dthe detention time provided is too short
Answer is hidden
Question 1630 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
The horizontal velocity in a grit chamber is held at about 0.3 m/s in order to
Asettle the grit while keeping the lighter organic solids in suspension
Bmaximise the detention time available
Cprevent any solids from settling at all
Dsettle both grit and organic solids together
Answer is hidden
Question 1631 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
A proportional flow (Sutro) weir is placed at the outlet of a horizontal grit chamber in order to
Aincrease the detention time at low flow
Bkeep the horizontal velocity constant as the flow varies
Cprevent floating matter from leaving
Dmeasure the quantity of grit removed
Answer is hidden
Question 1632 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
An aerated grit chamber is insensitive to variations in the rate of flow because separation is governed by
Athe depth of the tank alone
Bthe specific gravity of the grit alone
Cthe detention time alone
Dthe spiral roll velocity imposed by the diffused air rather than by the forward velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 1633 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
The detention time normally provided in a horizontal flow grit chamber is
A1.5 to 2.5 hours
B45 to 90 seconds
C2 to 5 minutes
D6 to 8 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1634 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
The volume of a flow equalization tank is obtained from the cumulative inflow mass diagram as
Athe sum of the greatest deviation above and the greatest deviation below the average flow line
Bthe total inflow over twenty-four hours
Cthe greatest deviation above the line alone
Dthe difference between maximum and minimum hourly flow
Answer is hidden
Question 1635 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
An in-line equalization tank is preferred to a side-line arrangement where it is important to
Adamp the variation in concentration as well as in flow
Bminimise the capital cost of the tank
Cavoid any mixing requirement
Deliminate the need for pumping
Answer is hidden
Question 1636 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
Head loss through a clogged bar screen, with a velocity through the openings of 0.9 m/s and an approach velocity of 0.6 m/s, is approximately
A33 mm
B23 mm
C5 mm
D150 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 1637 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
The approach velocity in the channel ahead of a bar screen is kept above about 0.4 m/s so that
Athe head loss is maximised
Bthe screenings are pushed through the bars
Cgrit does not settle in the channel
Dthe screen can be cleaned manually
Answer is hidden
Question 1638 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
A town produces 8000 m³/d of sewage. At a surface overflow rate of 40 m³/m²·d the primary tank surface area required is
A20 m²
B2000 m²
C200 m²
D320 000 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 1639 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
Short-circuiting in a sedimentation tank means that
Athe weir loading rate is too low
Bthe tank is operated at too great a depth
Cthe sludge is withdrawn too frequently
Dpart of the flow passes rapidly from inlet to outlet without using the full settling zone
Answer is hidden
Question 1640 of 2077Ch 9 · Preliminary and Primary Treatment Processes
Grit is removed ahead of the biological stage principally because it
Acannot be settled further downstream
Babrades pumps and pipework and accumulates in tanks and digesters
Cis toxic to the biological process
Dexerts a very high oxygen demand
Answer is hidden
Question 1641 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
An anoxic process is correctly defined as one in which
Adissolved oxygen is absent but nitrate is present and serves as the electron acceptor
Bboth oxygen and nitrate are absent
Coxygen is present at a low concentration
Dsulphate serves as the electron acceptor
Answer is hidden
Question 1642 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
The controlling design parameter of every suspended growth biological process is the
Atank depth
Breturn sludge concentration
Csolids retention time
Dhydraulic retention time
Answer is hidden
Question 1643 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
Nitrification fails in winter at a plant that nitrifies successfully in summer chiefly because
Athe nitrifiers grow more slowly at low temperature and are washed out at the operating SRT
Bammonia becomes less soluble in cold water
Cthe heterotrophs die off in cold weather
Doxygen is less soluble in cold water
Answer is hidden
Question 1644 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
In the Monod equation the half-saturation constant Ks is the substrate concentration at which
Athe specific growth rate is half of its maximum value
Bthe yield coefficient is halved
Cgrowth ceases entirely
Dthe decay rate equals the growth rate
Answer is hidden
Question 1645 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
The yield coefficient for anaerobic treatment is only about one-tenth that for aerobic treatment, which means that anaerobic processes
Aproduce very little sludge, because the energy leaves as methane rather than as new cells
Bremove far less organic matter overall
Coperate at a much higher growth rate
Drequire much more nutrient addition
Answer is hidden
Question 1646 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
A reactor of 2000 m³ holding 2500 mg/L MLVSS receives 5000 m³/d of sewage at 200 mg/L BOD. The F/M ratio is
A2.0 kg BOD per kg MLVSS per day
B0.2 kg BOD per kg MLVSS per day
C0.5 kg BOD per kg MLVSS per day
D0.04 kg BOD per kg MLVSS per day
Answer is hidden
Question 1647 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
A high food to microorganism ratio produces a sludge that is
Aold, well-oxidised and well-settling
Byoung, fast-growing and poorly settling
Cfully nitrified and stable
Dentirely free of filamentous organisms
Answer is hidden
Question 1648 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
Compared with a plug-flow reactor, a completely mixed reactor is preferred for a variable industrial wastewater because it
Aneeds no sludge recycle
Bachieves a lower effluent concentration
Crequires a smaller volume for the same removal
Dimmediately dilutes a shock or toxic load in the whole tank volume
Answer is hidden
Question 1649 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
Tapered aeration is used in a plug-flow aeration tank because
Athe oxygen demand is highest at the inlet end, where the substrate concentration is highest
Bthe oxygen demand is highest at the outlet end
Cit prevents nitrification from occurring
Dit reduces the total air supplied to zero at the inlet
Answer is hidden
Question 1650 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
The rate-limiting step in the anaerobic digestion of a particulate substrate such as sewage sludge is
Aacidogenesis
Bmethanogenesis
Chydrolysis
Dacetogenesis
Answer is hidden
Question 1651 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
A digester becomes sour when the methanogens are inhibited, and the standard early warning of this condition is a rise in
Athe gas production rate
Bthe ratio of volatile acids to alkalinity above about 0.3 to 0.4
Cthe pH of the digesting sludge
Dthe methane content of the biogas
Answer is hidden
Question 1652 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
Excessive growth of filamentous organisms in activated sludge is commonly caused by
Atoo high a dissolved oxygen concentration
Blow dissolved oxygen, low F/M, nutrient deficiency or septic feed
Ctoo short a hydraulic retention time alone
Dan excess of phosphorus in the influent
Answer is hidden
Question 1653 of 2077Ch 9 · Biological Wastewater Treatment
The nutrient ratio commonly specified for aerobic biological treatment is BOD to nitrogen to phosphorus of
A10 : 5 : 1
B100 : 20 : 5
C100 : 5 : 1
D100 : 1 : 5
Answer is hidden
Question 1654 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
The return of settled sludge to the aeration tank is essential to the activated sludge process because it
Aincreases the hydraulic retention time
Bremoves the need to waste any sludge
Callows the solids retention time to be set independently of the hydraulic retention time
Dsupplies oxygen to the mixed liquor
Answer is hidden
Question 1655 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
A mixed liquor of 3000 mg/L MLSS settles to 300 mL/L in thirty minutes. The sludge volume index is
A100 mL/g, indicating satisfactory settling
B10 mL/g, indicating excellent settling
C0.1 mL/g
D300 mL/g, indicating severe bulking
Answer is hidden
Question 1656 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
Rising sludge in a secondary clarifier, in which settled sludge floats to the surface in clumps, is caused by
Aexcessive dissolved oxygen in the mixed liquor
Btoo rapid withdrawal of return sludge
Cdenitrification in the sludge blanket, floating it on bubbles of nitrogen gas
Dfilamentous bulking of the sludge
Answer is hidden
Question 1657 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
Extended aeration differs from conventional activated sludge chiefly in using
Ano secondary clarifier at all
Ba much longer solids retention time, giving a well-stabilised sludge and complete nitrification
Ca much shorter retention time and a higher F/M
Dpure oxygen instead of air
Answer is hidden
Question 1658 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
A trickling filter is misnamed because it actually works by
Abiological oxidation in a film attached to the media, not by straining
Bstraining the solids out of the sewage
Cadsorption onto the rock surface
Dchemical precipitation on the media
Answer is hidden
Question 1659 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
Recirculation around a high-rate trickling filter is practised in order to
Aincrease the organic load applied to the media
Bmaintain wetting, dilute strong influent, seed the upper layers and keep the film thin
Cavoid the need for a secondary clarifier
Dreduce the total volume of sewage treated
Answer is hidden
Question 1660 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
The principal operating advantage of a moving bed biofilm reactor over activated sludge is that it
Aneeds no secondary clarifier
Bproduces no sludge at all
Crequires no aeration
Drequires no sludge return and cannot suffer from sludge bulking
Answer is hidden
Question 1661 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
A facultative stabilization pond functions through the symbiosis in which
Aalgae release oxygen used by bacteria, and bacteria release carbon dioxide used by algae
Bboth organisms compete for the same oxygen
Cprotozoa supply oxygen to the bacteria
Dbacteria release oxygen used by algae
Answer is hidden
Question 1662 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
Treatment in a horizontal subsurface flow constructed wetland is achieved principally by
Aevaporation of the wastewater
Bdirect uptake of pollutants into the plant tissue
Cphotosynthetic oxidation at the water surface
Dfiltration in the gravel and the biofilm on the gravel and roots
Answer is hidden
Question 1663 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
The oxygen required for nitrification is
A4.57 g per gram of ammonia nitrogen oxidised
B1.42 g per gram of ammonia nitrogen
C7.14 g per gram of ammonia nitrogen
D2.86 g per gram of ammonia nitrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 1664 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
Nitrification of 30 mg/L of ammonia nitrogen destroys alkalinity as calcium carbonate amounting to
A137 mg/L
B86 mg/L
C214 mg/L
D107 mg/L
Answer is hidden
Question 1665 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
The anoxic zone is placed ahead of the aerobic zone in the Modified Ludzack-Ettinger arrangement principally in order to
Aavoid the need for a secondary clarifier
Bprevent biological phosphorus removal
Cuse the free carbon of the raw sewage for denitrification instead of purchased methanol
Dallow the nitrifiers to grow faster
Answer is hidden
Question 1666 of 2077Ch 9 · Suspended, Attached and Alternative Treatment Systems
The key feature that allows a UASB reactor to treat sewage at a hydraulic retention time of only six to twelve hours is
Athe use of a very high recirculation ratio
Bthe formation of dense settleable granules, which retains the biomass independently of the flow
Cthe addition of a chemical coagulant
Dmechanical aeration of the sludge blanket
Answer is hidden
Question 1667 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
A septic tank is correctly described as treatment
Aa complete treatment plant producing a dischargeable effluent
Ba disinfection unit
Ca combined settling and anaerobic digestion unit whose effluent still requires disposal or further
Dan aerobic treatment unit
Answer is hidden
Question 1668 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
A septic tank should never be completely emptied and washed out during desludging because
Athe tank would float out of the ground
Bthe residual sludge seeds the continuing anaerobic digestion
Cthe scum layer is needed to exclude air
Dthe walls would collapse without support
Answer is hidden
Question 1669 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
The minimum distance normally required between a soak pit and a drinking water well is
A2 m
B5 m
C100 m
D15 m, and preferably 30 m
Answer is hidden
Question 1670 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Thickening a sludge from 1 per cent to 4 per cent solids reduces its volume to
Aone-half of the original
Bfour times the original
Cone-tenth of the original
Done-quarter of the original
Answer is hidden
Question 1671 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Waste activated sludge is far more difficult to thicken by gravity than primary sludge, so its design solids loading rate is
Athe same for both sludges
B20 to 40 kg/m²·d against 90 to 150 for primary sludge
Cunlimited, since it settles readily
D90 to 150 kg/m²·d against 20 to 40 for primary sludge
Answer is hidden
Question 1672 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Mesophilic anaerobic digestion of sludge is normally carried out at
A70 °C with a retention of 1 day
B50 to 57 °C with a retention of 15 to 30 days
C30 to 38 °C with a retention of 15 to 30 days
Dambient temperature with a retention of 3 days
Answer is hidden
Question 1673 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
A plant produces 1000 kg/d of dry solids with 70 per cent volatile matter, of which half is destroyed in digestion. The volatile solids destroyed amount to
A150 kg/d
B700 kg/d
C350 kg/d
D500 kg/d
Answer is hidden
Question 1674 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
The principal advantage of a high-rate digester over a standard-rate digester is that being heated and completely mixed it
Arequires no gas collection system
Boperates without any heating
Cachieves the same stabilisation in 15 to 20 days instead of 30 to 60
Dproduces no supernatant at all
Answer is hidden
Question 1675 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Sludge drying beds are particularly suited to Nepali conditions outside the monsoon because they
Arequire no power and no skilled operation while giving a cake of 25 to 45 per cent solids
Boccupy very little land
Cgive the highest cake solids of any method
Dwork equally well in all weather
Answer is hidden
Question 1676 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
The usual reason for refusing to apply a stabilised sludge to agricultural land is its
ApH, which is always too high
Bwater content, which makes transport easy
Cnitrogen content, which is always too low
Dheavy metal content, which accumulates irreversibly in the soil
Answer is hidden
Question 1677 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Lime stabilization of sludge differs from digestion in that it
Adestroys more volatile solids than digestion
Bstops biological activity by raising the pH but does not reduce the volatile solids
Creduces the mass of sludge to be disposed of
Dproduces a useful quantity of biogas
Answer is hidden
Question 1678 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Incineration of sewage sludge achieves the greatest volume reduction but
Ais the cheapest of all disposal options
Bdestroys the heavy metals completely
Crequires no flue gas cleaning
Dconcentrates the heavy metals in an ash that itself requires careful disposal
Answer is hidden
Question 1679 of 2077Ch 9 · Decentralized Treatment and Sludge Management
Faecal sludge emptied from septic tanks by tanker should be
Adischarged to the nearest watercourse after dilution
Btaken to a designated faecal sludge treatment plant with settling, drying beds and a polishing pond
Cspread directly on agricultural land without treatment
Dmixed with municipal solid waste at the dump
Answer is hidden
Question 1680 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:
A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 1681 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The size of an A4 sheet is:
A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 1682 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:
ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 1683 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:
ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 1684 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:
A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 1685 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:
AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 1686 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:
ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 1687 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:
APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 1688 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:
A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 1689 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The angle between any two isometric axes is:
A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 1690 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:
ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 1691 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?
ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 1692 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:
ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1693 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:
A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 1694 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:
ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 1695 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:
AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1696 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:
ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 1697 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:
ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 1698 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:
AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 1699 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
MARR is best described as:
AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 1700 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:
AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 1701 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:
ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1702 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:
A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 1703 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:
ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 1704 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
A project is best defined as:
AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 1705 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:
AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 1706 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:
ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 1707 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:
ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 1708 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:
AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 1709 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The critical path of a project network is the:
APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 1710 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:
A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1711 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:
A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 1712 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
PERT is most suitable for:
AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 1713 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:
ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 1714 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:
AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 1715 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:
AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 1716 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:
A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 1717 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:
AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 1718 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:
AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 1719 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:
AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 1720 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:
AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 1721 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
In a BOT arrangement, the private party:
AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 1722 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:
AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 1723 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:
ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 1724 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:
ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 1725 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:
ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 1726 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:
APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 1727 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Management
A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:
ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 1728 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:
AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1729 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:
AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 1730 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:
AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 1731 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:
AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 1732 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:
AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 1733 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:
AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 1734 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:
ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1735 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:
AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 1736 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:
A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 1737 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:
AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 1738 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:
AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 1739 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:
ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 1740 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:
APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 1741 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:
A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 1742 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:
AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 1743 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:
AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 1744 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:
ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 1745 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:
ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 1746 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:
AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 1747 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:
ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 1748 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:
AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 1749 of 2077Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?
ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 1750 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............
Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1751 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............
A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 1752 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]
A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 1753 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]
A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 1754 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]
AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 1755 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]
Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1756 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]
ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 1757 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]
A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 1758 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]
A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 1759 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]
A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 1760 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]
Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 1761 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]
Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 1762 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]
Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 1763 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]
Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 1764 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]
AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1765 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............
A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 1766 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following represent reducing scale?
A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 1767 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is enlarging scale?
A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 1768 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.
A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 1769 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]
A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 1770 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]
Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1771 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]
Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1772 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]
Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 1773 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]
AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 1774 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]
AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 1775 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]
AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 1776 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]
Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 1777 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]
Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 1778 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]
AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 1779 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]
Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1780 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]
Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1781 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]
Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1782 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]
AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1783 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?
AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 1784 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]
Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 1785 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]
Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 1786 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]
Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 1787 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]
ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 1788 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]
Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1789 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]
Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 1790 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]
AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 1791 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]
Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 1792 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]
Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1793 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]
A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 1794 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]
AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 1795 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]
Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 1796 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]
A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 1797 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]
Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1798 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]
AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 1799 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]
Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 1800 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]
Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 1801 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]
Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1802 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]
Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1803 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]
A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 1804 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a cash flow series ............
Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1805 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?
ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1806 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............
Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 1807 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............
Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 1808 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............
Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 1809 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............
Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1810 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............
Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1811 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the element of total cost?
AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1812 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Statement of cash flows includes ............
Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1813 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Material cost is concerned with ............
Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1814 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............
Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 1815 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............
Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 1816 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The given symbol in a drawing represents ............
Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 1817 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The side view of given orthographic projection is ............
Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 1818 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The top view of given figure is ............
Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 1819 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?
ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1820 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Payback period is counted only after ............
Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 1821 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Time value of money indicates that ............
Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1822 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1823 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............
A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 1824 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1825 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............
A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 1826 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............
Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1827 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Sinking fund is ............
Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1828 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............
Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1829 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?
AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 1830 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............
Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 1831 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?
APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 1832 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............
Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 1833 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............
Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 1834 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............
Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1835 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........
AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1836 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........
Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 1837 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?
AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 1838 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............
Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 1839 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Depreciation is charged on ............
Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1840 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?
AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1841 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]
Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 1842 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]
Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1843 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]
Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 1844 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]
Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 1845 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]
A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 1846 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]
Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 1847 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]
Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 1848 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]
Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 1849 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]
Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1850 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]
Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1851 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]
Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1852 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]
Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1853 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]
Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1854 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 1855 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 1856 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 1857 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]
Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 1858 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]
Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 1859 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Book value means ............[cite: 15]
Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 1860 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]
Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 1861 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]
Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 1862 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]
Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 1863 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]
ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 1864 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]
Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1865 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]
AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 1866 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]
Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1867 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]
Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1868 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]
Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1869 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]
Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 1870 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]
AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 1871 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]
ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 1872 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]
ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 1873 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]
ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 1874 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]
Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 1875 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CPM is the ............[cite: 13]
Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 1876 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is a critical path?[cite: 13]
AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 1877 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]
AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1878 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]
A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 1879 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]
AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 1880 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............
Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1881 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?
Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1882 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is true about dummy?
AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 1883 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Dummy is used for ............
Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1884 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 1885 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............
Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 1886 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project crashing is the method for ............
Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 1887 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............
Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 1888 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............
Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 1889 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 1890 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............
Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 1891 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The full form of PERT is ............
Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 1892 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is PERT analysis based on?
AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1893 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............
ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 1894 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............
A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 1895 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............
Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 1896 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............
Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1897 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?
A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 1898 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............
Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 1899 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 1900 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]
Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 1901 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]
APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 1902 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]
AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 1903 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]
ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 1904 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]
AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 1905 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]
Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 1906 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]
ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 1907 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]
ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 1908 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]
Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 1909 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]
Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 1910 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]
Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1911 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]
ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 1912 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]
Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 1913 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]
AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 1914 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]
Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 1915 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]
Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 1916 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]
Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1917 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]
AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 1918 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]
Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 1919 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]
Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 1920 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project management when does planning take place?
ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 1921 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?
APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 1922 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 1923 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]
AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 1924 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]
Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1925 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]
Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 1926 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]
Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 1927 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]
Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 1928 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]
Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 1929 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]
Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1930 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]
Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 1931 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]
ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 1932 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]
Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 1933 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]
Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 1934 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]
Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 1935 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]
Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 1936 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]
Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 1937 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]
Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 1938 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]
ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 1939 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]
AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 1940 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]
APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 1941 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]
AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 1942 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]
AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 1943 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]
AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1944 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]
AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 1945 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]
Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 1946 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]
Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 1947 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]
AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 1948 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]
Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 1949 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]
APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 1950 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]
Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 1951 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]
Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 1952 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]
Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 1953 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Debenture is ............[cite: 16]
Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1954 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A debenture ............[cite: 16]
Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 1955 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]
APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1956 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]
Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1957 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]
Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1958 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]
Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 1959 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]
Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 1960 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]
Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1961 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]
Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1962 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]
Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1963 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]
A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 1964 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]
Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 1965 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]
A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 1966 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]
A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 1967 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]
ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 1968 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]
Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 1969 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]
Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 1970 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]
Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 1971 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]
Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 1972 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]
Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1973 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]
Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1974 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]
ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1975 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]
AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1976 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]
Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 1977 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]
Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1978 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]
AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1979 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]
Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1980 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]
Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1981 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]
Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 1982 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]
Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1983 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]
Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 1984 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]
Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 1985 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]
Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 1986 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]
Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 1987 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]
ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1988 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1989 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1990 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1991 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]
AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 1992 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]
AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1993 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]
Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1994 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]
Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1995 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]
Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1996 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]
Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 1997 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]
Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1998 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]
Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1999 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]
AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2000 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]
AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 2001 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]
AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 2002 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]
AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 2003 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]
Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 2004 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]
APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 2005 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]
ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 2006 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]
AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 2007 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]
A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 2008 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]
ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 2009 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]
AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 2010 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]
A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 2011 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]
A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 2012 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]
A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 2013 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]
Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 2014 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]
A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 2015 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]
ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 2016 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]
ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2017 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]
A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 2018 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]
A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 2019 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]
A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 2020 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]
Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2021 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]
Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2022 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]
ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 2023 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]
Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 2024 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]
A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 2025 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]
A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 2026 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............
A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 2027 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............
Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 2028 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not the function of NEC?
APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 2029 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one is not concerned with the NEC?
AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2030 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When was Nepal engineering council established?
A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 2031 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............
Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 2032 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............
Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 2033 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC does not approach for ............
Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2034 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............
A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 2035 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............
Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 2036 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............
A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 2037 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?
ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 2038 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who appoints the chairman of NEC?
AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 2039 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who is the first president of NEC?
AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2040 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?
AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 2041 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]
ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 2042 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]
ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2043 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]
ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2044 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]
Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 2045 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]
A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 2046 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]
ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 2047 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]
A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 2048 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]
ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 2049 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]
Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 2050 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]
A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 2051 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]
A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 2052 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]
Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 2053 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]
ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 2054 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]
A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 2055 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]
Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 2056 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]
Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 2057 of 2077Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]