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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

10 Chapters·946 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

When more resistors are connected in parallel, the total circuit resistance:

AIncreases
BDecreases
CStays the same
DDoubles
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A 12 V supply is connected across a 4 Ω resistor. What current flows?

A48 A
B8 A
C3 A
D0.33 A
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) states that the sum of voltages around any closed loop is:

AEqual to the supply voltage
BMaximum
CZero
DEqual to current
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Which of the following is a bilateral circuit element?

AResistor
BDiode
CNPN transistor
DMOSFET
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A 5 Ω resistor carries 2 A. The power dissipated is:

A10 W
B2.5 W
C40 W
D20 W
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Two resistors R₁ = 3 Ω and R₂ = 7 Ω are connected in series. Total resistance is:

A2.1 Ω
B10 Ω
C5 Ω
D21 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) is based on conservation of:

ACharge
BEnergy
CMass
DMomentum
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Two 8 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. Total resistance is:

A16 Ω
B8 Ω
C2 Ω
D4 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A circuit element that contains no energy source is called:

AActive
BPassive
CBilateral
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

In a series circuit, the quantity that is the same through all elements is:

AVoltage
BResistance
CCurrent
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Resistance of a wire is y. The wire is stretched to triple its length, then the resistance becomes:

Ay/3
B3y
C6y
Dy/6
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Consider a circuit with two unequal resistances in parallel, then:

ALarge current flows in large resistor
BCurrent is same in both
CSmaller resistance has smaller conductance
DPotential difference across each is same
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

In which of the following cases is Ohm's law not applicable?

AElectrolytes
BArc lamps
CInsulators
DVacuum ratio values
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Which of the following bulbs will have high resistance?

A220V, 60W
B220V, 100W
C115V, 60W
D115V, 100W
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ohm's law is not applicable to:

ADC circuits
BHigh currents
CSmall resistors
DSemi-conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Conductance is expressed in terms of:

Amho
Bmho/m
Cohm/m
Dm/ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Delta connection is also known as:

AY-connection
BMesh connection
CEither Y-connection or mesh connection
DNeither Y-connection nor mesh connection
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between B and C?

ARc+Rb+(Rc × Rb)/R
BRc+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
CR+Rb+(R × Rc)/Rb
DRc+Rb+(Rc × R)/Rb
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between A and C?

AR+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
BR+Rc+(R × Rc)/Rb
CR+Rb+(R × Rc)/R
DR+Rc+(R × Rb)/Rc
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Find the equivalent delta circuit for a star network with branches 4.53 ohm, 1.23 ohm, and 6.66 ohm:

A9.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
B10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
C9.69 ohm, 34.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
D10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 7.59 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Find the equivalent resistance between X and Y for the given network:

A3.33 ohm
B4.34 ohm
C5.65 ohm
D2.38 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After transforming to delta, what is resistance between A and B?

ARc+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
BR+Rb+(R × Rc)/Rb
CR+Rb+(R × Rb)/Rc
DR+Rc+(R × Rc)/Rb
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

KCL is based on the fact that:

AThere is a possibility for a node to store energy.
BThere cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node.
CCharge accumulation is possible at node
DCharge accumulation may or may not be possible.
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a network is equal to:

AInfinity
B1
C0
DNegative polarity
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Relation between currents according to KCL for the node diagram is:

Ai=i=i=i=i
Bi+i+i=i+i
Ci-i=i-i-i
Di+i=i+i+i
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

Solve and find the value of I for the series circuit:

A-0.5A
B0.5A
C-0.2A
D0.2A
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

All __________ are loops but __________ are not meshes:

ALoops, Meshes
BMeshes, loops
CBranches, loops
DNodes, Branches
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm's Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff

A junction where two (or) more than two network elements meet is known as a:

ANode
BBranch
CLoop
DMesh
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem replaces a complex network with a voltage source in:

ASeries with a resistance
BParallel with a resistance
CSeries with a capacitor
DParallel with a current source
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a purely capacitive AC circuit, the current:

ALags voltage by 90°
BIs in phase with voltage
CLeads voltage by 90°
DLags by 45°
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Maximum power is transferred to a load when its resistance equals:

AZero
BTwice the source resistance
CThe Thevenin source resistance
DInfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At series resonance, the circuit current is:

AZero
BMaximum
CMinimum
DEqual to reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Inductive reactance X as frequency increases:

ADecreases to zero
BStays constant
CBecomes negative
DIncreases
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is:

A2π√(LC)
B1/(2π√(LC))
C√(LC)/2π
D2πLC
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a purely inductive AC circuit, with respect to voltage, the current:

ALeads by 90°
BIs in phase
CLags by 90°
DLeads by 45°
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Reactive power is measured in:

AWatts (W)
BJoules (J)
CVA (Volt-Ampere)
DVAR (Volt-Ampere Reactive)
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton's theorem represents a network as a current source in parallel with:

AA voltage source
BA capacitor
CA resistance
DAn inductor
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Power factor is defined as:

AP/S = cosφ
BQ/S = sinφ
CS/P
DP × Q
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem converts a circuit into an equivalent form consisting of:

AA current source and a series resistance
BA voltage source and a parallel resistance
CA voltage source and a series resistance
DA current source and a parallel resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The application of Thevenin's theorem in a circuit results in:

AAn ideal voltage source
BAn ideal current source
CA current source and an impedance in parallel
DA voltage source and an impedance in series
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

While calculating Rth in Thevenin's theorem and Norton equivalent:

AAll independent sources are made dead
BOnly current sources are made dead
COnly voltage sources are made dead
DAll voltage and current sources are made dead
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem cannot be applied to:

ALinear circuit
BNon-linear circuit
CActive circuit
DPassive circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

While thevenizing a circuit between two terminals, Vth is equal to:

AShort circuit terminal voltage
BOpen circuit terminal voltage
CNet voltage available in the circuit
De.m.f. of the battery nearest to the terminals
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the Thevenin resistance across the terminal AB for the following circuit:

A4.34 ohm
B3.67 ohm
C3.43 ohm
D2.32 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the current across the 4 ohm resistor:

A0.86A
B1.23A
C2.22A
D0.67A
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The Thevenin voltage is the:

AOpen circuit voltage
BShort circuit voltage
COpen circuit and short circuit voltage
DNeither open circuit nor short circuit voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin resistance is found by:

AShorting all voltage sources
BOpening all current sources
CShorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
DOpening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Thevenin's theorem is true for:

ALinear neat networks
BNon-Linear networks
CBoth linear networks and nonlinear networks
DNeither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In Thevenin's theorem Vth is:

ASum of two voltage sources
BA single voltage source
CInfinite voltage sources
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Which of the following is also known as the dual of Thevenin's theorem?

ANorton's theorem
BSuperposition theorem
CMaximum power transfer theorem
DMillman's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The Norton current is the:

AShort circuit current
BOpen circuit current
COpen circuit and short circuit current
DNeither open circuit nor short circuit current
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton resistance is found by?

AShorting all voltage sources
BOpening all current sources
CShorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
DOpening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Norton's theorem is true for:

ALinear networks
BNon-Linear networks
CBoth linear networks and nonlinear networks
DNeither linear networks nor non-linear networks
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In Norton's theorem ISC is:

ASum of two current sources
BA single current source
CInfinite current sources
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the Norton resistance for the following circuit if 5 ohm is the load resistance:

A10 ohm
B11 ohm
C12 ohm
D13 ohm
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Find the current in the 5 ohm resistance using Norton's theorem:

A1A
B1.5A
C0.25A
D0.5A
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Which of the following is also known as the dual of Norton's theorem?

AThevenin's theorem
BSuperposition theorem
CMaximum power transfer theorem
DMillman's theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power drawn from source depends on:

AValue of source resistance
BValue of load resistance
CBoth source and load resistance
DNeither source or load resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power is delivered to a circuit when source resistance is __________ load resistance:

AGreater than
BEqual to
CLess than
DGreater than or equal to
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The maximum power is delivered to a circuit when source resistance is __________ load resistance:

AGreater than
BEqual to
CLess than
DGreater than or equal to
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate Eth:

A3.43V
B4.57V
C3.23V
D5.34V
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Calculate the maximum power transferred:

A1.79W
B4.55W
C5.67W
D3.78W
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Under the condition of maximum power efficiency is?

A100%
B0%
C30%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

When a sinusoidal voltage is applied across R-L series circuit having R = X, the phase angle will be:

A90^\circ
B45^\circ lag
C45^\circ lead
D90^\circ leading
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A unit step voltage is applied at t=0 to a series R-L circuit with zero initial conditions:

AIt is possible for the current to be oscillatory
BThe voltage across the resistor at t = 0^+ is zero
CThe energy stored in the inductor in the steady-state is zero
DThe resistor current eventually falls to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At .......... frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive:

ALow
BVery low
CHigh
DVery high
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to........... of VR and VL:

APhasor sum
BArithmetic sum
CSum of the squares
DAlgebraic sum
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always............the applied voltage:

ALags
BLeads
CRemains in phase with
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely __________ circuit:

AResistive
BInductive
CCapacitive
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series of resonant circuit, with an increase in L:

AResonant frequency will decrease
BBand width will decrease
CQ will increase
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series resonant circuit with the increase in the value of C:

AResonant frequency will decrease
BQ will decrease
CBand width will increase
DBoth A and B
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In series as well as parallel resonance circuit, increase in resistance would cause:

AIncrease in bandwidth of both the circuits
BDecrease in bandwidth of both the circuits
CDecrease in bandwidth in series circuit and increase in bandwidth in parallel circuit
DIncrease in bandwidth in series circuit and decrease in bandwidth in parallel circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In order to tune a parallel resonant circuit to a lower frequency, the capacitance must:

ABe increased
BBe decreased
CBe zero
DRemain the same
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The dynamic resistance of a parallel resonant circuit is given by:

ALC/R
BLCR
CC/LR
DL/CR
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A parallel AC circuit in resonance will:

AHave current in each section equal to the line current
BHave a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
CAct like a resistor of low value
DHave a high impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Higher the Q of a series circuit:

ABroader its resonance curve
BNarrower its pass band
CGreater its bandwidth
DSharper its resonance
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

A high Q coil has:

ALarge bandwidth
BHigh losses
CLow losses
DFlat response
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit is:

AZero
B0.08 lagging
C0.8 leading
DUnity
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit:

ADepends upon the magnitude of R
BDepends upon the magnitude of L
CDepends upon the magnitude of C
DDepends upon the magnitude of R, L and C
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a R-L-C circuit:

APower is consumed in resistance and is equal to I²R
BExchange of power takes place between Inductor and supply line
CExchange of power takes place between Capacitor and supply line
DExchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
EAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The quality factor of R-L-C circuit will increase if:

AR increases
BR decreases
CImpedance increases
DVoltage increases
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance:

Aω LC = 1
Bω² L² C² = 1
Cω² LC = 1
Dω L C² = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 946Ch 1 · Network Theorems & AC Circuits

The power factor of a series R-L-C circuit at its half-power points is:

AUnity
BLagging
CLeading
DLagging or leading
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of a sinusoidal voltage with peak Vm is:

AVm / π
BVm / √2
C2Vm / π
DVm × √2
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

AC voltage is generated based on which law?

AFaraday's law of electromagnetic induction
BOhm's law
CKCL
DCoulomb's law
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The form factor of a pure sine wave is:

A0.707
B1.414
C1.11
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three-phase AC system, the three voltages are separated by:

A60°
B120°
C90°
D180°
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The period T of an AC waveform is related to frequency f by:

AT = f
BT = 2f
CT = f²
DT = 1/f
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a Star (Y) connected three-phase system, line voltage equals:

APhase voltage / √3
BPhase voltage
C√3 × phase voltage
D2 × phase voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The standard power supply frequency used in Nepal is:

A50 Hz
B60 Hz
C100 Hz
D25 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The average value of a sine wave over a positive half-cycle is approximately:

A0.5 Vm
B0.707 Vm
CVm
D0.637 Vm
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of an AC supply is significant because it is:

AAlways larger than the peak value
BThe same as the average value
CThe DC equivalent that produces the same heating effect
DUsed only in reactive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta (Δ) connection, line current equals:

APhase current / √3
BPhase current
CPhase current × 2
D√3 × phase current
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Power in a Three Phase Circuit =

AP = 3 × Vₚₕ × Iₚₕ × \cosφ
BP = √3 × V × I × \cosφ
CBoth A & B
DNone of The Above
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is:

AInfinite (∞)
BZero (0)
COne (1)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a star connected three phase AC circuit:

APhase voltage is equal to line voltage and phase current is three times the line current
BPhase voltage is 1/(√3) times line voltage and phase current is equal to line current
CPhase voltage is equal to line voltage and line current is equal to phase current
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase, delta connection:

ALine current is equal to phase current
BLine voltage is equal to phase voltage
CNone of the above
DLine voltage and line current is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a star connection network, consuming power of 1.8kW and power factor 0.5, the inductance and resistance of each coil at a supply voltage of 230 Volts, 60 Hz is:

A0.1H, 8 Ohms
B0.5H, 10 Ohms
C0.3H, 7.4 Ohms
D1H, 7 Ohms
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a three-phase delta connected load, fed from a star connected network, the power transferred to the load is:

A3 kW
B4.7 kW
C5 kW
D7 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a polyphase system, the number of Wattmeter required to measure power is equal to:

ANumber of wires
BOne less than number of wires
CNumber of phases
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

A polyphase system is generated by:

AHaving two or more generator windings separated by equal electrical angle.
BHaving generator windings at equal distances
CNone of the above
DA and C
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase AC circuit, the sum of all three generated voltages is:

AInfinite
BZero
COne
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a three phase, delta connection:

ALine current is equal to phase current
BLine voltage is equal to phase voltage
CNone of the above
DLine voltage and line current is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In case of Short Circuit, Current will flow in the Circuit:

AZero
BVery Low
CNormal
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Ω (Ohm) is the Unit of:

AResistance (R)
BInductive Reactance (X)
CCapacitive Reactance (XC)
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Siemens or Mho (\mho) is the unit of?

AConductance
BAdmittance
CBoth A & B
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm's law?

ACapacitors
BInductors
CTransistors
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following is a correct representation of peak value in an AC Circuit?

ARMS value/Peak factor
BRMS value*Form factor
CRMS value/Form factor
DRMS value*Peak factor
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100 Hz?

A50
B100
C150
D200
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

What kind of quantity is an Electric potential?

AVector quantity
BTensor quantity
CScalar quantity
DDimensionless quantity
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 946Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Which of the following is a correct representation of average value in an AC Circuit?

ARMS value/Form factor
BRMS value*Form factor
CRMS value/Peak factor
DRMS value*Peak factor
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which type of semiconductor has holes as the majority charge carriers?

AIntrinsic
BN-type
CP-type
DMetal
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A silicon diode typically has a forward voltage drop of:

A0.3 V
B0.7 V
C1.2 V
D5.0 V
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The primary application of a diode in a power supply is:

AAmplification
BOscillation
CRectification (AC to DC)
DRegulation
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A BJT is classified as a ____ controlled device.

AVoltage
BCurrent
CLight
DMagnetic
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which BJT configuration gives the highest voltage gain and is most commonly used?

ACommon Base (CB)
BCommon Collector (CC)
CEmitter follower
DCommon Emitter (CE)
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Zener diode is operated in the ____ region to regulate voltage.

AForward bias
BSaturation
CReverse breakdown
DCutoff
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

CMOS technology is preferred in digital ICs primarily because of its:

AVery low power consumption
BHigh output impedance
CAbility to amplify RF signals
DHigh static power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A MOSFET is a ____ controlled device with very high input impedance.

ACurrent
BVoltage
CCharge
DTemperature
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The three terminals of a BJT are:

AGate, Source, Drain
BAnode, Cathode, Gate
CEmitter, Base, Collector
DSource, Sink, Base
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A PN junction diode blocks current when it is:

AForward biased
BAt room temperature
CShort circuited
DReverse biased
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How does a semiconductor behave at absolute zero?

AConductor
BInsulator
CSemiconductor
DProtection device
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Semiconductor acts as an insulator in the presence of impurities:

ATrue
BFalse
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How is the resistance of semiconductor classified?

AHigh resistance
BPositive temperature co-efficient
CNegative temperature co-efficient
DLow resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What are the charge carriers in semiconductors?

AElectrons and holes
BElectrons
CHoles
DCharges
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with pentavalent impurity?

AN-type semiconductor
BExtrinsic semiconductor
CP-type semiconductor
DInsulator
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What type of material is obtained when an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with trivalent impurity?

AExtrinsic semiconductor
BInsulator
CN-type semiconductor
DP-type semiconductor
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance:

AGoes up
BGoes down
CRemains the same
DCan't say
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the semi-conductor:

ARemains the same
BIncreases
CDecreases
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The reverse current in a diode is of the order of:

AkA
BmA
CμA
DA
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about:

A2.5 V
B3 V
C10 V
D0.7 V
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A zener diode has:

AOne pn junction
BTwo pn junctions
CThree pn junctions
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A zener diode is used as:

AAn amplifier
BA voltage regulator
CA rectifier
DA multivibrator
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Why is there a sudden increase in current in Zener diode?

ADue to the rupture of ionic bonds
BDue to rupture of covalent bonds
CDue to viscosity
DDue to potential difference
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the semiconductor diode used as?

AOscillator
BAmplifier
CRectifier
DModulator
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is a Zener diode used as?

AOscillator
BRegulator
CRectifier
DFilter
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When a junction diode is reverse biased, what causes current across the junction?

ADiffusion of charges
BNature of material
CDrift of charges
DBoth drift and diffusion of charges
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

AActive region
BSaturation and cutoff regions
CBreakdown region
DLinear region
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:

AAlpha
BBeta
CTheta
DNone of above
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

AStabilization
BAc signal bypass
CCollector bias
DHigher gain
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Question 141 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Voltage-divider bias provides:

AAn unstable Q point
BA stable Q point
CA Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
DA Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

AFixed resistor
BTuning device
CRectifier
DVariable resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which is beta's current ratio?

AIC/IB
BIC/I
CIB/I
DI/IB
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

AOut of the base lead
BInto the collector
CInto the emitter
DInto the base supply
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:

ACollector voltage
BBase current
CCollector resistance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Total emitter current is:

AI-IC
BIC+I
CIB+IC
DIB-IC
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the collector current for a C-E configuration with a beta of 100 and a base current of 30 μA?

A30\ μA
B.3\ μA
C3 mA
D3 MA
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following condition is true for cut-off mode?

AThe collector current is zero
BThe collector current is proportional to the base current
CThe base current is non zero
DAll of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a pnp transistor in the active region the value of Vce (potential difference between the collector and the base) is:

ALess than 0.3V
BLess than 3V
CGreater than 0.3V
DGreater than 3V
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Where should be the bias point set in order to make transistor work as an amplifier?

ACut off
BActive
CSaturation
DCut off and Saturation
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Q point can be set to work on active region requires particular conditions. What are they?

ABE reverse biased and BC forward biased
BBE reverse biased and BC reverse biased
CBE forward biased and BC reverse biased
DBE forward biased and BC forward biased
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a fixed bias circuit having RC=4.7KΩ and RB=1KΩ, VCC=10V and base current at Bias point was found to be 0.2μA, Find β?

A100
B106
C125
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Voltage divider bias circuit, having R1=R2=10 KΩ, RC=4.7 KΩ, R=1 KΩ, What is the value of collector current at saturation if VCC=10V?

A1A
B10mA
C0.87mA
D1mA
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Voltage divider circuit having RC=R1=R2=R=1KΩ, if VCC=20V, find IC when Vce=VCC?

A1mA
B2mA
C20mA
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is Stability factor?

ARatio of change in collector current to change in a current amplification factor
BRatio of change in collector current to change in base current
CCurrent amplification factor
DRatio of base current to collector current
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The collector current (IC) that is obtained in a collector to base biased transistor is:

A(VCC-VBE)/RB
B(VCC+VBE)/RB
C(VCE-VBE)/RB
D(VCE+VBE)/RB
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The demerit of a collector to base bias is:

AIts need of high resistance values
BIts dependence on β
CIts independence on β
DThe positive feedback produced by the base resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For emitter feedback bias, to make IC independent of DC current gain, which of the following condition is required?

AR \gg RB/dc current gain
BR \gg R/dc current gain
CRB \gg RC/dc current gain
DR \gg RC/dc current gain
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In order to make an amplifier which of the following biasing technique is used more?

AFixed bias
BSelf bias
CCollector to base bias
DEmitter feedback bias
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What will be the temperature changes effects on the emitter feedback circuit?

AIncreases voltage gain
BIncreases current gain
CDoes not affect the gain
DDecreases both current and voltage gain
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following statement is the main disadvantage of emitter feedback bias?

AReduces the gain
BPositive feedback
CDesign is difficult
DHigh output impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The thermal runway is avoided in a self-bias because:

Aof its independence of
Bof the positive feedback produced by the emitter resistor
Cof the negative feedback produced by the emitter resistor
Dof its dependence of β
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The stability factor for a self-biased transistor is:

ARB/R
BRₜₕ/R
C1 + Rₜₕ/R
D1 + R/Rₜₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following terminals does not belong to the MOSFET?

ADrain
BGate
CBase
DSource
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Question 166 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Choose the correct statement:

AMOSFET is an uncontrolled device
BMOSFET is a voltage controlled device
CMOSFET is a current controlled device
DMOSFET is a temperature controlled device
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Choose the correct statement:

AMOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, two terminal device
BMOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, three terminal device
CMOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, three terminal device
DMOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, two terminal device
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The controlling parameter in MOSFET is:

AVds
BIg
CVgs
DIs
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Question 169 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How does the MOSFET differ from the JFET?

AJFET has a p-n junction
BThey are both the same
CJFET is small in size
DMOSFET has a base terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The N-channel MOSFET is considered better than the P-channel MOSFET due to its:

ALow noise levels
BTTL compatibility
CLower input impedance
DFaster operation
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which factor/s play/s a crucial role in determining the speed of CMOS logic gate?

ALoad capacitance
BSupply voltage
CGain factor of MOS
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What will be the phase shift of feedback circuit in RC phase shift oscillator?

A360^\circ phase shift
B180^\circ phase shift
C90^\circ phase shift
D60^\circ phase shift
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How many RC stages are used in the RC phase shift oscillator?

ASix
BTwo
CFour
DThree
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Question 174 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Calculate the frequency of oscillation for RC phase shift oscillator having the value of R and C as 352 and 3.7μF respectively:

A1230 Hz
B204 Hz
C502Hz
D673 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The condition for zero phase shift in wein bridge oscillator is achieved by:

AConnecting feedback to non-inverting input terminal of op-amp
BBalancing the bridge
CApplying parallel combination of RC to the feedback network
DAll of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Only the condition β A = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ must be satisfied for self-sustained oscillations to result:

A0
B1
C-1
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

This stage network circuit diagram (with three cascading RC loops) is a __________ oscillator:

APhase-shift
BWien bridge
CColpitts
DHartley
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The feedback signal in a(n) __________ oscillator is derived from an inductive voltage divider in the LC circuit:

AHartley
BArmstrong
CColpitts
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a phase-shift oscillator, the gain of the amplifier stage must be greater than:

A19
B29
C30
D1
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Question 180 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the minimum frequency at which a crystal will oscillate?

ASeventh harmonic
BThird harmonic
CFundamental
DSecond harmonic
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The bridge circuit diagram showing an op-amp with components R1, C1, R2, C2 is a __________ oscillator:

APhase-shift
BWien bridge
CColpitts
DHartley
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How a triangular wave generator is derived from square wave generator?

AConnect oscillator at the output
BConnect Voltage follower at the output
CConnect differential at the output
DConnect integrator at the output
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Output of an integrator producing waveforms of unequal rise and fall time are called:

ATriangular waveform
BSawtooth waveform
CPulsating waveform
DSpiked waveform
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Which of the following is required for oscillation?

Aβ A > 1
BThe phase shift around the feedback network must be 180°.
CBoth β A > 1 and the phase shift around the feedback network must be 180°.
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator converts:

Aa.c. power into d.c. power
Bd.c. power into a.c. power
CMechanical power into a.c. power
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is:

ALC tank circuit
BBiasing circuit
CTransistor
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC circuit, when the capacitor energy is maximum, the inductor energy is..........

AMinimum
BMaximum
CHalf-way between maximum and minimum
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is __________ L or C:

AProportional to square of
BDirectly proportional to
CIndependent of the values of
DInversely proportional to square root of
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Question 189 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator produces.... oscillations:

ADamped
BUndamped
CModulated
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator employs...... feedback:

APositive
BNegative
CNeither positive nor negative
DData insufficient
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Question 191 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Hartley oscillator is commonly used in..

ARadio receivers
BRadio transmitters
CTV receivers
DNone of the above
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Question 192 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In a phase shift oscillator, we use __________ RC sections:

ATwo
BThree
CFour
DNone of the above
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Question 193 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Wien bridge oscillator uses __________ feedback:

AOnly positive
BOnly negative
CBoth positive and negative
DNone of the above
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Question 194 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is..

AA voltage developed because of mechanical stress
BA change in resistance because of temperature
CA change in frequency because of temperature
DNone of the above
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Question 195 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal has __________ temperature coefficient:

APositive
BZero
CNegative
DNone of the above
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Question 196 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to __________ of the crystal:

ARigidity
BVibrations
CLow Q
DHigh Q
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it:

AHas more gain
BRequires no input signal
CRequires no D.C. supply
DAlways has the same input
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Question 198 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must initially be:

A1
BGreater than 1
CLess than 1
DEqual to attenuation of feedback circuit
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Question 199 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A class A power amplifier uses:

ATwo transistors
BOne transistor
CThree transistors
DFour transistors
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Question 200 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class A power amplifier is:

A5%
B35%
C25%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power amplifier is:

A50%
B25%
C30%
D5%
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Power amplifiers handle __________ signals compare to voltage amplifiers:

ASmall
BLarge
CVery small
DEqual
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Question 203 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In class A operation, the operating point is generally located __________ of the D.C. load line:

AAt cut off point
BC. load line: A. At cut off point B.
Cload line: A. At cut off point B. At the middle C. At saturation point
DIn active region
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A power amplifier has comparatively __________ β:

ASmall
BLarge
CVery large
DSame
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Question 205 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A class A power amplifier is sometimes called:

AReciprocating
BSingle ended
CSymmetrical
DDifferential
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

When no signal is applied, the approximate collector efficiency of class A power amplifier is:

A25%
B10%
C0%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The maximum A.C. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used?

A20W
BC. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used? A. 20W B.
Cpower output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used? A. 20W B. 5 W C. 25W
D50W
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The most costly coupling is __________ coupling:

ATransformer
BImpedance
CRC
DDirect
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Where does the Q point lie for class B amplifier?

AActive
BCut off
CSaturation
DBetween saturation and active
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What happens when class B amplifier is in a quiescent state?

ANo current flows through the transistor
BMaximum current flows through the transistor
CHalf of the maximum current flows through the transistor
DQuarter of the maximum current flows
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the value of the maximum efficiency of the class B amplifier?

A25%
B35%
C50%
D78.5% (Note: Written as 50% to 70% in text options, correct dynamic limit is 78.5%)
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What kind of design is used to avoid transformer usage?

AHigh resistance
BMatched load
CComplementary symmetry
DCapacitive Model
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is cross over distortion?

AEffect occurred during switching of transistor after every half cycle
BDistortion occurred due to resistors
CDistortion occurred due to Capacitors
DDistortion occurred due to Inductors
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

How to avoid cross over distortion?

ABy using more resistance
BBy using more capacitance
CBy using more Inductance
DBy shifting the Q point above cut off
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a Class B amplifier, the utilized lead power is 300W and the Dc power is 500W, find efficiency:

A30%
B60%
C90%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What is the conduction angle for Class B push-pull amplifier?

A0
B90
C180
D270
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A power transistor is a:

AThree layer, three junction device
BThree layer, two junction device
CTwo layer, one junction device
DFour layer, three junction device
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

For a power transistor, if base current IB is increased keeping Vce constant, then:

AIc increases
BIc decreases
CIc remains constant
DIc changes sinusoidal
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Insulated-gate bipolar transistor (IGBT) has combinational advantages of:

ABJTs and SITs
BBJTs and MOSFETS
CSITs and MOSFETS
DFETs and BJTs
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A Gate Turn Off (GTO) can be turned on by applying:

APositive gate signal
BPositive drain signal
CPositive source signal
DNegative source signal
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The turn on time of an SCR with inductive load is 20 μs. The pulse train frequency is 2.5 KHz with mark/space ratio of 1/10, and then SCR will:

ATurn On
BNot turn on
CTurn on if inductance is removed
DTurn on if pulse frequency is increased to two times
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

What are the three terminals of a power MOSFET called?

ACollector, emitter, Gate
BDrain, source, gate
CCollector, emitter, base
DDrain, emitter, base
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 946Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A thyristor can be termed as:

AAC switch
BDC switch
CWave switch
DSquare wave switch
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

An oscillator converts:

AAC to DC
BDC to AC (continuous waveform)
CCurrent to voltage only
DHigh frequency to low frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

For sustained oscillation, the Barkhausen criterion requires the loop gain |Aβ| to be:

AGreater than 1
BZero
CLess than 1
DEqual to 1
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Which oscillator provides the BEST frequency stability?

AHartley oscillator
BColpitts oscillator
CCrystal oscillator
DWien bridge oscillator
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Oscillators use which type of feedback to sustain oscillations?

APositive feedback
BNegative feedback
CNo feedback
DInverse feedback
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Question 228 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

RC oscillators are primarily used for:

AMicrowave frequencies
BRadio (RF) frequencies
CZero frequency (DC)
DLow (audio) frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

A Colpitts oscillator uses which component as the tapped (split) feedback element?

AInductor
BCapacitor
CResistor
DTransformer
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

LC oscillators are suitable for generating:

AAudio frequencies
BDC signals
CZero frequency
DHigh (radio) frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

A Hartley oscillator uses which component in a tapped configuration?

AInductor
BCapacitor
CResistor
DDiode
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

For sustained oscillation, the total phase shift around the feedback loop must be:

A45° or 90°
B0° or 360°
C180° only
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 946Ch 1 · Signal Generators & Oscillators

Crystal oscillators are commonly used in microprocessors because:

AThey are the cheapest option
BThey operate at DC
CThey provide highly stable and accurate frequency
DThey work only at audio range
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A Class A amplifier conducts for what portion of the input cycle?

ALess than 180°
B180°
C360° (full cycle)
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Which amplifier class is most efficient but only used in RF applications?

AClass C
BClass A
CClass AB
DClass B
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Crossover distortion is a characteristic problem of which amplifier class?

AClass A
BClass B
CClass C
DTuned amplifiers
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

An ideal op-amp has an open-loop gain that is:

AZero
BUnity (1)
C100
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

Class AB amplifiers are designed to solve which problem of Class B?

ALow gain
BCrossover distortion
CHigh cost
DLow frequency response
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

The two input terminals of an operational amplifier are:

ASource and drain
BBase and emitter
CAnode and cathode
DInverting (−) and non-inverting (+)
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

An ideal op-amp has an input impedance that is:

AInfinite
BZero
CEqual to output impedance
D50 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A push-pull output stage uses:

AOne transistor for the whole cycle
BA diode as the active element
CAn LC tank circuit
DTwo transistors — one for each half-cycle
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

When negative feedback is applied to an op-amp, both inputs are driven to approximately the same voltage. This is called:

ACrossover effect
BVirtual short
CResonance
DSaturation
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 946Ch 1 · Amplifiers & Op-Amps

A tuned amplifier amplifies signals:

AAt all frequencies equally
BOnly at DC
CWithin a narrow band around its resonant frequency
DOnly above 1 MHz
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

When a cylinder is unrolled (opened in rope form), what shape is formed?

AInvolute
BHelix
CCycloid
DRectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

How many transistors does a class B push-pull amplifier use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In which region does a class B amplifier operate?

ASaturation
BCut-off
CActive
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which quantity remains constant (same) throughout a series circuit?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In a star (Y) connected three-phase system, what is the relationship between line voltage (V) and phase voltage (Vₚₕ)?

AV = Vₚₕ
BV = √3 × Vₚₕ
CV = Vₚₕ / √3
DV = 3 × Vₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the primary advantage of CMOS logic technology?

AHighest switching speed
BMinimum power consumption
CHighest noise margin
DMaximum fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What type of feedback do oscillators use to sustain oscillations?

ANegative
BPositive
CZero
DMixed
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which theorem gives the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load?

ANorton's Theorem
BThevenin's Theorem
CMaximum Power Transfer Theorem
DSuperposition Theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

According to Ohm's Law, which relationship is correct?

ACurrent = Voltage / Resistance
BResistance = Voltage × Current
CVoltage = Current / Resistance
DPower = Voltage + Current
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three equal resistors in series dissipate 10 W. How much power do they dissipate when connected in parallel (same supply voltage)?

A10 W
B30 W
C90 W
D270 W
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A semiconductor is primarily used for:

AStoring electrical energy
BConverting AC to DC
CControlling electrical current
DAmplifying magnetic fields
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Two copper wires of the same length have cross-sectional area ratio 1 : 4. What is the ratio of their resistances (small : large)?

A1 : 4
B1 : 2
C4 : 1
D2 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A wire has resistance 40 Ω. Another wire of the same length has 4× the cross-sectional area. What is the resistance of the second wire?

A160 Ω
B40 Ω
C20 Ω
D10 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The Superposition Theorem is NOT applicable to which type of circuit analysis?

APower calculations
BVoltage calculations
CCurrent calculations
DResistive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The current through a capacitor is known as:

AConduction current
BLeakage current
CDisplacement current
DEddy current
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A bridge rectifier operating at 50 Hz produces an output of:

A50 Hz pulsating DC
B100 Hz pulsating DC
C25 Hz pulsating DC
DPure DC
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

An inductor and resistor are connected in series and a DC voltage V is applied. At steady state, what is the current?

AV/R
BV/(R+XL)
CZero
DV/XL
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected in delta. What is the equivalent resistance between any two terminals?

A2 Ω
B1.333 Ω
C6 Ω
D3 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A 1 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 3 Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance?

A4 Ω
B0.75 Ω
C2 Ω
D1.5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) when the reflection coefficient is 0.8?

A1.8
B4.5
C0.8
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 946Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A transmission line has Z₀ = 50 Ω and termination impedance Za = 75 Ω. What is the SWR and reflection coefficient?

ASWR = 1.5, RC = 0.2
BSWR = 2.5, RC = 0.4
CSWR = 1.5, RC = 0.5
DSWR = 3, RC = 0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The hexadecimal number F is equal to which decimal value?

A10
B12
C14
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates because:

AThey are the fastest gates
BAny logic function can be built using only one of them
CThey work on both AC and DC
DThey have the lowest power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The 2's complement of a binary number is used in digital systems to represent:

AFloating point numbers
BHexadecimal fractions
CNegative integers
DASCII characters
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

An XOR gate produces output 1 only when its inputs are:

ABoth 0
BBoth 1
CDifferent from each other
DThe same
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

How many binary bits does one hexadecimal digit represent?

A4
B8
C2
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

According to De Morgan's theorem, (A + B)' equals:

AA' + B'
BA · B
CA' · B'
D(A · B)'
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

A Karnaugh map simplifies Boolean expressions by:

AConverting decimal to binary
BGrouping adjacent 1s in powers of 2
CCounting logic gates
DImplementing flip-flops
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The decimal number 13 in binary is:

A1011
B1100
C1010
D1101
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

An AND gate with inputs A=1 and B=0 produces output:

A1
B0
CUndefined
DDepends on temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Logic: Number Systems, Gates & Boolean Algebra

The 2's complement of the binary number 0110 is:

A1001
B1111
C0110
D1010
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A 4-to-1 multiplexer requires how many select lines?

A2
B4
C1
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

The Sum output of a half adder is produced by which gate?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A 3-to-8 decoder has 3 input lines and ____ output lines.

A3
B6
C8
D24
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

What distinguishes a full adder from a half adder?

AFull adder uses fewer gates
BFull adder accepts a carry-in input
CFull adder works with hexadecimal
DFull adder has only one output
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

The Carry output of a half adder is produced by which gate?

AXOR
BAND
COR
DNOT
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

A demultiplexer routes data from:

AMany inputs to one output
BOne input to one of many outputs
CParallel to serial
DTwo inputs to one output
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

An 8-to-3 encoder has 8 input lines and how many output lines?

A8
B4
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

In hardware, binary subtraction is performed by:

AAdding 1's complement
BDirect subtraction gates
CShifting right
DAdding the 2's complement
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

Combinational circuits differ from sequential circuits in that they have:

AMore inputs
BNo memory — outputs depend only on current inputs
CAlways exactly two outputs
DA clock signal
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 946Ch 2 · Combinational and Arithmetic Circuits

In 2's complement signed numbers, a 1 in the most significant bit (MSB) indicates:

AAn overflow error
BA large positive number
CZero
DA negative number
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Sequential circuits produce outputs that depend on:

ACurrent inputs only
BCurrent inputs AND stored past state
CThe power supply level
DTemperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In an SR flip-flop, which input combination must never be applied?

AS=0, R=1
BS=1, R=0
CS=0, R=0
DS=1, R=1
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A JK flip-flop with J=1 and K=1 applied will:

ASet output to 1
BReset output to 0
CToggle its output
DEnter a forbidden state
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A D flip-flop's output Q on a clock edge will be:

AAlways 1
BEqual to the input D at that moment
CThe complement of D
DWhatever it was before
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A flip-flop differs from a latch in that a flip-flop is:

ASlower
BLevel-triggered
CEdge-triggered
DWithout any clock
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An n-bit binary counter can count how many distinct states?

An
B
C2n
D2ⁿ
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In a ripple (asynchronous) counter, each flip-flop is clocked by:

AA common external clock
BThe output of the previous flip-flop
CA separate crystal
DThe input data
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A register stores data using a group of:

ALogic gates only
BDiodes
CDecoders
DFlip-flops sharing a common clock
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Which flip-flop is most commonly used as the basic cell of a synchronous counter?

ASR flip-flop
BD flip-flop
CT (Toggle) flip-flop
DMaster-slave SR
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 946Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Synchronous counters are preferred over ripple counters mainly because they are:

ACheaper to build
BSimpler in design
CFaster (no cumulative propagation delay)
DSmaller in size
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Program Counter (PC) in a microprocessor holds:

AThe result of the last arithmetic operation
BThe address of the NEXT instruction to be fetched
CThe top of the stack
DThe current interrupt status
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The address bus in the 8085 microprocessor is:

A8-bit and bidirectional
B8-bit and unidirectional
C16-bit and bidirectional
D16-bit and unidirectional
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

Arithmetic and logic operations in a microprocessor are performed by the:

AALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
BProgram Counter
CStack Pointer
DControl bus
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

A microprocessor with 16 address lines can directly address how much memory?

A16 KB
B32 KB
C128 KB
D64 KB
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

Assembly language uses ____ in place of binary machine code.

AMnemonics (e.g., MOV, ADD, JMP)
BHigh-level constructs
CFlowcharts
DHexadecimal only
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Intel 8085 is classified as a(n) ____ microprocessor.

A4-bit
B16-bit
C8-bit
D32-bit
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Stack Pointer (SP) register points to:

AThe next instruction address
BThe top of the stack in memory
CThe last arithmetic result
DThe interrupt vector table
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The tool that translates assembly language into machine code is called a(n):

ACompiler
BInterpreter
CLinker
DAssembler
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

After a CALL instruction in 8085, where is the return address saved?

AIn the accumulator
BOn the stack
CIn the flag register
DIn ROM
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Question 304 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor: Architecture & Assembly Language

The Zero flag in the 8085 flag register is set when:

AAn overflow occurs
BThe result is negative
CThe result of the last operation is zero
DA carry is generated
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

DRAM requires periodic refreshing because it stores bits as:

AMagnetic domains
BCross-coupled flip-flop states
CCapacitor charges that leak
DOptical patterns
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

DMA is used primarily to:

AIncrease CPU clock speed
BTransfer data between I/O and memory without CPU involvement
CReplace the operating system
DRefresh DRAM
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Which memory is used for the CPU cache?

ADRAM
BSRAM
CEEPROM
DFlash
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Asynchronous serial communication uses ____ to frame each transmitted character.

AA shared clock signal
BDMA handshaking
CParity words
DStart bit and stop bit(s)
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

The Intel 8255 PPI provides:

ASerial communication ports
BDMA transfer capability
CThree programmable parallel I/O ports
DInterrupt priority logic
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Which memory type retains data after the power is switched off?

ANon-volatile memory (ROM, Flash)
BDRAM
CSRAM
DCPU registers
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

Parallel interface is preferred over serial when:

AVery long cable distances are involved
BFewer connector pins are available
CHigh speed transfer over short distances is needed
DLow pin count is critical
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

When a DMA controller takes over the system bus, the CPU:

AContinues executing instructions normally
BResets itself
CHalts or pauses (bus cycle stolen)
DStarts refreshing DRAM
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

The correct order from fastest to slowest in the memory hierarchy is:

ARAM → Cache → Registers → Disk
BCache → Registers → RAM → Disk
CRegisters → Cache → RAM → Disk
DDisk → RAM → Cache → Registers
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 946Ch 2 · Microprocessor System: Memory, I/O Interfaces & DMA

RS-232 is a standard for which type of communication?

AParallel I/O
BSerial communication (asynchronous)
CDMA signalling
DMemory bus protocol
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

When an interrupt occurs, the CPU first:

AResets all registers
BImmediately jumps to the ISR
CIgnores all further instructions
DCompletes the current instruction, then saves PC and jumps to ISR
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Interrupts are more efficient than polling because:

AThey use less hardware
BThe CPU only responds when there is actually something to handle
CThey work without a clock
DThey are always faster to implement
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The routine that handles an interrupt is called the:

AInterrupt Service Routine (ISR)
BMain program
CBoot loader
DReset handler
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

In the Intel 8085, TRAP has the highest interrupt priority because it is:

AThe only software interrupt
BMaskable and vectored
CNon-maskable and vectored
DThe slowest to respond
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Before jumping to an ISR, the CPU saves the return address by pushing it onto the:

AAccumulator
BFlag register
CData bus
DStack
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A software interrupt in the 8085 is triggered by:

AAn external hardware signal
BA power failure
CAn RST instruction in the program
DA DMA request
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A maskable interrupt can be temporarily disabled by the CPU using:

AA hardware power switch
BA DI (Disable Interrupts) instruction
CRemoving the interrupt source
DResetting the program counter
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

In a vectored interrupt system, the address of the ISR is:

ARandomly generated each time
BStored in the accumulator
CFixed and predefined in hardware or a vector table
DSupplied by the interrupting device at runtime
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

After the ISR finishes, control returns to the interrupted program using a:

AJMP (Jump) instruction
BRET or RETI (Return) instruction
CHLT (Halt) instruction
DRESET signal
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 946Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The correct 8085 interrupt priority order from highest to lowest is:

AINTR > RST5.5 > RST6.5 > RST7.5 > TRAP
BRST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5 > TRAP > INTR
CTRAP > RST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5 > INTR
DTRAP > INTR > RST7.5 > RST6.5 > RST5.5
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many NOT gates are required to build a 2:1 Multiplexer?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many 2-input NAND gates are contained in a standard 7400 TTL IC?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In TTL logic, what is the input voltage range for a logic LOW (active LOW level)?

A0 V to 0.8 V
B0 V to 1.5 V
C2 V to 5 V
D0.8 V to 2 V
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

When an invalid BCD code (1010–1111) is detected and auto-corrected, what value is added?

A0110 (6)
B0001 (1)
C1010 (10)
D0100 (4)
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the terminal (reset) state of a MOD-10 (decade) counter?

A1010
B1001
C1000
D0111
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the minimum number of flip-flops (memory blocks) required to build a MOD-6 ripple counter?

A2
B3
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

An SR flip-flop is also called a:

AMonostable multivibrator
BBistable multivibrator
CAstable multivibrator
DSchmitt trigger
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

A JK flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 is clocked at 20 kHz. What is the output waveform and its frequency?

ASine wave at 20 kHz
BSquare wave at 20 kHz
CSine wave at 10 kHz
DSquare wave at 10 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the duty cycle of an ideal astable multivibrator?

A25%
B50%
C75%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which of the following is NOT a valid operation of flip-flops?

ASet
BReset
CToggle
DMultiply
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The TRAP interrupt in 8085 microprocessor is:

AEdge-triggered only
BLevel-triggered (high level)
CMaskable
DSoftware interrupt
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Small-Scale Integration (SSI) refers to ICs with how many transistors?

ALess than 10
B10–99
C100–999
D1000+
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, a signal that represents a bus (multi-bit connection) is declared as:

AVariable
BSignal
CConstant
DGeneric
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, the primary design unit that represents a hardware block's interface (ports and generics) is called:

AArchitecture
BPackage
CComponent
DEntity
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The shadow mask technique is used in:

ALCD panels
BCRT displays
COLED displays
DPlasma screens
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Left-shifting an unsigned binary number by 1 bit is equivalent to:

ADividing by 2
BMultiplying by 2
CAdding 1
DSubtracting 1
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The expression x << 3 is equivalent to:

Ax × 8
Bx × 3
Cx + 3
Dx / 8
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 946Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which logic gate is commonly used for parity checking and overflow detection?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

Which of the following is NOT a valid C token category?

AKeyword
BIdentifier
CClass
DOperator
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

Which loop is exit-controlled (executes at least once)?

Afor
Bwhile
Cdo-while
Dif-else
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

The default parameter passing mechanism in C is:

ACall by reference
BCall by value
CCall by address only
DCall by name
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

A recursive function must always have a:

ALoop
BPointer
CBase case
DGlobal variable
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

Which function is used for unformatted single-character input?

Ascanf()
Bgetchar()
Cprintf()
Dgets()
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

A string in C is terminated by:

AA space
BThe character '\0'
CA newline only
DEnd of file marker
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

In the declaration int a[3][4], the array has:

A3 elements
B4 elements
C12 elements arranged as 3 rows and 4 columns
D7 elements
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

Which statement skips the remaining code in the current loop iteration and moves to the next?

Abreak
Bcontinue
Cgoto
Dreturn
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

Which of these is an exit-controlled feature unique to switch-case (if break is omitted)?

AInfinite loop
BFall-through to the next case
CCompile error
DAutomatic exit
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 946Ch 3 · Introduction to C programming

The strcmp() function from string.h is used to:

ACopy one string to another
BConcatenate two strings
CCompare two strings
DReverse a string
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

The & operator in C is used to obtain a variable's:

AValue
BAddress
CData type
DSize
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

If int *p; and p currently points to an int, then p++ moves p forward by:

A1 byte
Bsizeof(int) bytes
Csizeof(char) bytes
DIt does not move
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

The expression *(a + i) is equivalent to:

Aa[i]
Ba[i+1]
Ci[a]
DBoth a[i] and i[a]
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

In a union, the total memory allocated equals:

ASum of sizes of all members
BSize of the largest member
CSize of the smallest member
DAlways 4 bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

Which file opening mode creates a new file for writing, overwriting if it already exists?

Ar
Ba
Cw
Dr+
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

Which function is used for random access to a file?

Afprintf()
Bfseek()
Cfclose()
Dfgets()
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

Passing a structure to a function by reference is done using a:

ACopy of the structure
BStructure pointer
CUnion
DGlobal array only
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

fread() and fwrite() operate on files in:

AText mode only
BBinary mode
CCompressed mode
DAppend mode only
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

An array of structures is used to:

AStore one record only
BStore multiple records of the same structure type
CReplace unions
DAvoid using pointers
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 946Ch 3 · Pointers, structure and data files in C programming

Which statement about structures is TRUE?

AAll members share one memory location
BEach member gets its own memory
COnly one member can be valid at a time
DStructures cannot contain arrays
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

Function overloading is an example of:

ARuntime polymorphism
BCompile-time polymorphism
CInheritance
DEncapsulation
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

The inline keyword is a request to the compiler to:

AAllocate memory dynamically
BSubstitute the function code at the call site
CDelay function execution
DMake the function virtual
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

Which access specifier allows access from the class and its derived classes only?

Aprivate
Bpublic
Cprotected
Dfriend
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

A constructor that takes no parameters is called a:

ACopy constructor
BParameterized constructor
CDefault constructor
DDestructor
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

A destructor:

ACan be overloaded
BTakes arguments
CHas the same name as the class prefixed with ~
DReturns an int
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

Dynamic memory for a single object in C++ is allocated using:

Amalloc()
Bnew
Calloc()
Dcalloc()
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

The 'this' pointer refers to:

AThe base class object
BThe current object on which the member function is called
CA static member
DThe next object in an array
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

A static data member of a class:

AHas a separate copy for every object
BIs shared by all objects of the class
CCannot be initialized
DIs only visible inside main()
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

A friend function of a class can:

AOnly access public members
BAccess the class's private and protected members
CNever be defined outside the class
DOnly be a member function
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 946Ch 3 · C++ language constructs with objects and classes

Passing an argument by reference (using &) mainly helps to:

AAlways create a copy
BAvoid copying and allow modification of the original
CIncrease compilation time only
DPrevent function calls
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

Operator overloading in C++ is implemented using the keyword:

Avirtual
Boperator
Cfriend
Dstatic
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

Overloading the unary minus (-) operator affects an operator with:

ATwo operands
BOne operand
CThree operands
DNo operand
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

Converting a class object to a basic data type is done using a:

ACopy constructor
BConversion (casting) operator function
CDestructor
DFriend class
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

When a class inherits from two or more base classes, this is called:

ASingle inheritance
BMultilevel inheritance
CMultiple inheritance
DHierarchical inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

A → B → C, where C is derived from B and B is derived from A, illustrates:

AHierarchical inheritance
BMultilevel inheritance
CHybrid inheritance
DMultiple inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

Several derived classes inheriting from a single common base class describes:

AMultilevel inheritance
BHierarchical inheritance
CMultiple inheritance
DMultipath inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

In inheritance, which constructor executes FIRST when a derived object is created?

ADerived class constructor
BBase class constructor
CBoth simultaneously
DNeither runs automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

The order in which destructors execute in inheritance is:

ABase class first, then derived
BDerived class first, then base
CRandom order
DOnly base class destructor runs
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

Diamond/multipath inheritance ambiguity is resolved by declaring the common base as a:

Astatic class
Bfriend class
Cvirtual base class
Dabstract class
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 946Ch 3 · Features of object-oriented programming

A combination of hierarchical and multiple inheritance is an example of:

ASingle inheritance
BHybrid inheritance
CMultilevel inheritance
DNo inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

A pure virtual function is declared as:

Avirtual void fn();
Bvirtual void fn() = 0;
Cvoid fn() = virtual;
Dstatic void fn() = 0;
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

A class containing at least one pure virtual function is called a/an:

AFriend class
BAbstract class
CStatic class
DFinal class
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Runtime polymorphism in C++ is achieved primarily through:

AFunction overloading
BOperator overloading
CVirtual functions
DDefault arguments
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Which class is the base of the entire C++ stream class hierarchy?

Aiostream
Bios
Cfstream
Distream
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Which class is used specifically to read data from a file?

Aofstream
Bifstream
Ciostream
Dsstream
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Which member function checks whether the end of a file has been reached?

Afail()
Beof()
Cgood()
Dbad()
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Which manipulator inserts a newline and flushes the output buffer?

Asetw()
Bendl
Csetprecision()
Dflush() only
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

setw() is used to set the:

AFill character
BDecimal precision
CField width for the next output
DFile open mode
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Dynamic binding means the function call is resolved:

AAt compile time
BAt run time, based on the actual object type
CNever resolved
DBy the linker only
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 946Ch 3 · Pure virtual function and file handling

Which class supports both reading and writing to a file?

Aifstream
Bofstream
Cfstream
Dios
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

A function template in C++ is declared using the keyword combination:

Aclass template
Btemplate<class T>
Cgeneric<T>
Dtypename function
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

Which of these is NOT one of the three main components of the STL?

AContainers
BAlgorithms
CIterators
DCompilers
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

Which STL container stores elements in a dynamic, resizable array?

Alist
Bvector
Cmap
Dset
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

In C++ exception handling, the block of code that might raise an exception is placed inside:

Aa catch block
Ba try block
Ca throw block
Da template block
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

Which keyword is used to signal that an exceptional condition has occurred?

Acatch
Btry
Cthrow
Draise
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

catch(...) is used to:

ACatch only integer exceptions
BCatch any type of exception
CRethrow an exception
DDeclare a function template
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Question 399 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

Rethrowing an exception from within a catch block is done using:

Athrow; (with no operand)
Breturn;
Ccatch();
Dretry;
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Question 400 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

A single try block can be followed by:

AOnly one catch block
BMultiple catch blocks for different exception types
CNo catch block at all
DOnly a throw statement
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Question 401 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

If no catch block matches a thrown exception, the program calls:

Amain() again
Bterminate()
Crestart()
Ddelete()
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Question 402 of 946Ch 3 · Generic programming and exception handling

An iterator in the STL is best described as:

AA sorting algorithm
BA pointer-like object used to traverse container elements
CA type of exception
DA class template only for maps
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Question 403 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

When an interrupt occurs, the CPU transfers execution to:

AInterrupt Service Routine (ISR)
BMain program counter
CStack pointer
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8086 microprocessor operates in which two modes?

AReal mode and Protected mode
BMinimum mode and Maximum mode
CUser mode and Kernel mode
DSingle-bus and Multi-bus mode
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Assembly language source code is translated to machine code by:

AAssembler
BCompiler
CInterpreter
DLinker
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI) provides which type of interface?

APhysical
BLogical
CSerial
DOptical
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) architecture is characterized by:

AComplex variable-length instructions and small register file
BLarge number of registers, fixed instruction size, and pipelining
CMicrocode-based execution and many addressing modes
DSlow clock speed and large instruction cache
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

What does the Address Generation Unit (AGU) in a CPU do?

AExecutes floating-point operations
BComputes effective memory addresses
CManages cache replacement
DDecodes instruction opcodes
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Pipelining in CPU design is also known as:

AParallel processing
BMultiprogramming
CAssembly-line operation / Instruction overlapping
DSuperscalar execution
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

How many signal wires does the I²C (Inter-Integrated Circuit) bus use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

A microprocessor fetches its next instruction from:

ACache memory
BRegister file
CMain memory (RAM)
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In an SPI bus running at 5 MHz with 8-bit frames, what is the time taken per bit?

A0.02 μs
B0.2 μs
C2 μs
D20 μs
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Which circuit inside the CPU performs arithmetic and logical operations?

AControl Unit
BALU
CRegister File
DMemory Controller
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 946Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In floating-point multiplication, the correct sequence of operations is:

AAdd exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize and round
BMultiply exponents, add mantissas, then normalize
CSubtract exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize
DMultiply mantissas, multiply exponents, then round
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

Which control unit design generates control signals using microinstructions stored in a ROM?

AHardwired control
BMicroprogrammed control
CPipelined control
DCombinational control
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

The register that holds the address of the next microinstruction is the:

AInstruction register
BControl Address Register (CAR)
CProgram counter only
DMemory buffer register
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

A horizontal microinstruction format is characterized by:

AOne bit per control signal, no decoding needed
BEncoded fields requiring a decoder
COnly branch instructions
DVariable length always
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Question 418 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

An addressing mode where the operand value is given directly in the instruction is called:

ADirect addressing
BImmediate addressing
CIndirect addressing
DIndexed addressing
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Question 419 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

In register indirect addressing, the register contains:

AThe operand itself
BThe address of the operand
CThe opcode
DThe program counter value
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

A key characteristic of RISC architecture is:

AMany complex variable-length instructions
BA small set of simple, fixed-length instructions
CMemory-to-memory arithmetic operations
DNo use of registers
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

Overlapping the fetch, decode, and execute stages of successive instructions is called:

AMultiprogramming
BPipelining
CMultitasking
DInterleaving
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Question 422 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

A pipeline hazard caused by an instruction needing a result not yet produced by an earlier instruction is a:

AStructural hazard
BData hazard
CControl hazard
DAddress hazard
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

A three-address instruction format specifies:

ANo operands
BOne operand only
CTwo source operands and one destination operand
DOnly a stack operation
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 946Ch 4 · Control and central processing units

Which of these is a pipeline hazard caused specifically by branch instructions?

AStructural hazard
BData hazard
CControl hazard
DOverflow hazard
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Subtraction is commonly performed in computers by adding the:

A1's complement
B2's complement of the number
CSign-magnitude value directly
DBCD value
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Booth's algorithm is primarily used to speed up:

AAddition
BMultiplication
CDivision
DLogical shifting
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Which level of the memory hierarchy is fastest and smallest?

ASecondary storage
BMain memory (RAM)
CCache memory
DCPU registers
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Question 428 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Cache memory design relies mainly on the principle of:

AVirtual memory
BLocality of reference
CDirect memory access
DInterrupt priority
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Question 429 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

In direct mapping, each main memory block can be placed:

AAnywhere in the cache
BIn only one specific cache line
CIn a set of cache lines
DOnly in registers
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Which cache replacement algorithm replaces the block that has not been used for the longest time?

AFIFO
BLRU
CRandom
DLFU
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

In the write-through policy, a write operation updates:

ACache only
BMain memory only
CBoth cache and main memory simultaneously
DNeither cache nor memory
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

Which type of memory is non-volatile and normally only readable after manufacture?

ARAM
BCache
CROM
DRegister file
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

EPROM is erased using:

AAn electrical signal only
BUV (ultraviolet) light
CA software command only
DMagnetic reformatting
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 946Ch 4 · Computer arithmetic and memory system

A memory system with L1, L2, and L3 caches illustrates:

AA single level of cache
BMultiple levels of cache in the memory hierarchy
CVirtual memory only
DSecondary storage layering
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

In programmed I/O, the CPU:

AIs interrupted by the device
BContinuously polls the device status (busy-waiting)
CIs not involved at all
DOnly initiates a DMA controller
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

Which I/O mode allows the CPU to do other work while waiting for a device, using a signal from the device?

AProgrammed I/O
BInterrupt-driven I/O
CDMA only
DPolling
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

DMA (Direct Memory Access) transfers data:

AOnly through the CPU's registers
BDirectly between the device and main memory, without CPU involvement in the transfer
COnly via programmed I/O
DOnly during interrupts
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

A multiprocessor system in which all processors share a common main memory is called:

ALoosely coupled
BTightly coupled
CDistributed
DUniprocessor
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Question 439 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

Loosely coupled multiprocessor systems typically communicate using:

AShared registers
BMessage passing
CA single shared cache only
DDirect memory access only
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

Which interconnection structure directly connects every processor to every memory module with dedicated paths?

ACommon bus
BCrossbar switch
CRing topology only
DStar topology only
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

An I/O module's function does NOT typically include:

AData buffering
BError detection
CExecuting user application logic
DCPU communication
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

Synchronization between processes in a shared-memory multiprocessor is commonly done using:

AMessage queues only
BSemaphores/mutexes
CDMA controllers
DCache replacement algorithms
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

Compared to programmed I/O, DMA is generally:

ASlower for bulk transfers
BFaster for bulk data transfers since the CPU is freed from transferring each byte
COnly usable for keyboard input
DNot used in modern systems
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 946Ch 4 · Input-Output organization and multiprocessor

A hypercube is an example of a:

AStorage device
BMultiprocessor interconnection structure
CCache replacement algorithm
DAddressing mode
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

An embedded system is best described as:

AA general-purpose computer for any task
BHardware and software combined for a specific, dedicated function
COnly a software application
DA type of secondary storage
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

A real-time system where missing a deadline is considered a system failure is called:

ASoft real-time
BHard real-time
CStandalone
DNetworked
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

A processor whose instruction set is customized for a particular application domain (e.g., DSP) is called:

AGeneral-Purpose Processor (GPP)
BSingle-purpose processor
CApplication-Specific Instruction-set Processor (ASIP)
DVon Neumann processor
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

A single-purpose processor, compared to a GPP, is typically:

AMore flexible but slower
BFaster and more power-efficient for its one function, but inflexible
CProgrammable for any task
DNever used in embedded systems
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

In a custom single-purpose processor, the component that performs the actual data operations is the:

AController (FSM)
BDatapath
CCache
DDMA controller
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

The component that sequences the operations of a custom processor's datapath is the:

ACache controller
BFinite State Machine (FSM) controller
CDMA controller
DCompiler
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

Optimizing a custom single-purpose processor design typically targets:

AOnly code readability
BArea, performance, and power
COnly compilation speed
DOnly memory hierarchy depth
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

The fetch-decode-execute cycle describes the basic operation of:

ACache memory
BA programmable processor
CA DMA controller
DA ROM chip
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Question 453 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

An embedded system classified by scale as using a single 8/16-bit microcontroller is a:

ALarge-scale embedded system
BMedium-scale embedded system
CSmall-scale embedded system
DDistributed system
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware-Software design issues on embedded system

A typical embedded software development environment includes:

AOnly a text editor
BA cross-compiler, assembler, linker, debugger, and simulator
COnly a spreadsheet application
DA word processor
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

A thread differs from a process mainly because a thread:

AHas its own completely separate memory space
BIs a lightweight unit that shares memory with other threads in the same process
CCannot be scheduled
DAlways runs on a separate CPU
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Multiple CPUs executing different processes at the same time is called:

AMultitasking
BMultiprocessing
CTime-sharing
DInterrupt handling
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Which scheduling algorithm assigns fixed priorities to periodic tasks based on their period (shorter period = higher priority)?

ARound Robin
BFCFS
CRate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS)
DEarliest Deadline First (EDF)
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Earliest Deadline First (EDF) is a:

AFixed-priority static algorithm
BDynamic-priority algorithm based on nearest deadline
CFirst-come-first-served algorithm
DRound robin variant only
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Which mechanism is commonly used to prevent race conditions between concurrent tasks?

ADevice drivers
BSemaphores/mutexes
CCache replacement algorithms
DDMA controllers
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

A device driver's main role is to:

ASchedule CPU tasks
BProvide an interface between the OS/applications and hardware devices
CPerform arithmetic operations
DManage cache replacement
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

In an open-loop control system:

AThe output is fed back and compared to the input
BThe output is not measured or fed back
CErrors are automatically corrected
DIt is always more accurate than closed-loop
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

A thermostat-controlled heating system is an example of a:

AOpen-loop control system
BClosed-loop (feedback) control system
CMultiprocessing system
DRound robin scheduler
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Round robin scheduling gives each task:

AUnlimited CPU time until completion
BA fixed time slice (quantum) in rotation
CPriority based on deadline only
DNo CPU time at all
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 946Ch 4 · Real-Time operating and control system

Which of these is classified as a hard real-time requirement?

AA media player occasionally dropping a frame
BA missed deadline causing catastrophic system failure (e.g., airbag deployment)
CA web page loading slowly
DA background file download pausing
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

VHDL stands for:

AVery High Definition Language
BVHSIC Hardware Description Language
CVerified Hardware Design Logic
DVirtual Hardware Description Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

In a VHDL design, the part that declares the circuit's input/output ports is the:

AArchitecture
BEntity
CProcess
DPackage
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

A VHDL description that specifies what a circuit does using processes, without detailing gate-level structure, uses which modeling style?

AStructural
BBehavioral
CDataflow only
DNetlist
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

Combinational logic in VHDL is typically modeled using:

AA process sensitive to a clock edge
BConcurrent signal assignments or a process without a clock
COnly sequential assignments with a clock
DInterrupt service routines
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

Sequential logic in VHDL is typically triggered using:

AA sensitivity list of only data inputs
Bif risingedge(clk) then ... inside a process
CConcurrent assignment only
DNo process at all
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

Pipelining in a VHDL design is implemented by:

ARemoving all registers
BInserting clocked registers between combinational stages
CUsing only combinational logic
DIncreasing the clock period indefinitely
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

Which level of IC integration has the fewest transistors per chip?

AVLSI
BLSI
CSSI
DULSI
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

Modern microprocessors with hundreds of thousands to millions of transistors belong to which integration level?

ASSI
BMSI
CLSI
DVLSI
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

CMOS technology is favored for digital ICs mainly because of its:

AHigh static power consumption
BVery low static power consumption
CInability to scale
DRequirement for external cooling only
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 946Ch 4 · Hardware descripts language and IC technology

An overflow condition in VHDL arithmetic occurs when:

AThe clock signal stops
BThe result exceeds the representable range of the signal's bit-width
CTwo signals share the same name
DA process has no sensitivity list
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which feature of IPv6 is NOT supported (unlike IPv4)?

AUnicast
BMulticast
CBroadcast
DAnycast
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the maximum length of a hostname?

A255 characters
B128 characters
C64 characters
D512 characters
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which OSI layer is responsible for process-to-process (end-to-end) communication?

ANetwork Layer
BTransport Layer
CSession Layer
DApplication Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which cable type is used to directly connect two routers without a switch?

ACrossover cable
BStraight-through cable
CRollover cable
DCoaxial cable
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In hierarchical routing, each autonomous domain (cluster) is called a:

AGateway
BRegion
CNode
DZone
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

FTP uses how many TCP connections?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Heavy network traffic that slows down response time is called:

ACongestion
BCollision
CDeadlock
DLatency
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The default port number for HTTP is:

A21
B80
C443
D25
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which protocol is used for sending email from a client to a mail server?

AIMAP
BPOP3
CSMTP
DFTP
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the loopback address in IPv4?

A127.0.0.1
B192.168.0.1
C255.255.255.255
D0.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the network address of 192.10.16.32 with subnet mask /25?

A192.10.16.32
B192.10.16.0
C192.10.16.128
D192.10.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the Network ID of 203.17.10.7 with a /24 subnet mask?

A203.17.0.0
B203.17.10.0
C203.17.10.7
D203.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which function is NOT performed at the Transport Layer?

ASegmentation and reassembly
BFlow control
CRouting
DError detection
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

CDMA technology allows multiple users to:

AUse different frequency bands
BShare the same channel simultaneously using unique codes
CTake turns in time slots
DOperate on wired networks only
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A packet filter firewall operates at which OSI layer?

ALayer 2 (Data Link)
BLayer 3 (Network)
CLayer 4 (Transport)
DLayer 7 (Application)
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The most time-critical real-time network application is:

AEmail
BFile transfer
CInternet telephone (VoIP)
DWeb browsing
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A proxy server is implemented at which OSI layer?

AApplication Layer
BTransport Layer
CNetwork Layer
DData Link Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The correct order of network types from smallest to largest geographic scope is:

ALAN < PAN < MAN < WAN
BPAN < LAN < MAN < WAN
CLAN < MAN < PAN < WAN
DPAN < WAN < LAN < MAN
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The RIP routing protocol uses which metric to determine the best path?

ABandwidth
BDelay
CHop count
DCost
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In RIP, a hop count of 16 means:

A16 routers away
BNetwork is unreachable
CMaximum allowed path
DDirect connection
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The IEEE standard for Ethernet is:

AIEEE 802.11
BIEEE 802.3
CIEEE 802.15
DIEEE 802.1
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Distance vector routing protocols use which algorithm to compute shortest paths?

ADijkstra's algorithm
BBellman-Ford algorithm
CFloyd-Warshall algorithm
DA* algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

10Base5 Ethernet supports a maximum segment length of:

A100 m
B185 m
C500 m
D1000 m
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 946Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A typical LAN covers a geographic scope of up to:

A10 m
B1 km
C50 km
D500 km
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

How many layers does the OSI reference model have?

A4
B5
C6
D7
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

The TCP/IP model combines the OSI Session, Presentation, and Application layers into a single:

ATransport layer
BInternet layer
CApplication layer
DNetwork interface layer
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

Which networking device operates at the physical layer and simply broadcasts data to all ports?

ARouter
BSwitch
CHub
DBridge
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

A switch forwards frames based on the:

AIP address
BMAC address
CPort number
DDomain name
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

A router forwards packets between different networks based on the:

AMAC address
BIP address
CPort number
DPhysical cable type
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

Which transmission medium offers the highest bandwidth and immunity to electromagnetic interference?

ATwisted pair cable
BCoaxial cable
CFiber optic cable
DRadio waves
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

Infrared transmission is best suited for:

ALong-distance backbone links
BShort-range, line-of-sight communication (e.g., remote controls)
CUnderwater communication
DSatellite links
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

A protocol that becomes a standard purely through widespread common use (without formal approval) is called a:

ADe jure standard
BDe facto standard
CISO standard
DLegal standard
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

Which layer is present in the OSI model but merged into the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?

APhysical layer
BNetwork layer
CPresentation layer
DData link layer
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 946Ch 5 · Introduction to computer networks and physical layer

A bridge operates at which layer of the OSI model?

APhysical layer
BData link layer
CNetwork layer
DTransport layer
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

Which error detection technique uses polynomial division and is considered the most powerful?

AParity check
BChecksum
CCRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)
DHamming code
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

Which technique can both detect AND correct single-bit errors?

AParity check
BCRC
CChecksum
DHamming code
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

In stop-and-wait flow control, the sender:

ASends multiple frames continuously
BSends one frame and waits for an acknowledgement before sending the next
CNever waits for acknowledgement
DUses token passing
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

CSMA/CD is primarily used in:

AWireless LANs (802.11)
BTraditional wired Ethernet (802.3)
CToken Ring networks
DSatellite links
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

Wireless LANs use CSMA/CA instead of CSMA/CD mainly because:

AWireless is always faster
BCollisions cannot be reliably detected on a wireless medium
CCA uses no carrier sensing
D802.11 does not need multiple access control
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

ARP is used to resolve a(n):

ADomain name to IP address
BIP address to MAC address
CMAC address to domain name
DPort number to socket
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

IEEE 802.5 defines which LAN technology?

AEthernet
BToken Bus
CToken Ring
DWireless LAN
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

In channelization access methods, TDMA divides the shared channel by:

AFrequency
BTime
CCode
DDistance
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is mainly used to:

ABroadcast to all LAN stations
BProvide a direct link between two nodes, e.g. for WAN connections
CReplace Ethernet in LANs
DResolve IP to MAC addresses
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 946Ch 5 · Data link layer

A MAC address is:

AA 32-bit software address
BA 48-bit hardware address
CA domain name
DA port number
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

Which IP address class is reserved specifically for multicast addresses?

AClass A
BClass B
CClass C
DClass D
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

Subnetting is used to:

ACombine multiple networks into one
BDivide a large network into smaller sub-networks
CConvert IP addresses to MAC addresses
DEncrypt network traffic
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is an example of:

ALink state routing
BDistance vector routing
CPath vector routing
DStatic routing only
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

OSPF determines the shortest path using:

AThe Bellman-Ford algorithm
BDijkstra's algorithm
CFlooding only
DRandom selection
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is classified as a:

ADistance vector protocol
BLink state protocol
CPath vector protocol
DFlooding protocol
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

Which protocol is used to resolve a MAC address into a corresponding IP address?

AARP
BRARP
CICMP
DDNS
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

The 'ping' utility relies on which protocol?

AARP
BTCP
CICMP
DUDP
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

How many bits does an IPv6 address use?

A32 bits
B48 bits
C64 bits
D128 bits
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

Which mechanism allows IPv4 and IPv6 networks to coexist by encapsulating IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets?

ADual stack
BTunneling
CSubnetting
DFlooding
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 946Ch 5 · Network layer

Delivering a packet to a single specific destination is called:

AMulticast routing
BBroadcast routing
CUnicast routing
DAnycast routing
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

A socket is uniquely identified by the combination of:

ATwo port numbers
BIP address and port number
CMAC address and port number
DTwo IP addresses
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

Which transport protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable delivery?

AUDP
BTCP
CIP
DICMP
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

UDP is generally preferred over TCP for applications like live streaming because:

AUDP guarantees delivery
BUDP has lower overhead and is faster, tolerating some loss
CUDP requires a three-way handshake
DUDP has built-in congestion control
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

TCP connection establishment uses:

AA two-way handshake
BA three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK)
CA four-way handshake
DNo handshake at all
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

TCP connection release typically uses:

AA three-way handshake
BA four-way handshake (FIN, ACK, FIN, ACK)
CNo termination process
DA single RST packet only
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

Flow control at the transport layer commonly uses which mechanism?

AToken passing
BSliding window
CCSMA/CD
DFlooding
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

Combining data from multiple applications into one transmission stream using port numbers is called:

ADemultiplexing
BMultiplexing
CSubnetting
DTunneling
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

Which congestion control mechanism increases the sending rate exponentially at the start of a connection?

ACongestion avoidance
BSlow start
CAIMD only
DLeaky bucket
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

AIMD stands for:

AAdditive Increase Multiplicative Decrease
BAutomatic Increase Manual Decrease
CActive Idle Multiplexed Data
DAdaptive Interleaved Multicast Delivery
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 946Ch 5 · Transport layer

Which algorithm is commonly used to shape/smooth bursty traffic to a steady, controlled rate?

ALeaky bucket
BDijkstra's algorithm
CCSMA/CA
DARP
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

HTTPS differs from HTTP mainly by adding:

AFaster page loading only
BSSL/TLS encryption for secure communication
CA different port for images
DSupport for FTP transfers
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

FTP uses how many connections to transfer a file?

AOne combined connection
BTwo separate connections (control and data)
CThree connections
DNo connection, it is connectionless
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

Which protocol is used to send email from a client to a mail server (or between mail servers)?

APOP3
BIMAP
CSMTP
DSNMP
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

DNS primarily functions to:

AEncrypt network traffic
BTranslate domain names into IP addresses
CTransfer files between hosts
DRoute packets between networks
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

A P2P (peer-to-peer) application is characterized by:

AA single central server handling all requests
BNo dedicated central server; peers communicate directly
COnly client-to-server communication
DRequiring DNS to function
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

Which tool is used to capture and analyze network packets in detail?

AMRTG
BSNMP
CWireshark
DPuTTY
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

SNMP is primarily used for:

AFile transfer
BMonitoring and managing network devices
CSending email
DDomain name resolution
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

WinSCP is best described as a:

AWeb browser
BGUI client for secure file transfer over SSH
CPacket analysis tool
DDNS server
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

Cisco Packet Tracer is mainly used to:

ASend emails
BSimulate and test network topologies and configurations
CEncrypt web traffic
DResolve domain names
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 946Ch 5 · Application layer

A mail client retrieving/downloading messages from a mail server typically uses:

ASMTP
BPOP3 or IMAP
CFTP
DHTTP only
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

The CIA triad in computer security stands for:

AConfidentiality, Integrity, Availability
BCertification, Identity, Authorization
CCryptography, Integrity, Access
DConfidentiality, Identity, Availability
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

Eavesdropping on network traffic without altering it is an example of a:

AActive attack
BPassive attack
CDenial of Service attack
DReplay attack
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is classified as a(n):

APassive attack
BActive attack
CSymmetric attack
DDigital signature attack
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

In symmetric-key cryptography:

ADifferent keys are used for encryption and decryption
BThe same key is used for both encryption and decryption
CNo key is needed
DOnly the public key is used
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

RSA's security is based on the difficulty of:

AReversing a hash function
BFactoring the product of two large prime numbers
CGuessing a symmetric key
DBreaking a checksum
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

A digital signature is created by encrypting a message digest with the sender's:

APublic key
BPrivate key
CSymmetric key
DSession key only
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

PGP is primarily used to secure:

AWeb browsing traffic (HTTPS)
BEmail communication
CWireless LAN traffic
DDNS lookups
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

SSL/TLS is the underlying security mechanism for which widely used protocol?

AFTP
BHTTPS
CSMTP only
DARP
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

IPsec's tunnel mode differs from transport mode in that tunnel mode:

AEncrypts only the payload
BEncrypts the entire original IP packet
CProvides no encryption at all
DIs used only for email
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 946Ch 5 · Network security

WEP is considered weak mainly because:

AIt uses no encryption at all
BIt has well-known cryptographic vulnerabilities, later replaced by WPA/WPA2
CIt only works on wired networks
DIt cannot be used with routers
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

What condition indicates a circular queue is FULL (size = N, front and rear start at 0)?

ARear = Front
BRear = N − 1
CRear = (Front + 1) MOD N
DFront = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

Class P problems are solvable in polynomial time by which machine?

ANon-deterministic Turing Machine
BProbabilistic Turing Machine
CDeterministic Turing Machine
DOracle Turing Machine
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The thesis that states any algorithm computable by a person can be computed by a Turing Machine is:

AGödel's Incompleteness Theorem
BChurch-Turing Thesis
CRice's Theorem
DHalting Problem
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A Finite Automaton (FA) recognises languages described by which grammar type?

ARegular Grammar (Type 3)
BContext-Free Grammar (Type 2)
CContext-Sensitive Grammar (Type 1)
DUnrestricted Grammar (Type 0)
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The key characteristic of a Universal Turing Machine (UTM) is:

AIt runs on quantum hardware
BIt solves the halting problem
CIt can simulate any other Turing Machine
DIt operates in parallel
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A language is Turing-recognisable (recursively enumerable) if:

AA TM enumerator lists all strings in the language
BA finite automaton accepts it
CA PDA accepts it
DIt is decidable by a TM
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

A Pushdown Automaton (PDA) that has at most one possible move for any input symbol and stack symbol is called:

ANon-deterministic PDA
BDeterministic PDA (DPDA)
CTwo-stack PDA
DTuring Machine
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

The cardinality of the power set of a set with 4 elements, |P(1,2,3,4)|, is:

A4
B8
C16
D24
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 946Ch 5 · Theory of Computation

What grammar notation uses meta-symbols to formally define the syntax of programming languages?

ABNF (Backus-Naur Form)
BRegular Expression
CFinite Automaton
DTruth Table
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

Electric field intensity E is defined as:

ACharge per unit volume
BForce per unit positive charge
CFlux per unit area only
DPotential per unit distance squared
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

The divergence theorem relates a surface integral to:

AA line integral
BA volume integral of the divergence
CA point charge value only
DA magnetic field integral
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

Electric potential V relates to electric field E by:

AE = ∇V
BE = −∇V (potential gradient)
CE = V²
DThere is no relation
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

The energy density stored in an electrostatic field is given by:

Aw = εE
Bw = ½εE²
Cw = E/ε
Dw = ε²E
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

An electric dipole's strength is characterized by its:

ATotal charge only
BDipole moment, p = Qd
CRelative permittivity
DRelaxation time
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

Bound charges, unlike free charges, are:

AAble to move freely through a conductor
BLocked in place within atoms/molecules but can shift slightly (polarize)
CAlways zero in any material
DFound only in perfect conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

The continuity equation, ∇·J = −∂ρ/∂t, expresses:

AConservation of energy
BConservation of charge
CConservation of momentum
DNewton's second law
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

Relaxation time in a conductor represents:

AThe time for a wave to travel one wavelength
BThe time constant for excess charge to dissipate to the surface
CThe period of an AC signal
DThe time for a dipole to form
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

Laplace's equation, ∇²V = 0, applies to a region that is:

AFilled uniformly with charge
BFree of charge
CA perfect conductor only
DAlways time-varying
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 946Ch 6 · Electric field

The uniqueness theorem in electrostatics guarantees that:

AMultiple different solutions can satisfy the same boundary conditions
BA solution satisfying the given boundary conditions is the only correct solution
CBoundary conditions are irrelevant
DLaplace's equation has no solution
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

Biot-Savart's law is used to determine:

AThe electric field from a point charge
BThe magnetic field produced by a current element
CThe potential at infinity
DThe relaxation time of a conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

Ampere's circuital law states that the line integral of H around a closed path equals:

AZero always
BThe current enclosed by the path
CThe electric flux through the path
DThe magnetic flux density at the center
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

A non-zero curl of a vector field indicates:

AThe field has a source or sink there
BThe field has a rotational (circulating) tendency at that point
CThe field is exactly zero
DThe field is purely radial
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

Stoke's theorem converts a closed line integral into:

AA volume integral of divergence
BA surface integral of the curl
CA point charge calculation
DA scalar potential difference
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

The magnetic force on a moving charge (F = qv×B) is always:

AParallel to the velocity
BPerpendicular to both velocity and magnetic field
CParallel to the magnetic field only
DZero regardless of velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by:

AF = qE
BF = IL × B
CF = ½εE²
DF = μ₀H
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is given by:

Am = Qd
Bm = IA
Cm = εE
Dm = σA
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

Magnetization (M) is defined as:

AMagnetic field intensity itself
BMagnetic dipole moment per unit volume induced in a material
CThe relaxation time of a magnetic material
DElectric flux density
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

At a boundary between two media (no surface current), which component of H is continuous?

AThe normal component
BThe tangential component
CNeither component
DBoth are always discontinuous
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 946Ch 6 · Magnetic field

At any boundary between two media, which component of B is always continuous?

AThe tangential component
BThe normal component
CNeither component
DB is never continuous
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Displacement current was introduced by Maxwell to:

AReplace conduction current entirely
BFix an inconsistency in Ampere's law for time-varying fields
CEliminate the need for Faraday's law
DIncrease the speed of light
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Which Maxwell's equation states that no isolated magnetic monopoles exist?

A∇·D = ρ
B∇·B = 0
C∇×E = −∂B/∂t
D∇×H = J
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Faraday's law in point form is expressed as:

A∇·D = ρ
B∇×E = −∂B/∂t
C∇×H = J + ∂D/∂t
D∇·B = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

In a lossless dielectric, a propagating plane wave:

AAttenuates rapidly
BPropagates without attenuation, with E and H in phase
CCannot exist
DHas a complex propagation constant only
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

In a good conductor, a propagating electromagnetic wave:

APropagates without any loss
BAttenuates very rapidly due to the skin effect
CHas E and H exactly in phase
DCannot be described by Maxwell's equations
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Skin depth in a good conductor refers to:

AThe total thickness of the conductor
BThe depth at which the wave amplitude falls to 1/e of its surface value
CThe wavelength in free space
DThe Brewster angle
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

The propagation constant γ = α + jβ in a lossy medium includes:

AOnly a phase constant
BBoth an attenuation constant (α) and a phase constant (β)
COnly an attenuation constant
DNeither attenuation nor phase information
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

The Brewster angle refers to the angle of incidence at which:

ATotal internal reflection occurs
BReflection is zero for parallel-polarized incident waves
CThe wave travels fastest
DSkin depth is maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence:

AIs less than the critical angle
BExceeds the critical angle, at a boundary going from denser to less dense medium
CEquals exactly 0°
DIs irrelevant to reflection
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 946Ch 6 · Wave equation and wave propagation

Oblique incidence of a plane wave at a boundary is governed by:

AOhm's law
BSnell's law
CKirchhoff's law
DCoulomb's law
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

A rectangular waveguide, unlike a coaxial cable, cannot support which propagation mode?

ATE mode
BTM mode
CTEM (Transverse Electromagnetic) mode
DIt supports all modes equally
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

In TE (Transverse Electric) mode, which field component is zero in the direction of propagation?

AThe magnetic field component
BThe electric field component
CBoth fields are zero
DNeither field is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

In TM (Transverse Magnetic) mode, which field component is zero in the direction of propagation?

AThe electric field component
BThe magnetic field component
CBoth fields are zero
DNeither field is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is generally:

ATM₁₁
BTE₁₀, having the lowest cutoff frequency
CTEM
DThere is no dominant mode
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

An antenna functions primarily as a:

APure resistor
BTransducer converting guided electromagnetic energy to free-space radiation, and vice versa
CDigital logic device
DFrequency multiplier only
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

The reciprocity theorem in antenna theory states that:

ATransmitting and receiving properties of an antenna are entirely different
BTransmitting and receiving properties (pattern, gain, impedance) are identical
CAn antenna cannot both transmit and receive
DGain is always greater than directivity
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

Antenna gain differs from directivity in that gain:

AIgnores antenna losses entirely
BAccounts for antenna efficiency (gain = efficiency × directivity)
CIs always greater than directivity
DHas no relation to directivity at all
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

Antenna beamwidth is typically measured at which points of the radiation pattern's main lobe?

AThe nulls
BThe half-power (3 dB) points
CThe side lobes
DThe antenna terminals
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

Antenna polarization refers to:

AThe antenna's physical size
BThe orientation of the electric field vector of the radiated wave
CThe antenna's operating frequency only
DThe waveguide's cutoff frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 946Ch 6 · Wave-guides and antenna

Waveguides are used mainly at microwave frequencies because at these frequencies:

ACoaxial cable losses become excessive
BWire cables become cheaper
CNo other transmission medium works at all
DAntennas cannot be used
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

An isotropic antenna is best described as:

AA physically realizable, highly directional antenna
BA hypothetical, idealized antenna radiating equally in all directions
CA type of parabolic reflector
DA waveguide mode
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

An omnidirectional antenna, such as a simple dipole, radiates:

AEqually in all three-dimensional directions
BUniformly in one plane, but not uniformly perpendicular to it
COnly in a single narrow beam
DNowhere; it does not radiate
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

Traveling wave antennas, such as the Rhombus antenna, are characterized by being:

AResonant and narrowband
BNon-resonant, terminated structures supporting a wide bandwidth
CUnable to be terminated
DUsed only at optical frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A parabolic reflector antenna is valued primarily for its:

ALow gain and simple construction only
BVery high gain, by focusing rays to/from a single feed point
CInability to be used at microwave frequencies
DOmnidirectional radiation pattern
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A corner reflector antenna uses:

AA single flat sheet only
BTwo flat sheets meeting at an angle to focus radiation
CA parabolic dish
DA helical conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A horn antenna functions primarily as a(n):

APurely resonant dipole
BFlared waveguide section matching impedance from the guide to free space
CClosed conducting loop
DDigital signal processor
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A Yagi-Uda antenna achieves high gain using:

AA single isolated element only
BA driven element plus parasitic reflector and director elements
CA parabolic dish
DA microstrip patch only
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A log-periodic antenna is notable for offering:

AVery narrow bandwidth only
BWide bandwidth with frequency-independent performance
CNo directivity at all
DOnly vertical polarization
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A helical antenna is commonly used to produce:

ALinear polarization only
BCircular polarization, useful for satellite communication
CNo radiation at all
DOnly reception, never transmission
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 946Ch 6 · Antenna's classification

A microstrip (patch) antenna is characterized by:

ABeing extremely bulky and heavy
BA low-profile, flat conductive patch on a dielectric substrate, easily integrated onto PCBs
CRequiring a parabolic dish structure
DOperating only underwater
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Ground (surface) wave propagation is dominant at which frequency range?

ALow/medium frequencies (e.g. AM broadcast)
BOptical frequencies only
CExtremely high frequencies (EHF) only
DIt is never used in practice
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Space wave propagation consists of:

AOnly a ground wave
BA direct (line-of-sight) wave combined with a ground-reflected wave
COnly an ionospheric wave
DA wave that never reaches the receiver
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Ionospheric (sky) wave propagation enables long-distance communication by:

ATraveling in a perfectly straight line only
BBeing refracted back to Earth by ionized layers of the ionosphere
CBeing absorbed completely by the atmosphere
DBouncing off the Moon
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Duct propagation (tropospheric ducting) allows a wave to:

ABe completely absorbed by the atmosphere
BTravel well beyond normal line-of-sight range, trapped within an atmospheric layer
CNever leave the transmitting antenna
DPropagate only underground
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Tropospheric scatter propagation relies on:

AReflection from the ionosphere
BScattering by irregularities/turbulence in the troposphere
CGround-wave attenuation only
DDirect line-of-sight only, with no scattering
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer is defined as:

AThe lowest frequency that can ever propagate
BThe highest frequency at which a vertically incident wave is reflected back by that layer
CThe frequency of visible light
DA frequency unrelated to the ionosphere
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Above the critical frequency, a vertically incident wave will:

AAlways be reflected back to Earth
BPenetrate through the ionospheric layer into space
CBe completely absorbed at the surface
DTravel only via ground wave
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Free space propagation is an idealized model that assumes:

ASignificant reflections and obstructions
BNo obstructions, reflections, or atmospheric effects, with power following the inverse-square law
CA ground-reflected wave dominates entirely
DSignal power increases with distance
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

Plane earth propagation modeling accounts for:

AOnly the direct wave, ignoring the ground
BInterference between the direct wave and a ground-reflected wave
COnly ionospheric refraction
DNo wave propagation at all
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 946Ch 6 · Propagation and radio frequency spectrum

The ionosphere's critical frequency varies primarily with:

AOnly the receiver's antenna gain
BTime of day, season, and solar activity
CThe transmitter's physical location on the ground only
DThe transmission line impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The activation function used in a Hopfield Network is:

ASigmoid
BReLU
CTanh
DSign (Signum)
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Machine learning using labelled training data (input-output pairs) is called:

ASupervised learning
BUnsupervised learning
CReinforcement learning
DSemi-supervised learning
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In an AI agent, which component carries out actions on the environment?

ASensors
BKnowledge base
CActuators
DInference engine
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Which UML diagram describes the vocabulary (classes and relationships) of a system?

ASequence Diagram
BClass Diagram
CUse Case Diagram
DActivity Diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

To translate a circle to a new position in 2D graphics, what must be translated?

AThe centre point only
BEvery pixel on the circumference
CThe bounding box
DThe radius
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In 2D scaling, if both scale factors sx < 1 and sy < 1, the object:

AGrows larger
BShrinks (becomes smaller)
CReflects about the origin
DStays the same size
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

How many distinct reflection planes exist in 3D space?

A3
B4
C6
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The complexity of an Artificial Neural Network primarily depends on:

ANumber of input nodes only
BTraining data size only
CNumber of hidden layers only
DAll of the above (architecture, data, training)
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

A crossword-puzzle solving environment is best described as:

APartially observable, multi-agent, stochastic
BFully observable, single-agent, deterministic
CPartially observable, single-agent, stochastic
DFully observable, multi-agent, deterministic
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

In an expert system, the component that stores all facts, rules, and domain knowledge is the:

AKnowledge Base
BInference Engine
CWorking Memory
DUser Interface
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

MYCIN, the medical expert system, used how many rules and which reasoning strategy?

A500 rules, Backward chaining
B500 rules, Forward chaining
C200 rules, Backward chaining
D1000 rules, Forward chaining
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Which concept is central to Fuzzy Logic?

ABoolean truth values
BProbability distributions
CCrisp set membership
DMembership Function (degree of truth 0–1)
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The A* search algorithm is NOT admissible when:

AThe heuristic overestimates the true cost to goal
BThe heuristic underestimates the true cost
CThe heuristic equals zero
DThe search space is finite
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

Greedy Best-First Search selects the next node to expand based on:

Ag(n) only (cost from start)
Bg(n) + h(n)
Ch(n) only (estimated cost to goal)
DBreadth from root
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The key components of a search problem in AI are:

AInitial state, goal state, and operators (transition function)
BStart node, heuristic function, and path cost only
CDatabase, inference engine, and user interface
DAgent, environment, and reward function
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The transformation matrix [[1,0,0],[0,5,0],[0,0,2]] represents:

ATranslation
BScaling
CRotation
DShearing
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

DDA stands for:

ADirect Drawing Algorithm
BDigital Differential Analyzer
CDynamic Display Adapter
DDiscrete Drawing Approach
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The OOAD methodology that features macro and micro development processes is:

ABooch Method
BRumbaugh OMT
CJacobson OOSE
DRUP
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The NLP processing pipeline in correct order is:

ATokenization → POS Tagging → Parsing → Semantic Analysis
BParsing → Tokenization → Semantic Analysis → POS Tagging
CSemantic Analysis → Tokenization → POS Tagging → Parsing
DPOS Tagging → Tokenization → Parsing → Semantic Analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 946Ch 6 · Computer Graphics & AI

The Turing Test extension that requires a robot to interact physically with the world is:

AChinese Room Test
BTotal Turing Test
CWinograd Schema Test
DCAPTCHA
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

The basic building-block chain of a communication system is:

AReceiver → Channel → Transmitter → Source
BSource → Transmitter → Channel → Receiver → Destination
CChannel → Source → Destination
DDestination → Source → Channel
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Compared to analog systems, digital communication systems offer the key advantage of:

ASimpler transmitter design only
BNoise immunity through signal regeneration
CZero bandwidth requirement
DInability to be encrypted
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) is defined as:

ANoise power divided by signal power
BSignal power divided by noise power
CThe sum of signal and noise power
DThe carrier frequency divided by bandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Thermal noise in a receiver is best classified as:

AAn external channel disturbance only
BAn internal noise source arising from the receiver's own components
CA type of modulation
DA digital coding technique
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

A digital communication system converts the message into:

AA continuously varying analog waveform only
BDiscrete symbols/bits before transmission
CPure noise
DAn unmodulated carrier
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Regeneration in a digital communication system refers to:

AAmplifying analog noise along with the signal
BDetecting and re-transmitting clean pulses at intermediate repeater points
CRemoving the need for a receiver
DConverting digital signals back to pure noise
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

The transmitter in a communication system is primarily responsible for:

ARecovering the original message
BConverting the message into a form suitable for the channel (e.g. via modulation/coding)
CGenerating random noise
DStoring the message permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Analog communication systems are generally more susceptible than digital systems to:

AEncryption failures only
BNoise accumulation along the transmission path
CBeing demodulated at all
DHaving no transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

The receiver's primary role in a communication system is to:

AIntroduce noise into the channel
BReverse the transmitter's processing to recover the original message
CGenerate the carrier signal only
DReplace the destination
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 946Ch 7 · Communications system

Noise entering a communication system primarily corrupts the signal at the:

AInformation source
BChannel
CDestination only
DIt never corrupts the signal
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

A low pass signal is characterized by significant frequency content:

AConcentrated around a high, non-zero center frequency
BConcentrated around DC (0 Hz) up to some cutoff
COnly at a single discrete frequency
DUniformly across all frequencies to infinity
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

A band pass signal is characterized by significant frequency content:

AConcentrated around DC only
BConcentrated around some non-zero center frequency, within a band
CZero at all frequencies
DPresent at negative frequencies only
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

For distortionless transmission, the system output must satisfy:

Ay(t) = x(t)²
By(t) = K·x(t−t₀)
Cy(t) = x(t) + noise only
Dy(t) is unrelated to x(t)
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

Distortionless transmission requires the system's magnitude response to be:

AHighly variable across frequency
BConstant (flat) across the signal's bandwidth
CZero everywhere
DIncreasing linearly with frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

Distortionless transmission requires the system's phase response to be:

ARandom with frequency
BLinear with frequency (constant group delay)
CExactly zero at all frequencies
DQuadratic with frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

A non-flat magnitude response in a transmission system causes:

ADelay (phase) distortion only
BAmplitude distortion
CNo distortion at all
DOnly frequency shifting
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

The Hilbert transform of a signal shifts each frequency component by:

A180°
B90°
C0° (no change)
D45° only for positive frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

The Hilbert transform is commonly used in generating:

AAM signals only
BSingle-Sideband (SSB) modulated signals
CDigital logic circuits
DPower system fault currents
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

The bandwidth of a system determines primarily:

AIts physical size
BThe maximum data rate/information content it can support
CIts cost only
DIts color/appearance
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 946Ch 7 · Representation of signals and systems in communication

An analytic signal, constructed using the Hilbert transform, is used to define:

AOnly the DC value of a signal
BInstantaneous amplitude, phase, and frequency
CThe physical bandwidth of a cable
DThe noise figure of a receiver
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

In Amplitude Modulation, the carrier's amplitude is varied in proportion to:

AThe carrier frequency
BThe message signal
CRandom noise
DThe sampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

In Frequency Modulation, the carrier's frequency spectrum consists of:

AOnly a single carrier line with no sidebands
BAn infinite number of sidebands described by Bessel functions
CExactly two sidebands only
DNo spectral content at all
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Conventional (full) AM, compared to DSB-SC, transmits:

ANo carrier at all
BThe carrier plus both sidebands
COnly one sideband
DOnly the carrier, with no sidebands
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Synchronous (coherent) detection is required for demodulating:

AConventional AM only
BDSB-SC and SSB-SC signals
CFM signals exclusively
DDigital ASK signals only
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Carson's rule is used to estimate the bandwidth of:

AAM signals
BFM signals
CASK signals
DPCM signals
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Among ASK, FSK, and PSK, which generally offers the best noise resistance?

AASK
BFSK
CPSK
DAll are identical
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Phase Shift Keying (PSK) represents digital data by varying the carrier's:

AAmplitude
BFrequency
CPhase
DBandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

M-ary data communication systems encode how many bits per symbol?

A1 bit always
Blog₂M bits
CM bits always
DNo bits; it is analog only
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Increasing M in an M-ary modulation scheme generally:

AReduces bandwidth efficiency
BImproves bandwidth efficiency but requires higher SNR for the same error rate
CHas no effect on system performance
DEliminates the need for a carrier
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 946Ch 7 · Modulation

Narrowband FM (NBFM) is characterized by a modulation index β that is:

AMuch greater than 1
BMuch less than 1
CExactly equal to infinity
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

The standard analog-to-digital communication process follows the order:

AEncoding → Sampling → Quantization
BSampling → Quantization → Encoding
CQuantization → Encoding → Sampling
DEncoding → Quantization → Sampling
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Source coding is applied primarily to:

AAdd redundancy for error correction
BRemove redundancy and reduce the number of bits required
CModulate the carrier frequency
DFilter channel noise
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) represents sampled and quantized values as:

AAnalog waveforms
BBinary codewords
CPure sine waves
DRandom noise
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Non-uniform quantization (via companding) is used primarily to:

AWorsen SNR for weak signals
BImprove SNR for low-amplitude signals by using smaller step sizes there
CEliminate quantization noise completely
DIncrease the sampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

For a uniform quantizer, the maximum quantization error is:

AEqual to the step size
BHalf the step size
CTwice the step size
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

The Shannon-Hartley theorem gives channel capacity as:

AC = B log₂(1+S/N)
BC = B/N
CC = S × N
DC = 2B
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Increasing the signal-to-noise ratio (S/N), according to Shannon-Hartley, generally:

ADecreases channel capacity
BIncreases the maximum achievable channel capacity
CHas no effect on capacity
DMakes the channel unusable
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) shares a channel among signals by dividing it in:

AFrequency
BTime
CWavelength
DAmplitude
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) is most commonly associated with:

ADigital PCM telephony exclusively
BAnalog systems, assigning each signal a distinct frequency band
COptical fiber wavelength sharing
DError correction coding
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 946Ch 7 · Digital communication systems

Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) varies the:

APulse frequency in proportion to the message
BPulse amplitude in proportion to the sampled message value
CPulse phase only
DBit error rate
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

The self-information of an event with probability p is given by:

AI = p²
BI = log₂(1/p) bits
CI = 1/p²
DI = p×log₂(p)
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Entropy of a source represents:

AThe maximum possible bit rate of any channel
BThe average information per symbol, and the theoretical minimum bits needed to represent it
CThe carrier frequency
DThe quantization step size
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Unipolar NRZ line coding is characterized by having:

ANo DC component and self-clocking
BA DC component and no self-clocking
CZero bandwidth requirement
DOnly negative pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Bipolar (AMI) line coding alternates the polarity of successive:

A0 bits
B1 bits
CAll bits equally
DOnly the first bit
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Manchester coding guarantees a signal transition:

AOnly at the start of a frame
BEvery bit interval, providing self-clocking
CNever, since it uses NRZ
DOnly for 0 bits
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI) refers to:

ANoise generated purely by the receiver
BOverlapping of adjacent symbol pulses causing detection errors
CA type of line coding
DThe channel capacity theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

The raised-cosine pulse shape is designed to achieve:

AMaximum ISI
BZero ISI at the correct sampling instants (Nyquist criterion)
CInfinite bandwidth
DNo relationship to bandwidth at all
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Which of the following is an example of a block error control code?

AConvolutional code
BHamming code
CManchester code
DRaised-cosine pulse
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Convolutional codes are typically decoded using:

AThe Viterbi algorithm
BHuffman coding
CThe Fourier transform
DCompanding
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 946Ch 7 · Baseband and band pass data communication systems

Line coding is applied primarily to:

AIncrease the noise power in a channel
BRepresent digital data as electrical pulses suitable for transmission over a physical channel
CEliminate the need for a receiver
DPerform analog modulation only
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

A random signal (stochastic process) is best described by:

AA single deterministic formula
BStatistical properties such as mean, variance, and correlation
CZero information content
DOnly its peak amplitude
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

A wide-sense stationary (WSS) process has:

AA time-varying mean and arbitrary autocorrelation
BA constant mean, with autocorrelation depending only on the time difference between samples
CNo autocorrelation at all
DInfinite variance always
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

A process is called ergodic if:

AIts time averages differ completely from ensemble averages
BIts time averages (from one sample function) equal its ensemble averages
CIt has zero mean always
DIt cannot be measured practically
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

White noise is characterized by having:

AA power spectral density that varies strongly with frequency
BA constant (flat) power spectral density across all frequencies
CZero power at all frequencies
DPower concentrated only at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

Thermal noise in a receiver is well-approximated, over practical bandwidths, as:

APerfectly periodic noise
BWhite noise
CA deterministic sine wave
DHaving zero power
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

Bandlimited white noise differs from ideal white noise in that bandlimited white noise has:

AInfinite total power
BFinite total power, due to being passed through a filter
CZero power spectral density
DNo relation to white noise at all
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

The power spectral density (PSD) of a random process describes:

AHow power is distributed across time only
BHow average power is distributed across frequency
CThe exact instantaneous value of the signal
DThe bit error rate
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

The autocorrelation function R(τ) of a WSS process measures:

AThe signal's peak amplitude
BHow similar the process is to a time-shifted version of itself
CThe channel's bandwidth
DThe quantization error
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

The Wiener-Khinchin theorem relates power spectral density to:

AThe Hilbert transform of the signal
BThe Fourier transform of the autocorrelation function
CThe channel capacity theorem
DThe quantization step size
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 946Ch 7 · Random signals and noise in communication system

For ideal white noise, the autocorrelation function is:

AConstant for all τ
BAn impulse at τ = 0, indicating samples are uncorrelated for any nonzero separation
CZero everywhere, including at τ=0
DA pure sinusoid
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which entity has its own memory space, program counter, and code segment?

AProcess
BThread
CCoroutine
DInterrupt handler
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

An OS that groups similar jobs together for batch execution is a:

AReal-time OS
BTime-sharing OS
CBatch Processing OS
DDistributed OS
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

In DBMS, which component is responsible for maintaining concurrency control?

ATransaction Manager
BBuffer Manager
CDisk Manager
DCatalog Manager
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which DBMS component estimates and minimises the cost of query execution?

AParser
BQuery Optimizer
CBuffer Manager
DCatalog
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

A semaphore in OS represents:

AA synchronisation mechanism for shared resources
BA type of scheduling algorithm
CA memory management unit
DA file system structure
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

BFS (Breadth-First Search) uses which data structure?

AStack
BQueue
CPriority Queue
DHeap
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

DFS (Depth-First Search) uses which data structure (or property)?

AQueue (FIFO)
BStack (LIFO)
CPriority Queue
DHash Table
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

For an AVL tree with 7 nodes, what is the maximum possible height?

A2
B3
C4
D7
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

Which array correctly represents a min-heap?

A[4, 3, 2, 1]
B[1, 3, 2, 4]
C[3, 1, 2, 4]
D[2, 4, 1, 3]
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The time complexity of the enqueue operation in a queue implemented with a linked list is:

AO(1)
BO(n)
CO(log n)
DO(n²)
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The average time complexity of sequential (linear) search is:

AO(1)
BO(n)
CO(log n)
DO(n²)
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 946Ch 7 · Operating Systems & DBMS

The basic classification of computer memory is:

AVolatile (RAM) and Non-volatile (ROM/Flash)
BPrimary and Secondary
CCache and Main memory
DStatic and Dynamic
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The sifting property of the unit impulse function states that:

A∫x(t)δ(t−t₀)dt = x(t₀)
B∫x(t)dt = δ(t)
Cδ(t) = x(t) always
D∫δ(t)dt = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The sinc function is the Fourier transform pair of:

AA unit impulse
BAn ideal rectangular (low pass) spectrum
CA pure sinusoid only
DWhite noise
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The impulse response of an LTI system is defined as its output when the input is:

AA unit step
BA unit impulse
CA sinusoid of infinite frequency
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The output of a continuous-time LTI system for any input is found via:

AMultiplication of input and impulse response
BConvolution of input with the impulse response
CAddition of input and impulse response
DDifferentiation of the input
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The Discrete-Time Fourier Series (DTFS), unlike the CTFS, represents a periodic signal using:

AAn infinite number of harmonics always
BA finite sum of N harmonics
CNo harmonics at all
DOnly the fundamental frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The Discrete-Time Fourier Transform (DTFT) of a sequence is always:

AAperiodic in frequency
BPeriodic in frequency with period 2π
CDefined only for finite sequences
DIdentical to the DTFS
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

Energy Spectral Density (ESD) of a signal is given by:

A|X(ω)|
B|X(ω)|²
CX(ω)³
D1/X(ω)
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

Power Spectral Density (PSD) applies most naturally to:

AFinite-energy signals only
BPower signals (with finite average power, possibly infinite energy)
COnly deterministic impulse signals
DOnly DC signals
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The Hilbert transform of a signal changes its:

AMagnitude spectrum only
BPhase by 90°, without changing the magnitude spectrum
CAmplitude to zero
DFrequency content entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 946Ch 8 · Signal and system

The signum function sgn(t) is defined as:

AAlways zero
B+1 for t>0, −1 for t<0, 0 at t=0
COnly positive values
DEqual to u(t) exactly
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

The sampling theorem states that perfect reconstruction requires the sampling rate f to satisfy:

Af < fₘₐₓ
Bf ≥ 2fₘₐₓ (the Nyquist rate)
Cf = fₘₐₓ exactly
Df = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

The linearity property of an LTI system means it obeys:

AOnly time-invariance
BSuperposition
COnly causality
DOnly BIBO stability
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

A causal system's output at any given time depends on:

AFuture inputs only
BPresent and past inputs only
CNothing at all
DOnly the system's memory-less property
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

The frequency response H(ω) of an LTI system is obtained by:

ATaking the derivative of the impulse response
BTaking the Fourier transform of the impulse response
CSquaring the input signal
DSampling the output signal
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

The impulse response of an ideal low pass filter is a:

ARectangular pulse
BSinc function
CUnit step
DDelta function
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

The step response of an ideal low pass filter exhibits:

APerfect, distortion-free transition
BOvershoot/ringing, known as the Gibbs phenomenon
CZero output at all times
DInfinite bandwidth with no distortion
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

BIBO stability of an LTI system requires that its impulse response be:

AInfinite in duration always
BAbsolutely summable/integrable
CExactly zero
DA pure sinusoid
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

For a causal discrete-time system described by a transfer function, BIBO stability requires all poles to lie:

AOutside the unit circle
BStrictly inside the unit circle in the z-plane
CExactly on the unit circle
DAt the origin only
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

Implementation of a discrete-time LTI system is typically based on:

AContinuous integration only
BA difference equation, realized with delay elements, multipliers, and adders
CRandom number generation
DOnly analog components
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 946Ch 8 · Linear time invariant system

A memoryless system's output at any time depends on:

APast and future inputs
BOnly the present input value
CNothing at all
DOnly the system's impulse response history
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The z-transform of a sequence x[n] is defined as:

AX(z) = Σx[n]zⁿ
BX(z) = Σx[n]z⁻ⁿ
CX(z) = ∫x(t)e⁻ʲωᵗdt
DX(z) = x[n]²
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The DTFT of a sequence can be obtained from its z-transform by:

ASetting z=0
BEvaluating X(z) on the unit circle (z=e^(jω))
CTaking the derivative of X(z)
DSetting z to infinity
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The Region of Convergence (ROC) of a causal sequence is typically:

AThe interior of a circle
BThe exterior of a circle (|z|>r)
CThe entire z-plane always
DA single point only
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

Convolution in the time domain corresponds, in the z-domain, to:

AAddition of z-transforms
BMultiplication of z-transforms
CDivision of z-transforms
DDifferentiation of z-transforms
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The system function H(z), evaluated on the unit circle, gives the system's:

ATransient response only
BSteady-state sinusoidal (frequency) response
CPole locations only
DTime-domain impulse response directly
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

For a causal LTI system, BIBO stability requires all poles of H(z) to lie:

AOutside the unit circle
BStrictly inside the unit circle
CExactly on the unit circle
DAt z=1 only
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) can be understood as:

AA continuous transform with no relation to the DTFT
BThe DTFT of a finite-length sequence, sampled at N discrete frequency points
COnly applicable to analog signals
DIdentical to the z-transform in all respects
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

Multiplying the DFTs of two sequences and taking the inverse DFT yields:

ATheir linear convolution
BTheir circular convolution
CTheir cross-correlation only
DZero, always
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

Sampling the DTFT in the frequency domain corresponds, in the time domain, to:

ACompressing the original sequence
BPeriodic repetition of the original sequence
CDeleting the original sequence
DNo change at all
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 946Ch 8 · Z-Transform and discrete Fourier transform

The inverse z-transform can be computed using:

AOnly numerical integration in the time domain
BPartial fraction expansion, power series expansion, or the contour integral (residue) method
COnly the sampling theorem
DOnly the Hilbert transform
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

A direct-form realization of a digital filter implements the difference equation using:

AOnly analog components
BDelay elements, multipliers, and adders
COnly a single multiplier
DNo delay elements at all
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

A key advantage of the lattice structure over direct form is:

AHigher sensitivity to coefficient quantization
BBetter numerical robustness to coefficient quantization
CInability to realize IIR filters
DRequiring no reflection coefficients
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

A lattice-ladder structure is used specifically to realize:

AOnly FIR filters
BFull IIR filters, including both poles and zeros
COnly analog filters
DOnly the DFT
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Fixed-point number representation is characterized by:

AA variable number of bits for integer/fractional parts
BA fixed number of bits allocated to integer and fractional parts, with limited dynamic range
CInfinite precision always
DRepresenting numbers as mantissa times an exponent
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Floating-point representation offers which advantage over fixed-point?

ASimpler hardware
BWider dynamic range, at the cost of more complex hardware
CNo rounding error ever
DFixed precision at all magnitudes
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Rounding error, compared to truncation error, is generally:

ABiased in one direction
BSymmetric, bounded by ±half the quantization step
CAlways larger
DImpossible to bound
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Truncation, as a finite-precision effect, produces an error that is:

ASymmetric around zero
BBiased (one-directional)
CAlways exactly zero
DLarger than rounding error in all cases
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Quantizing filter coefficients to finite precision primarily causes:

ANo change to the filter's poles/zeros
BPerturbation of the actual pole/zero locations from their ideal design values
CAutomatic improvement in filter stability
DElimination of the need for a filter structure
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

Coefficient quantization effects are especially critical for filters whose poles are located:

AFar from the unit circle
BNear the unit circle (e.g. narrow-band, high-Q filters)
CAt the origin of the z-plane
DOutside the region of convergence only
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 946Ch 8 · Implementation of discrete-time system

The conversion between direct-form coefficients and lattice reflection coefficients is typically performed using:

AA single multiplication
BA recursive algorithm (e.g. Levinson-Durbin-type recursion)
CRandom guessing
DThe sampling theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

Classical IIR filter design typically starts from:

AA random coefficient set
BA well-known analog prototype filter (e.g. Butterworth, Chebyshev)
CAn FIR filter converted directly
DA window function only
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

The impulse-invariant method for IIR design obtains the digital filter by:

ASampling the analog prototype's frequency response
BSampling the analog prototype's impulse response
CIgnoring the analog prototype entirely
DUsing only FIR techniques
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

FIR filter design by Fourier approximation computes coefficients as:

AThe derivative of the desired frequency response
BThe truncated inverse Fourier transform of the desired frequency response
CA random sequence
DThe z-transform of the input signal
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

The window function method for FIR design is used primarily to:

AIncrease ripple near band edges
BTaper the truncated impulse response, reducing ripple at the cost of a wider transition band
CEliminate the need for any filter design method
DConvert an FIR filter into an IIR filter
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

Which window is NOT commonly used in FIR filter design by the window method?

AHamming
BHanning
CBlackman
DGaussian elimination
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

The frequency sampling method for FIR design computes coefficients by:

ATaking the derivative of a specified response
BApplying the inverse DFT to a desired frequency response specified at discrete points
CRandomly selecting values
DUsing only analog components
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

The Remez exchange algorithm (Parks-McClellan) designs FIR filters by:

AMinimizing the maximum (Chebyshev/minimax) approximation error
BMaximizing the ripple in the passband
CIgnoring the stopband entirely
DUsing only a single window function
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

An equi-ripple FIR filter design distributes approximation error:

AOnly in the passband, never the stopband
BEqually across ripples in both passband and stopband
CRandomly and unevenly
DOnly at a single frequency point
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

Compared to window-based FIR design, equi-ripple (Remez) design generally achieves:

AA higher filter order for the same specifications
BA lower (more efficient) filter order for the same specifications
CIdentical results in all cases
DNo usable frequency response
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 946Ch 8 · IIR filter design and FIR filter design

A key drawback of the impulse-invariant method for IIR design is:

AComplete elimination of aliasing
BPotential aliasing in the resulting digital filter's frequency response
CInability to design any IIR filter at all
DRequiring an FIR prototype
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

A digital filter processes its input according to:

AA continuous analog equation only
BA difference equation (FIR or IIR)
CNo mathematical relationship at all
DOnly random noise addition
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

The FFT algorithm reduces the computational complexity of computing a DFT from:

AO(N) to O(N²)
BO(N²) to O(Nlog₂N)
CO(Nlog₂N) to O(N³)
DThere is no complexity reduction
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

Fast convolution using the FFT relies on the principle that:

AConvolution in time equals addition in frequency
BConvolution in time equals multiplication in frequency
CThe FFT cannot be used for convolution
DConvolution requires no transform at all
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

The FFT is commonly used in spectral analysis to:

AIncrease the signal's amplitude
BEstimate a signal's frequency content
CEliminate the need for sampling
DConvert digital signals to analog
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

Frequency-domain filtering using the FFT involves:

AMultiplying the signal's spectrum by the desired frequency response, then taking the inverse FFT
BAdding noise to the time-domain signal directly
CIgnoring the frequency response entirely
DUsing only analog filters
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing), used in modern communications, relies heavily on:

AAnalog filtering only
BFFT/IFFT processing
CDirect-form IIR filters exclusively
DManual Fourier series calculation
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

Digital filters can be implemented in which of the following ways?

AHardware (DSP/FPGA/ASIC) or software on a general-purpose processor
BOnly as purely mechanical devices
COnly using analog components
DThey cannot be implemented practically
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

Cascade (second-order sections) implementation of a digital filter is chosen mainly to improve:

AComputational speed only, with no other benefit
BNumerical robustness/reduced sensitivity to coefficient quantization
CThe filter's physical size only
DThe need for an FFT
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

The FFT enables practical frequency-domain processing mainly because it:

AIncreases computational complexity for large datasets
BMakes frequency-domain analysis of large datasets computationally feasible
CRemoves the need for any digital signal processing
DWorks only for very small datasets
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 946Ch 8 · Digital filter

2-D FFT is an application area relevant to:

AAudio-only processing
BImage processing
COnly analog telephony
DMechanical engineering exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which statement is TRUE about static member functions in C++?

AStatic functions can be overloaded
BStatic functions can access non-static members directly
CStatic functions require an object to be called
DStatic functions cannot have return values
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

For multiple inheritance in C++, how many base classes are required at minimum?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which direction flag for the seekg()/seekp() stream functions is NOT valid in C++?

Aios::beg
Bios::cur
Cios::end
Dios::set
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

When does the Spiral Model of software development terminate?

AAfter the first prototype
BAfter all requirements are met
CAfter a fixed number of iterations
DWhen the product is cancelled or dies
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

SQA (Software Quality Assurance) combined with SQM (Software Quality Management) forms:

ASoftware Testing
BSoftware Verification
CSoftware Configuration Management
DSoftware Quality Processes
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Software is best defined as:

AA set of executable programs only
BA set of programs, associated documentation, and configuration data
CHardware instructions stored in ROM
DAn operating system and its utilities
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

A Use Case describes interaction between:

AClasses and objects
BModules and components
CActor and the system (product)
DDatabase and application
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

CASE (Computer-Aided Software Engineering) tools are primarily used for:

AOnly code compilation
BOnly testing
CSupporting all phases of software development and project management
DDatabase administration only
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Vertical lines (lifelines) in a UML Sequence Diagram represent:

AMethod calls
BObjects or actors
CTime intervals
DReturn values
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

In C++ templates, in the declaration template <class T>, T represents:

AA specific class name
BA template type parameter (placeholder for any type)
CA typedef alias
DA global variable
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The primary purpose of C++ namespaces is to:

AAvoid naming conflicts and encapsulate code
BSpeed up compilation
CReplace header files
DManage memory allocation
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Runtime polymorphism (late binding) in C++ is achieved through:

AFunction overloading
BVirtual functions
COperator overloading
DTemplates
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The three main phases of Object-Oriented development are:

AAnalysis, Design, and Implementation
BRequirements, Coding, and Testing
CPlanning, Execution, and Closure
DModelling, Prototyping, and Deployment
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which SDLC model explicitly pairs each development phase with a testing phase in a V-shape?

AWaterfall Model
BV-Model (Verification and Validation)
CSpiral Model
DAgile Model
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Version control systems are used primarily to:

ACompile source code
BTrack and manage multiple versions of code and files
CDebug runtime errors
DManage database schemas
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The arrow notation in UML represents which relationship?

AAssociation
BAggregation
CGeneralisation (Inheritance)
DDependency
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Which C/C++ keyword CANNOT be used as an identifier (variable name)?

Awhile
Bcount
Cvalue
Ddata
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

The operator used to access a member of a structure through a pointer in C is:

A.
B->
C::
D*
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 946Ch 8 · Software Engineering & OOP

Given classes A, B: public A, C: public B, the type of inheritance demonstrated is:

AMultiple inheritance
BMultilevel inheritance
CHierarchical inheritance
DHybrid inheritance
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

The first generation (1G) of mobile telecommunication systems was characterized by:

ADigital voice and SMS
BAnalog voice transmission only
CAll-IP packet data
DMassive MIMO and mmWave
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

2G mobile systems (e.g. GSM, CDMA) introduced which major advancement over 1G?

AAnalog transmission
BDigital transmission with voice and low-rate data (SMS)
CTerahertz frequency bands
DOptical fibre backhaul only
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

4G (LTE/LTE-Advanced) networks are distinguished by being:

ACircuit-switched voice only
BAll-IP, OFDMA-based mobile broadband
CPurely analog
DLimited to 1G-level data rates
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

5G networks primarily add which new capability compared to 4G?

AAnalog voice only
BMassive machine-type communication and ultra-reliable low-latency communication (URLLC)
CRemoval of mobile broadband
DExclusive use of twisted-pair cable
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

Which transmission medium offers the highest bandwidth and lowest attenuation for long-haul telecommunication backbones?

ATwisted pair copper cable
BCoaxial cable
COptical fibre
DOpen wire lines
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

Twisted pair copper cable is most commonly associated with:

ALong-haul submarine links
BThe local loop/telephone access network
CDeep-space satellite communication
D5G mmWave backhaul
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

A key advantage of wireless/radio transmission media over wired media is:

AZero propagation loss
BSupport for user mobility without a physical medium
CComplete immunity to interference
DNo need for spectrum regulation
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

The evolution of telecommunication historically began with:

AThe internet
BThe electrical telegraph
C5G cellular networks
DOptical fibre
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

Which of the following is a future trend in telecommunication networks?

AAbandoning digital transmission
BNetwork function virtualization (NFV) and software-defined networking (SDN)
CElimination of mobile broadband
DReturning to analog-only systems
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 946Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its evolution

Coaxial cable, compared to twisted pair, generally offers:

ALower bandwidth
BHigher bandwidth and better shielding
CNo use in telecommunication
DOnly wireless connectivity
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

The free space propagation model assumes received power decreases with distance d as:

A1/d
B1/d²
C1/d³
DIndependent of d
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Diffraction in radio propagation refers to:

AReflection off a large smooth surface
BBending of waves around an obstacle's edge, reaching shadow regions
CScattering from rough surfaces only
DComplete absorption of the signal
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Scattering occurs when a radio wave encounters an object that is:

AMuch larger than the wavelength and smooth
BComparable to or smaller than the wavelength (e.g. rough surfaces, foliage)
CPerfectly absorbing
DLocated exactly at the transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

The Rayleigh fading model is typically applied when:

AA strong line-of-sight component exists
BThere is no dominant line-of-sight signal component
CThe channel is completely static
DOnly free-space propagation occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

The cellular concept increases system capacity mainly by:

AUsing a single very powerful transmitter for the whole area
BReusing the same frequencies in non-adjacent cells
CEliminating the need for base stations
DUsing only one channel for all users
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Handover (handoff) in a cellular network refers to:

ATerminating a call when signal quality drops
BTransferring an ongoing call from one cell/base station to another as the user moves
CAssigning a fixed channel permanently to a user
DSwitching off the mobile device
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Cell splitting is used to:

AReduce the number of base stations
BSubdivide a congested cell into smaller cells with reduced transmit power, increasing capacity
CIncrease the cell radius indefinitely
DEliminate frequency reuse
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Cell sectoring improves system performance mainly by:

AUsing an omnidirectional antenna only
BUsing directional antennas to reduce co-channel interference and improve frequency reuse
CRemoving the need for channel assignment
DIncreasing cell size
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

A key difference between fixed and dynamic channel assignment strategies is:

AFixed assignment allocates channels flexibly in real time
BDynamic assignment allocates channels based on real-time demand, while fixed assignment uses a pre-set allocation
CBoth are identical in all respects
DDynamic assignment is used only for 1G systems
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 946Ch 9 · Cellular network

Which propagation mechanism explains why a signal can be received even when there is no direct line-of-sight path to the transmitter?

AFree space propagation only
BDiffraction
COnly reflection from the ionosphere
DNone; signal is impossible without LOS
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Equalization in a wireless receiver is primarily used to:

AIncrease transmit power
BCompensate for inter-symbol interference (ISI) caused by a multipath channel
CGenerate the carrier signal
DEliminate the need for an antenna
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Diversity techniques combat fading by:

AUsing only a single signal path
BProviding multiple, ideally independently-faded copies of the same signal
CIncreasing the transmitted data rate
DEliminating multipath entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Space diversity is achieved by:

ATransmitting at different times
BUsing multiple physically separated antennas
CUsing different frequency channels
DIncreasing the code rate
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Spread spectrum modulation spreads a signal's energy over a bandwidth that is:

ANarrower than the minimum required
BMuch wider than strictly necessary for the data rate
CExactly equal to the data bandwidth
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) achieves spreading by:

AHopping the carrier frequency rapidly
BMultiplying the data signal by a high-rate pseudo-random noise (PN) code
CUsing multiple antennas only
DReducing the symbol rate to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) operates by:

AKeeping the carrier frequency fixed at all times
BRapidly switching the carrier frequency among channels per a pseudo-random sequence
CUsing only a single fixed time slot
DEliminating the carrier entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

In TDMA, multiple users are separated by:

ADifferent frequency bands
BDifferent, dedicated time slots within a shared frequency channel
CDifferent spreading codes only
DDifferent antenna polarizations only
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

In CDMA, users sharing the same time and frequency are distinguished by:

ADifferent time slots
BUnique orthogonal/near-orthogonal spreading codes
CDifferent antenna heights
DDifferent modulation index values
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

OFDMA, used in systems such as LTE/5G, allocates resources to users based on:

ADedicated analog frequency bands only
BOrthogonal narrowband subcarriers
CA single shared time slot for all users
DRandom unassigned resources
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 946Ch 9 · Signal and system

Time diversity combats fading by:

AUsing multiple antennas at different locations
BTransmitting the same information at different time instants so fades are decorrelated
CUsing a single frequency channel only
DReducing the transmitted power to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Digital (time-division) switching operates by:

APhysically connecting circuits via a crossbar matrix only
BSwitching digitized time slots between input and output, using techniques such as TSI/TST
CIgnoring the concept of time slots entirely
DOnly handling analog voice directly
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Circuit switching is characterized by:

AData broken into independently-routed packets
BA dedicated end-to-end path established for the entire call/session duration
CNo connection setup phase at all
DSharing a single path randomly among all users
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Packet switching, compared to circuit switching, is characterized by:

AA single dedicated path for the full call duration
BData broken into packets, each routed independently and sharing links among many users
CNo routing required
DExclusive use for analog telephony
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

A softswitch primarily separates:

AVoice from video
BCall-control/signaling functions from the physical media-transport (bearer) function
CAnalog from digital voice only
DRouting from addressing
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Traditional hardware-based circuit switches, compared to softswitches, typically have:

AControl and transport functions fully separated
BControl and transport functions tightly integrated in hardware
CNo signaling function at all
DOnly packet-based operation
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Routing in a telecommunication network refers to:

AEncoding voice into digital time slots
BSelecting a path through the network for a call or data packet
CEstablishing billing records only
DConverting analog signals to digital
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Signaling in a telecommunication network refers to the exchange of:

AUser voice/data content itself
BControl information needed to set up, maintain, and release a connection
COnly billing invoices
DPhysical layer cabling specifications
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Common-channel signaling (e.g. SS7) differs from in-band signaling in that it:

AUses the same channel as the voice/data traffic
BUses a separate, dedicated signaling channel
CRequires no signaling at all
DIs only usable in analog networks
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Analog (space-division) switching physically connects circuits using:

ADigital time-slot interchange
BA matrix of electromechanical or crossbar switches
CPacket routing tables
DOnly software-based control
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 946Ch 9 · Switching systems

Which switching approach is best suited to bursty data traffic shared efficiently among many users?

ACircuit switching
BPacket switching
CSpace-division switching only
DAnalog switching only
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

The 'busy hour' in teletraffic engineering refers to:

AThe hour with the least traffic
BThe continuous 60-minute period of highest traffic volume/intensity
CA fixed hour that never changes
DOnly the hour of network maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Traffic intensity in a telecommunication network is typically measured in:

AWatts
BErlangs
CDecibels
DHertz
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Grade of Service (GoS) represents:

AThe average call duration
BThe probability that a call is blocked or delayed beyond an acceptable time during the busy hour
CThe total network bandwidth
DThe number of base stations in a network
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Common channel signaling (CCS), such as SS7, uses:

AThe same channel as voice traffic for signaling
BA dedicated signaling channel separate from traffic-bearing channels
CNo signaling channel at all
DOnly analog signaling tones
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is characterized by:

ACarrying only analog voice
BCarrying voice, data, and other services over standardized B and D digital channels
CUsing exclusively packet switching
DHaving no signaling channel
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

For continuous, delay-sensitive traffic such as voice, which switching approach is traditionally best suited?

APacket switching
BCircuit switching
CNo switching at all
DOnly common channel signaling
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Packet switching is generally preferred over circuit switching for:

AContinuous voice calls only
BBursty data traffic, enabling efficient sharing of scarce wireless spectrum
CEliminating the need for routing
DOnly satellite links
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Modern personal communication networks (PCN)/mobile systems increasingly carry even voice traffic using:

APure analog circuit switching
BAll-IP packet switching (e.g. VoIP/VoLTE)
CTelegraph signaling
DNo switching mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

A protocol for network access defines:

AThe billing structure of a network operator
BThe rules/procedures a device follows to gain access to and communicate over the network
COnly the physical dimensions of network cables
DThe color coding of network cables
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 946Ch 9 · Traffic engineering

Service levels in traffic engineering define:

ARandom, undefined performance
BPerformance targets (e.g. blocking probability, delay) a network must meet for acceptable quality of service
COnly the physical layout of switches
DThe color of signaling lamps
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is best described as:

AA private telecom equipment manufacturer
BA specialized United Nations agency coordinating global telecom standards and spectrum/orbit allocation
CNepal's national telecom regulator
DA mobile network operator
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

Which ITU sector is primarily responsible for radiocommunication matters, including spectrum management?

AITU-T
BITU-R
CITU-D
DITU-X
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Question 851 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

In Nepal, the autonomous body responsible for telecom licensing, spectrum allocation, and QoS enforcement is:

AThe Ministry of Communication and Information
BThe Nepal Telecommunication Authority (NTA)
CThe International Telecommunication Union
DA private mobile operator
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Question 852 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

The Ministry of Communication and Information (Technology) in Nepal is primarily responsible for:

ADay-to-day spectrum licensing of individual operators
BFormulating national telecommunication/ICT policy and sector governance
CManufacturing telecom equipment
DOperating mobile base stations
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Question 853 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

The national frequency allocation plan serves to:

ARandomly assign frequencies with no coordination
BSpecify which frequency bands are allocated to which services within the country, aligned with ITU allocations
CBan all wireless communication
DOnly apply to television broadcasting
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Question 854 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

The Radio Act in Nepal primarily governs:

AInternational trade tariffs
BThe establishment, operation, and licensing of radio communication equipment and services
CUniversity curricula
DPostal services only
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Question 855 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

International coordination of telecommunication standards and spectrum is primarily achieved through:

AIndividual national ministries acting alone
BThe International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
CPrivate equipment vendors
DNo coordination is needed
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Question 856 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

Nepal's telecom regulatory framework operates at which levels?

AOnly at the international (ITU) level
BBoth international (ITU) coordination and national implementation (NTA, Ministry, Radio Act, frequency plan)
COnly at the municipal level
DNo regulation exists
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Question 857 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

Setting tariff and interconnection rules for telecom operators in Nepal falls primarily under the role of:

AThe ITU
BThe Nepal Telecommunication Authority (NTA)
CIndividual equipment manufacturers
DThe Radio Act exclusively
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Question 858 of 946Ch 9 · Rules and regulations

ITU-T, one of the ITU's three sectors, focuses primarily on:

ARadiocommunication spectrum allocation
BTelecommunication standardization
CDevelopment assistance to developing countries only
DNational frequency plans
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Question 859 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Fourier Transform is used to:

AConvert a signal from the time domain to the frequency domain
BConvert a signal from the frequency domain to the time domain
CCompress digital signals
DEncrypt data transmissions
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Question 860 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

When a square wave is applied to an integrator op-amp circuit, the output is:

ASquare wave
BSine wave
CTriangle wave
DSawtooth wave
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Question 861 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Z-transform is primarily used for:

AAnalysing continuous-time signals
BAnalysing discrete-time signals and systems
CImage compression
DFrequency modulation
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Question 862 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Interleaving in digital communications provides what type of diversity?

ATime diversity
BFrequency diversity
CSpace diversity
DPolarization diversity
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Question 863 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In FDM, increasing the modulation index results in:

ADecreased bandwidth requirements
BIncreased bandwidth requirements
CNo change in bandwidth
DIncreased signal-to-noise ratio without bandwidth change
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Question 864 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Adding zeros to the end of a discrete signal before taking its DFT is called:

AZero Padding
BWindowing
CDecimation
DInterpolation
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Question 865 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In TDM (Time Division Multiplexing), the component essential for recovering individual channels at the receiver is:

AEqualizer
BFrame synchronization
CBandwidth filter
DDemodulator
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Question 866 of 946Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In a common-collector (emitter follower) BJT amplifier, the phase relationship between input and output is:

A180 degrees (inverted)
B90 degrees
C0 degrees (in phase)
D45 degrees
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Question 867 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

In an isometric projection, the three axes are drawn at:

A90 degrees
B120 degrees
C45 degrees
D60 degrees
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Question 868 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A scale of 1:2 means the drawing is:

ATwice the object size
BHalf the object size
CEqual to the object
DFour times the size
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Question 869 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Hidden edges in an engineering drawing are shown using:

AContinuous thick lines
BDashed lines
CCentre lines
DDimension lines
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Question 870 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Which projection shows true dimensions using front, top and side views?

AIsometric
BOrthographic
CPerspective
DOblique
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Question 871 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Which standard drawing sheet size is the largest?

AA4
BA2
CA0
DA1
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Question 872 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A sectional view is used to show:

AThe exterior only
BInternal features of an object
CColor
DMaterial cost
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Question 873 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A scale of 2:1 indicates the drawing is:

AHalf size
BFull size
CEnlarged (twice the object)
DOne quarter size
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Question 874 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Nepal and most of Europe use which projection system?

AThird-angle
BFirst-angle
CIsometric only
DOblique only
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Question 875 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

Centre lines in a drawing are typically shown as:

AThick continuous lines
BChain (dash-dot) lines
CDashed lines
DWavy lines
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Question 876 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and its Concepts

A pictorial projection primarily provides:

AA 2D multiview
BA 3D-like single view of the object
CCost data
DA circuit diagram
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Question 877 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The principle that money available now is worth more than the same amount later is the:

AInflation rate
BTime value of money
CDepreciation
DSalvage value
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Question 878 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is generally acceptable if its Net Present Value (NPV) is:

ALess than zero
BEqual to zero
CGreater than zero
DNegative
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Question 879 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate at which NPV equals:

AOne
BZero
CInfinity
DThe investment
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Question 880 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The compound interest future value formula is:

AF = P + i + n
BF = P(1 + i)ⁿ
CF = P·i·n
DF = P / n
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Question 881 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR stands for:

AMaximum Allowed Return Rate
BMinimum Acceptable Rate of Return
CMean Average Return Rate
DMarginal Asset Recovery Rate
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Question 882 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The payback period measures the time required to:

ADouble the investment
BRecover the initial investment
CPay taxes
DDepreciate fully
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Question 883 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Straight-line depreciation is calculated as:

A(Cost + Salvage) / Life
B(Cost − Salvage) / Useful life
CCost × Life
DCost / Salvage
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Question 884 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project with an IRR greater than the MARR should generally be:

ARejected
BAccepted
CIgnored
DDelayed indefinitely
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Question 885 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A benefit-cost (B/C) ratio greater than 1 indicates the project is:

AUnacceptable
BEconomically acceptable
CBreak-even only
DLoss-making
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Question 886 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The decrease in the value of an asset over time is called:

AAppreciation
BDepreciation
CInflation
DInterest
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Question 887 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A horizontal bar chart used to show a project schedule is a:

APERT chart
BGantt chart
CPie chart
DFlow chart
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Question 888 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path in a project network is the:

AShortest path
BLongest path determining minimum duration
CCheapest path
DPath with most resources
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Question 889 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Tasks on the critical path have a float (slack) of:

AMaximum
BZero
COne day
DNegative
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Question 890 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT uses how many time estimates for each activity?

AOne
BTwo
CThree
DFour
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Question 891 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The PERT expected time is calculated as:

A(O + M + P)/3
B(O + 4M + P)/6
C(O + P)/2
DO × M × P
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Question 892 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Which technique is deterministic (uses single time estimates)?

APERT
BCPM
CMonte Carlo
DGantt only
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Question 893 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Float (slack) is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without:

AIncreasing cost
BDelaying the project
CAdding resources
DChanging scope
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Question 894 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The final phase of the project life cycle is:

AInitiation
BPlanning
CExecution
DClosure
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Question 895 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is best described as a ____ scheduling technique.

ADeterministic
BProbabilistic
CFinancial
DGraphical only
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Question 896 of 946Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Smoothing resource usage over the project duration is called:

ACrashing
BResource levelling
CFast-tracking
DOutsourcing
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Question 897 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

The triple constraint (iron triangle) of project management consists of:

AScope, Time, Cost
BPeople, Process, Product
CRisk, Reward, Resource
DPlan, Do, Check
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Question 898 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A formal invitation to contractors to submit bids is called a:

AContract
BTender
CWarranty
DLicense
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Question 899 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Transferring a risk to a third party (e.g., insurance) is a risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CAcceptance
DMitigation
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Question 900 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A legally binding agreement between client and contractor is a:

ATender
BContract
CBid
DNotice
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Question 901 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

In a lump-sum contract, the contractor is paid:

APer unit of work
BA fixed total price
CCost plus a fee
DHourly only
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Question 902 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Which is NOT a standard risk response strategy?

AAvoid
BTransfer
CMitigate
DIgnore permanently
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Question 903 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

The first step in risk management is to:

ARespond to risk
BIdentify risks
CClose the project
DSign the contract
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Question 904 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

In project management, quality typically sits:

AOutside the triangle
BAt the centre of the triple constraint
CAbove scope only
DBelow cost only
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Question 905 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

A cost-plus contract pays the contractor:

AA fixed lump sum
BActual cost plus an agreed fee
CPer item rate only
DNothing until completion
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Question 906 of 946Ch 10 · Project Management

Evaluating submitted bids to select a contractor is part of the:

AClosure phase
BTender/procurement process
CDepreciation calculation
DDrawing process
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Question 907 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The paramount obligation of an engineer is to:

AMaximise profit
BHold public safety, health and welfare paramount
CPlease the employer
DFinish quickly
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Question 908 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

EIA in engineering practice stands for:

AEngineering Investment Analysis
BEnvironmental Impact Assessment
CEconomic Inflation Adjustment
DElectrical Installation Audit
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Question 909 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Meeting present needs without compromising future generations defines:

ADepreciation
BSustainable development
COutsourcing
DPrivatisation
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Question 910 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer should practise:

AIn any field regardless of training
BOnly within their area of competence
CWithout regulation
DOnly for profit
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Question 911 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

OHS in the workplace stands for:

AOffice Hardware Standards
BOccupational Health and Safety
COperational Hazard System
DOverhead Service
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Question 912 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

NEA stands for:

ANepal Electricity Authority
BNepal Engineers' Association
CNational Engineering Audit
DNepal Energy Agency
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Question 913 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A situation where personal interest conflicts with professional duty is a:

AConflict of interest
BSustainable practice
CTender
DContract
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Question 914 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Offering or accepting bribes in engineering practice is:

AAcceptable if small
BUnethical and prohibited
CEncouraged
DRequired
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Question 915 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Engineering ethics primarily deals with:

AProfit maximisation
BMoral principles governing professional conduct
CTax calculation
DDrawing scales
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Question 916 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Maintaining client confidentiality is:

AOptional
BAn ethical responsibility of the engineer
CIllegal
DOnly for managers
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Question 917 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the NEC Act:

A2050
B2055
C2060
D2047
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Question 918 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Which body is the statutory regulator of engineering practice in Nepal?

ANEA
BNEC
CCIAA
DNRB
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Question 919 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

To legally practise as an engineer in Nepal, one must be:

AA member of NEA only
BRegistered/licensed with NEC
COver 30 years old
DA government employee
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Question 920 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Which examination does the NEC conduct?

AUniversity entrance
BRegistration (licence) examination
CCivil service exam
DScholarship exam
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Question 921 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The main difference between NEC and NEA is that NEC is a:

AProfessional association
BStatutory regulatory body
CPrivate company
DBank
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Question 922 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

A registered engineer who violates the code of conduct may face:

AA promotion
BSuspension or cancellation of registration
CA tax refund
DNothing
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Question 923 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Maintaining professional standards and recognising qualifications is a function of the:

ANEA
BNEC
CMinistry of Finance
DLocal municipality
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Question 924 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The NEC primarily regulates:

AEngineering education and professional practice
BBanking
CAgriculture
DTourism
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Question 925 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

Registration with NEC is:

AOptional for all engineers
BMandatory to practise engineering in Nepal
COnly for foreigners
DOnly for students
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Question 926 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body — NEC Acts & Regulations

The NEC code of ethics binds:

AOnly government engineers
BAll registered engineers
COnly contractors
DOnly students
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Question 927 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
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Question 928 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
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Question 929 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
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Question 930 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
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Question 931 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
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Question 932 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
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Question 933 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
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Question 934 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
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Question 935 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
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Question 936 of 946Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
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Question 937 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
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Question 938 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 939 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
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Question 940 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
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Question 941 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
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Question 942 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
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Question 943 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
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Question 944 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
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Question 945 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
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Question 946 of 946Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
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