AExE/All MCQs
← Back to AExE
🎯

All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering

10 Chapters·1059 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Ohm’s law relates voltage and current through the:

APower
BResistance
CEnergy
DCharge
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

The SI unit of electric charge is the:

AAmpere
BCoulomb
CVolt
DJoule
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

For three equal resistors R connected in delta, the equivalent star resistance per arm is:

A3R
BR/3
CR
DR/9
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

In a parallel circuit, the quantity common to all branches is:

ACurrent
BVoltage
CPower
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Copper is classified as a:

AInsulator
BConductor
CSemiconductor
DDielectric
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

A non-linear circuit element is one that:

AObeys Ohm’s law strictly
BHas V directly proportional to I
CDoes not obey superposition
DIs always passive
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Three 9 Ω resistors connected in delta give an equivalent star resistance per arm of:

A27 Ω
B9 Ω
C3 Ω
D1 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Electrical energy is billed commercially in units of:

AJoule
BWatt
CkWh
DCoulomb
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

A circuit element that conducts equally well in both directions is called:

AUnilateral
BBilateral
CActive
DNon-linear
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

According to KVL, the algebraic sum of voltages around a closed loop is:

AMaximum
BZero
CEqual to source voltage
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Superposition theorem is applicable only to:

ALinear circuits
BNon-linear circuits
CCircuits with diodes only
DDC circuits only
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Thevenin’s equivalent circuit consists of a voltage source in series with a:

ACapacitor
BResistance
CInductor
DCurrent source
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Norton’s theorem represents a network as a current source in parallel with a:

AVoltage source
BResistance
CCapacitor
DDiode
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Maximum power is transferred to the load when the load resistance equals the:

AZero
BSource (Thevenin) resistance
CInfinite resistance
DHalf the source resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

In an R-L series circuit, the current:

ALeads voltage
BLags voltage
CIs in phase with voltage
DLeads by 90°
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

The phase angle of an R-C series circuit is given by:

Atan¹⁻(Xₗ/R)
Btan¹⁻(XC/R)
Ctan¹⁻(R/XC)
Dtan¹⁻(Xₗ·XC)
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

At series resonance, the circuit impedance is:

AMaximum
BMinimum, equal to R
CZero
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

At parallel resonance, the line current drawn from the source is:

AMaximum
BMinimum
CZero
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

The quality factor Q of a series RLC circuit is given by:

AR/ωL
BωL/R
CωRL
D1/(ωRL)
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 1059Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Active (real) power in an AC circuit is measured in:

AVAR
BVA
CWatt
DOhm
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

AC voltage is generated based on:

AOhm’s law
BFaraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
CCoulomb’s law
DKirchhoff’s law
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of a sinusoidal voltage with peak Vm is:

AVm
B0.707 Vm
C0.637 Vm
D1.414 Vm
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The average value of a full sine wave over one complete cycle is:

A0.637 Vm
B0.707 Vm
CVm
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The form factor of a sinusoidal waveform equals:

A1.11
B1.414
C0.707
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a balanced star-connected 3-phase system with phase voltage 230 V, the line voltage is approximately:

A230 V
B400 V
C115 V
D690 V
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta connection, the phase difference between line current and phase current is:

A0°
B30°
C90°
D120°
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The peak factor (crest factor) of a sine wave is defined as:

ARMS/Average
BPeak/RMS
CAverage/Peak
DPeak/Average
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The standard power supply frequency used in Nepal is:

A60 Hz
B50 Hz
C25 Hz
D100 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Star connection is preferred for long-distance power transmission mainly because it provides:

ALower phase voltage for a given line voltage
BHigher line current
CNo neutral wire needed
DHigher power factor
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 1059Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta-connected system, the relationship between line and phase voltage is:

AVline = √3 × Vₚₕₐₛₑ
BVline = Vₚₕₐₛₑ
CVline = Vₚₕₐₛₑ/√3
DVline = 3 × Vₚₕₐₛₑ
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A semiconductor diode conducts significant current when forward biased beyond:

AThe breakdown voltage
BThe cut-in (knee) voltage
CZero volts exactly
DThe Zener voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In reverse bias, a diode ideally allows:

AFull forward current
BOnly a small leakage/saturation current until breakdown
CInfinite current
DCurrent equal to forward bias current
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The Common Emitter (CE) BJT configuration is most widely used because it offers:

AVoltage gain of unity only
BHigh voltage and current gain suitable for amplification
CThe lowest possible input impedance
DNo phase inversion
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The Common Collector (CC) configuration, also called an emitter follower, has a voltage gain of approximately:

A100
B10
C1
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Voltage-divider (self) bias is preferred in BJT circuits mainly because it provides:

AThe lowest cost only
BBest Q-point stability against β and temperature variation
CMaximum possible gain
DNo need for resistors
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A small-signal model of a transistor is used when:

ASignal swings are very large
BSignal excursions are small around the Q-point
CThe transistor is in cutoff only
DNo biasing is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A MOSFET is fundamentally a:

ACurrent-controlled device
BVoltage-controlled device
CPurely resistive device
DDevice with no gate terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An enhancement-mode MOSFET has a conducting channel:

APresent at VGS = 0
BAbsent at VGS = 0, requiring VGS beyond threshold to form it
CPermanently present regardless of gate voltage
DOnly in reverse bias
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

CMOS technology is valued in digital ICs primarily for its:

AHigh static power dissipation
BNear-zero static power dissipation
CRequirement for only NMOS transistors
DInability to switch states
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 1059Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The gate terminal of a MOSFET is characterized by:

AVery low input impedance
BVery high input impedance due to the insulated gate
CDirect ohmic contact with the channel
DCarrying the full drain current
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillation requires the loop gain magnitude to be:

ALess than 1
BEqual to 1
CGreater than 2
DEqual to 0
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

An oscillator generates a periodic output using:

AAn external AC input signal
BPositive feedback and a frequency-selective network
CNegative feedback only
DNo feedback at all
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

RC oscillators (e.g. Wien bridge, phase-shift) are typically used for generating frequencies in the:

ARadio-frequency (RF) range only
BAudio-frequency range
CGamma-ray range
DMicrowave range
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

LC oscillators such as Hartley and Colpitts are typically used for:

AAudio-frequency generation only
BRadio-frequency (RF) generation
CDC signal generation
DDigital logic operations
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Hartley oscillator uses which feedback network configuration?

AA tapped capacitor with a single inductor
BA tapped inductor (or two inductors) with a common capacitor
CA crystal resonator
DAn RC phase-shift network
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Colpitts oscillator uses which feedback network configuration?

AA tapped inductor with a common capacitor
BA tapped capacitor (two capacitors in series) with a single inductor
COnly resistors
DA crystal resonator exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

Crystal oscillators are preferred where high frequency stability is essential because:

AQuartz crystals have a very low quality factor
BQuartz crystals exhibit stable piezoelectric mechanical resonance with very high Q
CThey require no power supply
DThey only work at audio frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

A 555 timer IC configured as an astable multivibrator is commonly used to generate:

APure sine waves only
BSquare/pulse waveforms
CDC voltage only
DCrystal-controlled RF signals
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

A function generator, as a laboratory instrument, is capable of producing:

AOnly a fixed single frequency
BMultiple waveform shapes (sine, square, triangular) over adjustable frequencies
COnly DC signals
DOnly digital logic levels
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 1059Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

For sustained (steady-amplitude) oscillation, the total phase shift around the feedback loop must equal:

A90°
B45°
C0° (or a multiple of 360°)
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A Class A amplifier output stage conducts for:

AThe full 360° of the input cycle
BExactly 180° of the input cycle
CLess than 90° of the input cycle
DOnly during the negative half-cycle
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The main drawback of a Class B push-pull amplifier is:

AVery low efficiency
BCrossover distortion near the zero-crossing point
CInability to amplify at all
DExcessive heat dissipation at idle
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

Class AB biasing is used mainly to:

AMaximize distortion
BReduce crossover distortion while retaining good efficiency
CEliminate the need for any bias current
DReduce output power to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The theoretical maximum efficiency of a Class B amplifier is approximately:

A25%
B50%
C78.5%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A transformer-coupled push-pull output stage is valued because it:

AIncreases distortion
BEliminates the DC component in the output and offers good efficiency
CCannot handle AC signals
DRequires no heat-sinking for power devices
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

Power BJTs require careful heat-sinking primarily to avoid:

AReduced input impedance
BThermal runaway
CIncreased frequency response
DCrossover distortion
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A tuned amplifier achieves high gain over a narrow frequency band by using:

AA resistive load only
BAn LC resonant (tank) circuit as its load
CA capacitor-only load
DNo load at all
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

An ideal operational amplifier is characterized by:

AFinite gain and zero input impedance
BInfinite open-loop gain, infinite input impedance, and zero output impedance
CZero gain and infinite output impedance
DNegative input impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The 'virtual short' concept in op-amp analysis applies when:

AThe op-amp has no feedback
BNegative feedback is applied, making both input terminals assume the same voltage
CThe op-amp is saturated
DPositive feedback is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 1059Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A voltage follower (buffer) op-amp configuration provides:

AHigh voltage gain with phase inversion
BUnity voltage gain with high input and low output impedance
CInfinite voltage gain
DZero input impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

At DC steady state, an inductor behaves as a(n):

AOpen circuit
BShort circuit
CResistor
DCapacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

At DC steady state, a capacitor behaves as a(n):

AShort circuit
BOpen circuit
CInductor
DBattery
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The time constant of a series R-L circuit is:

ARC
BL/R
CR/L
D1/RC
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The time constant of a series R-C circuit is:

AL/R
BRC
CR/C
D1/(RC)
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

A transient is considered practically complete after about:

A1τ
B2τ
C5τ
D10τ
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

In a series RLC circuit, the damping factor α is given by:

AR/2L
B1/√(LC)
C2L/R
D√(LC)
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The undamped natural frequency of a series RLC circuit is:

AR/2L
B1/√(LC)
CL/C
DRC
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

If α > ω₀ in a series RLC circuit, the response is:

AUnderdamped
BCritically damped
COverdamped
DUndamped
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

A critically damped response occurs when:

Aα < ω₀
Bα = ω₀
Cα > ω₀
Dα = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 1059Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

During capacitor charging through a resistor from DC source V, the current at t = 0⁺ is:

AZero
BV/R
CInfinite
DV × R
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The roots of the numerator polynomial of a network function are called:

APoles
BZeros
CRoots of unity
DResidues
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The roots of the denominator polynomial of a network function are called:

APoles
BZeros
CCoefficients
DNodes
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a stable network, all poles of the transfer function must lie in the:

ARight-half s-plane
BLeft-half s-plane
COn the jω axis only
DAt the origin
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Z-parameters are also known as:

AShort-circuit admittance parameters
BOpen-circuit impedance parameters
CHybrid parameters
DTransmission parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Y-parameters are obtained by:

AOpen-circuiting a port
BShort-circuiting a port
CMatching the load
DGrounding both ports
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a reciprocal two-port network, the Z-parameters satisfy:

AZ11 = Z22
BZ12 = Z21
CZ12 = −Z21
DZ11 = Z12
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

ABCD (transmission) parameters are most useful for analyzing networks connected in:

AParallel
BCascade
CSeries
DNeither
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Hybrid (h) parameters are commonly used to model:

ATransformers
BTransistors
CTransmission lines
DFilters
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

When two two-port networks are connected in series, the overall parameters are found by adding:

AY-parameters
BZ-parameters
CABCD parameters
Dh-parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 1059Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A one-port network is fully characterized by its driving-point:

ATransfer function
BImpedance (or admittance)
CABCD matrix
Dh-parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A polynomial is called Hurwitz if all its roots lie in the:

ARight half s-plane
BLeft half s-plane
CFirst quadrant
DUnit circle
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A necessary condition for a polynomial to be Hurwitz is that all its coefficients must be:

ANegative
BComplex
CReal, present and positive
DEqual
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The driving-point impedance of any passive RLC network must be a:

AHurwitz polynomial
BPositive real function
CEven function only
DOdd function only
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a positive real function F(s), Re[F(jω)] must be:

ANegative
BAlways exactly zero
CGreater than or equal to zero
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Foster I form realizes the driving-point impedance as a:

ASeries connection of parallel LC tanks
BParallel connection of series LC branches
CSingle inductor
DSingle capacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Foster II form realizes the driving-point admittance as a:

ASeries connection of LC tanks
BParallel connection of series LC branches
CPure resistance
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Cauer I form is obtained by a continued-fraction expansion that removes the pole at:

As = 0
Bs = ∞
Cs = 1
Ds = jω
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

In an LC driving-point impedance function, the poles and zeros:

ALie anywhere in the s-plane
BLie only on the negative real axis
CLie only on the jω-axis and alternate
DAlways coincide with each other
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For an RC driving-point impedance, the critical frequency nearest the origin is always a:

AZero
BPole
CNeither pole nor zero
DBoth a pole and a zero
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1059Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A network consisting of alternating series and shunt elements along the signal path is called a:

ABridge network
BLadder network
CLattice network
DStar network
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

When a cylinder is unrolled (opened in rope form), what shape is formed?

AInvolute
BHelix
CCycloid
DRectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

How many transistors does a class B push-pull amplifier use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In which region does a class B amplifier operate?

ASaturation
BCut-off
CActive
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which quantity remains constant (same) throughout a series circuit?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In a star (Y) connected three-phase system, what is the relationship between line voltage (Vₗ) and phase voltage (Vₚₕ)?

AVₗ = Vₚₕ
BVₗ = √3 × Vₚₕ
CVₗ = Vₚₕ / √3
DVₗ = 3 × Vₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the primary advantage of CMOS logic technology?

AHighest switching speed
BMinimum power consumption
CHighest noise margin
DMaximum fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What type of feedback do oscillators use to sustain oscillations?

ANegative
BPositive
CZero
DMixed
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which theorem gives the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load?

ANorton's Theorem
BThevenin's Theorem
CMaximum Power Transfer Theorem
DSuperposition Theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

According to Ohm's Law, which relationship is correct?

ACurrent = Voltage / Resistance
BResistance = Voltage × Current
CVoltage = Current / Resistance
DPower = Voltage + Current
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three equal resistors in series dissipate 10 W. How much power do they dissipate when connected in parallel (same supply voltage)?

A10 W
B30 W
C90 W
D270 W
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A semiconductor is primarily used for:

AStoring electrical energy
BConverting AC to DC
CControlling electrical current
DAmplifying magnetic fields
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Two copper wires of the same length have cross-sectional area ratio 1 : 4. What is the ratio of their resistances (small : large)?

A1 : 4
B1 : 2
C4 : 1
D2 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A wire has resistance 40 Ω. Another wire of the same length has 4× the cross-sectional area. What is the resistance of the second wire?

A160 Ω
B40 Ω
C20 Ω
D10 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The Superposition Theorem is NOT applicable to which type of circuit analysis?

APower calculations
BVoltage calculations
CCurrent calculations
DResistive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The current through a capacitor is known as:

AConduction current
BLeakage current
CDisplacement current
DEddy current
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A bridge rectifier operating at 50 Hz produces an output of:

A50 Hz pulsating DC
B100 Hz pulsating DC
C25 Hz pulsating DC
DPure DC
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

An inductor and resistor are connected in series and a DC voltage V is applied. At steady state, what is the current?

AV/R
BV/(R+XL)
CZero
DV/XL
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected in delta. What is the equivalent resistance between any two terminals?

A2 Ω
B1.333 Ω
C6 Ω
D3 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A 1 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 3 Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance?

A4 Ω
B0.75 Ω
C2 Ω
D1.5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) when the reflection coefficient is 0.8?

A1.8
B4.5
C0.8
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1059Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A transmission line has Z₀ = 50 Ω and termination impedance Za = 75 Ω. What is the SWR and reflection coefficient?

ASWR = 1.5, RC = 0.2
BSWR = 2.5, RC = 0.4
CSWR = 1.5, RC = 0.5
DSWR = 3, RC = 0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The binary equivalent of decimal 13 is:

A1101
B1011
C1110
D1001
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The base (radix) of the hexadecimal number system is:

A8
B10
C16
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

Which gate is known as a “universal gate”?

AAND
BOR
CNAND
DXOR
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The output of an XOR gate is HIGH when:

ABoth inputs are the same
BBoth inputs are different
CBoth inputs are LOW
DBoth inputs are HIGH
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

De Morgan’s theorem states that (A+B)’ equals:

AA’+B’
BA’·B’
CA·B
DA+B
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

SOP stands for:

ASum of Products
BSeries of Parallels
CSet of Points
DSequence of Pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

A Karnaugh map (K-map) is primarily used to:

AIncrease propagation delay
BSimplify Boolean expressions
CConvert AC to DC
DStore binary data
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

A standard Karnaugh map used for simplifying expressions of 4 variables has how many cells?

A4
B8
C16
D32
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

In a POS expression, individual sum terms are combined by:

AMultiplication (AND) of sums
BAddition (OR) of products
CXOR operation
DSubtraction
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Logic

NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates because:

AThey consume the least power
BAny logic function can be implemented using only NAND or only NOR gates
CThey are the fastest gates available
DThey require no truth table
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A multiplexer with 4 select lines can select among how many inputs?

A4
B8
C16
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A demultiplexer performs the opposite function of a:

ADecoder
BMultiplexer
CEncoder
DAdder
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A decoder with n input lines can produce up to how many output lines?

An
B2n
C2ⁿ
Dn²
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A priority encoder resolves the situation when:

AAll inputs are LOW
BMultiple inputs are active simultaneously
CThe clock signal fails
DThe output is undefined
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A half adder can add:

ATwo bits, producing sum and carry
BThree bits including a carry-in
COnly a single bit with no carry
DMultiple full bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A full adder differs from a half adder because it additionally accepts a:

AClock input
BCarry-in input
CReset input
DSelect input
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

In 2’s complement arithmetic, subtraction is performed by:

ADirect binary subtraction only
BAdding the 2’s complement of the subtrahend
CUsing a completely separate subtractor circuit
DDividing by 2
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

The range of an 8-bit signed number in 2’s complement form is:

A0 to 255
B−128 to +127
C−127 to +127
D−255 to +255
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

In sign-magnitude representation, the MSB represents:

AThe value
BThe sign
CThe carry
DThe parity
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1059Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

The 1’s complement of the binary number 1010 is:

A0101
B1011
C0110
D1010
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An SR flip-flop has an invalid (undefined) state when:

AS=0, R=0
BS=1, R=1
CS=1, R=0
DS=0, R=1
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A gated (clocked) flip-flop responds to its inputs:

AOnly during the active clock level
BOnly at the clock edge
CContinuously regardless of clock
DNever
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An edge-triggered flip-flop changes state:

ADuring the entire clock pulse
BOnly at the rising or falling edge of the clock
CWhen power is first applied
DRandomly
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

The master-slave flip-flop configuration is primarily used to:

AIncrease power consumption
BEliminate the race-around condition in JK flip-flops
CReduce the number of gates needed
DAdd a reset input
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A shift register that accepts data serially and outputs it in parallel is called:

ASISO
BSIPO
CPISO
DPIPO
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In an asynchronous (ripple) counter, the flip-flops are triggered by:

AA common clock signal simultaneously
BThe output of the preceding flip-flop
CAn external reset only
DRandom pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Compared to asynchronous counters, synchronous counters are:

ASlower, due to cumulative delay
BFaster, since all flip-flops switch together
CUnable to count upward
DOnly usable for down-counting
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A JK flip-flop with J=K=1 at the active clock edge will:

AReset
BSet
CToggle its output
DRemain unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A D flip-flop transfers its D input to the output:

AContinuously
BAt the active clock edge
CNever
DOnly when reset
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1059Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Ring counters and Johnson counters are typical applications built from:

ADecoders
BShift registers
CMultiplexers
DAdders
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The part of a microprocessor that performs arithmetic and logic operations is the:

AControl unit
BALU
CProgram counter
DStack pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The register that holds the address of the next instruction to be executed is the:

AAccumulator
BProgram Counter (PC)
CStack Pointer
DInstruction Register
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

In assembly language, a mnemonic represents:

AA memory address
BA symbolic name for a machine instruction
CA data value only
DA hardware pin
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The three main buses in a microprocessor system are:

AData, Address, Control
BSerial, Parallel, USB
CInput, Output, Memory
DClock, Reset, Power
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

A program that converts assembly language into machine code is called a(n):

ACompiler
BAssembler
CInterpreter
DLinker
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The accumulator in a microprocessor is primarily used to:

AStore the next instruction’s address
BHold operands and results of ALU operations
CControl the clock frequency
DStore the stack base address
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The address bus in a microprocessor is:

ABidirectional, carries data
BUnidirectional, carries memory/IO addresses
CUsed only for control signals
DNot connected to memory
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

Branch (jump) instructions in assembly language are used to:

APerform arithmetic operations only
BAlter the normal sequential flow of program execution
CTransfer data between registers only
DPermanently halt the processor
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The word length of a microprocessor refers to:

AThe number of instructions it executes per second
BThe number of bits it can process/transfer at once
CThe size of its cache memory
DThe number of registers only
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1059Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

Data transfer instructions in assembly language typically move data between:

ARegisters and/or memory
BOnly two ALUs
CPower supply rails
DClock sources
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

RAM stands for:

ARead Access Memory
BRandom Access Memory
CRapid Address Memory
DRead-Ahead Memory
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

Which memory type retains its content even when power is switched off?

ASRAM
BDRAM
CROM
DCache
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In memory-mapped I/O, peripheral devices are:

AAccessed only with dedicated I/O instructions
BTreated as if they occupy part of the memory address space
CNever addressable by the CPU
DConnected directly to the ALU
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

The PPI (Programmable Peripheral Interface) is primarily used for:

ASerial communication only
BParallel I/O interfacing
CAnalog signal conversion
DClock generation
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In asynchronous serial transmission, each data character is framed with:

AA parity bit only
BStart and stop bits
CA checksum only
DNo framing bits
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

RS232 is a standard primarily used for:

AParallel data transmission
BSerial data communication
CPower distribution
DVideo signals
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

USART stands for:

AUniversal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
BUnified Serial Address Register Transfer
CUniversal System Address Read Transfer
DUniform Synchronous Analog Receiver Transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

DMA (Direct Memory Access) allows data transfer between memory and I/O:

AOnly through continuous CPU intervention
BWithout direct CPU intervention for each data word
COnly during interrupts
DOnly in serial form
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

Compared to RS232, USB offers:

ALower data rates and no plug-and-play
BHigher data rates and plug-and-play capability
COnly power transfer, no data
DParallel transmission only
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1059Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In synchronous serial transmission, timing is coordinated by:

AStart/stop bits on every character
BA shared clock signal
CRandom polling
DFixed delays only
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

An interrupt is best described as:

AA permanent halt of the processor
BA signal that temporarily suspends normal execution to service an event
CA type of memory device
DA logic gate
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A hardware interrupt is typically triggered by:

AA program instruction executed deliberately
BAn external device requiring attention
CThe compiler
DThe interrupt vector table itself
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A non-maskable interrupt (NMI) is characterized by:

ABeing easily disabled by software
BBeing reserved for critical events and unable to be disabled
CNever being serviced
DRequiring polling instead of a signal
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

An Interrupt Service Routine (ISR) is:

AThe main program itself
BA subroutine executed in response to a specific interrupt
CA type of memory chip
DA logic gate used for gating clocks
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The interrupt vector table is used to:

AStore user data files
BStore the starting addresses of ISRs, indexed by interrupt type
CPerform arithmetic operations
DGenerate the system clock
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

When an interrupt occurs, before jumping to the ISR, the processor must first:

AErase all memory
BComplete the current instruction and save its context (state)
CImmediately power off
DIgnore the interrupt permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

At the end of an ISR, a return-from-interrupt instruction is used to:

APermanently halt the processor
BRestore saved context and resume the original program
CTrigger another interrupt
DErase the interrupt vector table
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Compared to polling, using interrupts is generally more efficient because:

AThe CPU must constantly check device status
BThe CPU can perform other work until an event actually occurs
CInterrupts require no processing at all
DPolling is always faster
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A software interrupt is typically triggered by:

AAn external hardware device only
BAn instruction deliberately executed within a program
CA power failure
DA clock signal alone
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1059Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Interrupt priority schemes are needed primarily to:

APrevent any interrupts from ever occurring
BDetermine which interrupt is serviced first when multiple occur simultaneously
CIncrease memory capacity
DEliminate the need for an ISR
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The unit responsible for generating control signals to coordinate CPU operations is the:

AALU
BControl Unit
CCache memory
DData bus
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

In a microprogrammed control unit, control signals are generated from:

AA hardwired logic circuit only
BA control memory storing microinstructions
CAn external keyboard
DA random number generator
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

An instruction format typically consists of:

AOnly an opcode
BAn opcode and operand(s)/address field(s)
COnly a memory address
DOnly a clock signal
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The addressing mode in which the operand value is given directly in the instruction is called:

ADirect addressing
BImmediate addressing
CIndirect addressing
DIndexed addressing
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

In indirect addressing, the instruction specifies:

AThe operand itself
BThe address of a memory location that holds the operand’s address
CA register holding the operand directly
DNothing at all
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

RISC architecture is characterized by:

AA large, complex instruction set
BA small, simple, uniform-length instruction set optimized for pipelining
CThe complete absence of registers
DOnly microprogrammed control
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

CISC architecture is characterized by:

AA small number of simple instructions
BA large set of complex, variable-length instructions
CNo addressing modes at all
DExclusively single-cycle instructions
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

Pipelining in a CPU improves performance mainly by:

AExecuting multiple instruction stages concurrently
BIncreasing the clock period
CRemoving the need for registers
DReducing the instruction set to one instruction
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

A pipeline hazard that occurs when an instruction depends on the result of a previous, unfinished instruction is called a:

AStructural hazard
BData hazard
CControl hazard
DMemory hazard
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1059Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) primarily performs:

AInstruction fetching only
BArithmetic and logical operations on data
CAddress decoding only
DClock generation
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many NOT gates are required to build a 2:1 Multiplexer?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many 2-input NAND gates are contained in a standard 7400 TTL IC?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In TTL logic, what is the input voltage range for a logic LOW (active LOW level)?

A0 V to 0.8 V
B0 V to 1.5 V
C2 V to 5 V
D0.8 V to 2 V
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

When an invalid BCD code (1010–1111) is detected and auto-corrected, what value is added?

A0110 (6)
B0001 (1)
C1010 (10)
D0100 (4)
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the terminal (reset) state of a MOD-10 (decade) counter?

A1010
B1001
C1000
D0111
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the minimum number of flip-flops (memory blocks) required to build a MOD-6 ripple counter?

A2
B3
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

An SR flip-flop is also called a:

AMonostable multivibrator
BBistable multivibrator
CAstable multivibrator
DSchmitt trigger
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

A JK flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 is clocked at 20 kHz. What is the output waveform and its frequency?

ASine wave at 20 kHz
BSquare wave at 20 kHz
CSine wave at 10 kHz
DSquare wave at 10 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the duty cycle of an ideal astable multivibrator?

A25%
B50%
C75%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which of the following is NOT a valid operation of flip-flops?

ASet
BReset
CToggle
DMultiply
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The TRAP interrupt in 8085 microprocessor is:

AEdge-triggered only
BLevel-triggered (high level)
CMaskable
DSoftware interrupt
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Small-Scale Integration (SSI) refers to ICs with how many transistors?

ALess than 10
B10–99
C100–999
D1000+
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, a signal that represents a bus (multi-bit connection) is declared as:

AVariable
BSignal
CConstant
DGeneric
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, the primary design unit that represents a hardware block's interface (ports and generics) is called:

AArchitecture
BPackage
CComponent
DEntity
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The shadow mask technique is used in:

ALCD panels
BCRT displays
COLED displays
DPlasma screens
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Left-shifting an unsigned binary number by 1 bit is equivalent to:

ADividing by 2
BMultiplying by 2
CAdding 1
DSubtracting 1
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The expression x << 3 is equivalent to:

Ax × 8
Bx × 3
Cx + 3
Dx / 8
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1059Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which logic gate is commonly used for parity checking and overflow detection?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

In C, printf() and scanf() are examples of:

AUnformatted I/O functions
BFormatted I/O functions
CLooping constructs
DBitwise operators
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A while loop is described as entry-controlled because:

AThe condition is tested after each iteration
BThe condition is tested before each iteration
CIt always executes at least once
DIt has no condition
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A do-while loop differs from a while loop in that a do-while loop:

ANever executes the body
BAlways executes the body at least once (tests condition after)
CCannot use break
DRequires no condition
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

The break statement, when used inside a loop, causes:

AThe loop to skip to the next iteration
BImmediate exit from the nearest enclosing loop or switch
CThe program to terminate entirely
DAn infinite loop
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A recursive function must include:

ANo parameters at all
BA base case that terminates the recursion
COnly loop statements
DGlobal variables only
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A 2-D array in C is typically used to represent:

AA single linear list
BA matrix (rows and columns)
CA single character
DA function pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

A string in C is terminated by:

AA space character
BThe null character '\0'
CA newline character only
DThe digit 0
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

Which function is used to determine the length of a C string?

Astrcpy()
Bstrlen()
Cstrcmp()
Dstrcat()
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

The continue statement inside a loop causes:

AImmediate termination of the loop
BThe remaining statements in the current iteration to be skipped, proceeding to the next iteration
CThe program to crash
DThe loop to run one extra time
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1059Ch 3 · Introduction to C Programming

An identifier in C refers to:

AA reserved keyword
BA user-defined name for a variable, function, or array
CA fixed numeric value
DAn operator symbol
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

A pointer variable in C stores:

AA copy of another variable's value
BThe memory address of another variable
CA string only
DA function name only
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

If p is an int pointer, incrementing p (p++) moves it by:

A1 byte always
BThe size of an int (as determined by the system)
C0 bytes
DThe size of a char always
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

The expression arr[i] in C is equivalent to:

A*(arr+i)
Barr*i
C&arr+i
Darr/i
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

Passing a pointer to a function allows the function to:

AOnly read the value, never modify it
BModify the caller's original variable directly
CNever access the variable at all
DConvert the variable to a string automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

The key difference between a structure and a union is that in a union:

AEach member has separate memory
BAll members share the same memory location
COnly integer members are allowed
DMembers cannot be accessed at all
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

To access a member of a structure through a pointer, C uses the:

ADot operator (.)
BArrow operator (->)
CAmpersand operator (&) alone
DAsterisk operator (*) alone
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

The fopen() function in C is used to:

AClose an open file
BOpen a file and return a FILE pointer
CDelete a file
DRead a single character
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

Opening a file in mode "a" allows:

AOnly reading from the file
BAppending data to the end of the existing file
COverwriting the file from the beginning
DRandom access only
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

Random access to a file in C is achieved primarily using:

Afopen() alone
Bfseek() to move to a specific file position
Cprintf()
DA structure only
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1059Ch 3 · Pointers, Structures & Data Files in C

An array of structures is best described as:

AA single structure variable
BA collection of structure variables of the same type, accessed by index
CA union of different data types
DA pointer to a function
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A namespace in C++ is primarily used to:

AIncrease execution speed
BGroup related identifiers and avoid name clashes
CReplace all functions with classes
DStore binary data
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

Function overloading allows multiple functions to share the same name if they:

AHave identical parameter lists
BHave different parameter lists (number/type)
CAre all declared static
DReturn different values only, with identical parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

An inline function requests the compiler to:

AAlways allocate it on the heap
BSubstitute its code directly at the call site
CConvert it into a class
DIgnore its return type
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A private member of a class is accessible from:

AAnywhere in the program
BOnly within the class itself
COnly derived classes
DOnly friend functions of other classes
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A constructor is a special member function that is:

ACalled manually whenever needed
BAutomatically called when an object is created, to initialize it
CAutomatically called when the program ends
DUsed only for static members
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A destructor differs from a constructor in that a destructor:

ACan be overloaded like a constructor
BTakes no parameters and there is only one per class
CIs called multiple times per object
DCannot release resources
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

The 'this' pointer inside a non-static member function points to:

AThe class definition itself
BThe object on which the member function was called
CA static member only
DNothing; it is always null
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A static data member of a class is:

AUnique to each object
BShared by all objects of the class (one copy total)
CNever initialized
DAccessible only via a friend function
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A constant member function guarantees that it will:

AModify the object's data members freely
BNot modify the object's data members
CAlways return a constant integer
DBe callable only from derived classes
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 1059Ch 3 · C++ Constructs with Objects & Classes

A friend function of a class is granted:

ANo special access at all
BAccess to the class's private and protected members
CAutomatic membership in the class
DOnly access to public members, same as any other function
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Operator overloading in C++ allows an operator such as '+' to:

AWork only with built-in types
BBe redefined to work with objects of a user-defined class
CBe removed from the language
DOnly be used in unary form
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

A unary operator overload acts on:

ATwo operands
BA single operand
CThree operands
DNo operands at all
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Converting a built-in type into a class-type object can be achieved using:

AA destructor
BA converting (single-argument) constructor
CA friend function only
DThe 'this' pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

In multiple inheritance, a derived class inherits from:

AExactly one base class
BMore than one base class directly
CNo base class at all
DOnly classes in the same file
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Multilevel inheritance is best described as:

AMany classes inheriting from one base
BA chain, where a class derives from a base, and another class derives from that derived class
COne class inheriting from two unrelated bases
DNo inheritance at all
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Hierarchical inheritance involves:

AOne derived class from one base class
BMultiple derived classes inheriting from a single common base class
CA chain of single inheritances only
DNo base class
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

The 'diamond problem' in C++ inheritance arises specifically in:

ASingle inheritance
BMultipath inheritance, where two base classes share a common ancestor
CFunction overloading
DOperator overloading
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

The diamond problem in multipath inheritance is typically resolved using:

AFriend functions
BVirtual base classes
CStatic data members
DOperator overloading
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

In single inheritance, when a derived class object is created, which constructor executes first?

AThe derived class constructor
BThe base class constructor
CNeither executes
DBoth execute simultaneously
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1059Ch 3 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Destructors in an inheritance hierarchy execute in which order relative to constructors?

AThe same order as constructors
BThe exact reverse order of constructors
CA random order
DDestructors never execute automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

A virtual function allows:

AOnly the base class version to ever be called
BA derived class to override it so the correct version is called based on actual object type
CFunctions to be overloaded only
DStatic binding exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

A pure virtual function is declared in the base class with:

ANo special syntax, just 'virtual'
B'= 0' after the function declaration
CThe 'static' keyword
DThe 'friend' keyword
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

A class containing at least one pure virtual function is called:

AA concrete class
BAn abstract class, which cannot be instantiated directly
CA static class
DA friend class
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

Dynamic (late) binding means the function implementation to call is decided:

AAt compile time, based on pointer/reference type
BAt runtime, based on the actual object type
CNever, since only one version exists
DRandomly at each call
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

Which C++ stream class is used specifically for output file operations?

Aifstream
Bofstream
Ccin
Dcerr only
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

The root class of the C++ I/O stream class hierarchy is:

Acout
Bios
Cfstream
Dendl
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

The stream state function eof() is used to check whether:

AAn I/O error has occurred
BThe end of the file/stream has been reached
CThe stream is still good
DA pure virtual function was called
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

The manipulator setw() is used to:

ASet the output field width
BOpen a file
CDeclare a virtual function
DOverload an operator
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

The endl manipulator, when used with cout, inserts:

AA tab character only
BA newline and flushes the output buffer
CA pure virtual function call
DA file close operation
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1059Ch 3 · Pure Virtual Function & File Handling

Unformatted I/O functions such as get() and put() operate at the level of:

AWhole files only
BIndividual (raw) characters
CEntire classes
DVirtual function tables
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

A function template in C++ allows a single function definition to:

AWork with only one specific data type
BWork generically with multiple data types, with the compiler generating specific versions
CReplace all classes in a program
DAvoid using parameters entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

A class template enables the creation of:

AOnly non-generic, fixed-type classes
BGeneric data structures that work with any data type (e.g. a generic Stack)
COnly exception handling code
DOnly virtual functions
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

In the STL, which component connects generic algorithms to containers?

AContainers alone
BIterators
CExceptions
DNamespaces
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

Which STL component provides generic functions such as sort and find?

AContainers
BAlgorithms
CTemplates only
DStreams
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

In C++ exception handling, code that might raise an exception is placed inside a:

Acatch block
Btry block
Cthrow block only
Dtemplate block
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

A single try block in C++ can be followed by:

AAt most one catch block
BMultiple catch blocks, each handling a different exception type
CNo catch blocks at all
DOnly a throw statement
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

The syntax catch(...) is used to:

ACatch only integer exceptions
BCatch any type of exception, as a fallback handler
CDeclare a function template
DRethrow an exception automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

Rethrowing a caught exception is done using:

Athrow; (with no operand) inside the catch block
BA new try block only
CThe 'template' keyword
Dcatch(...) exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

If a thrown exception has no matching catch handler anywhere in the program, what happens?

AThe program continues normally, ignoring the exception
Bterminate() is called, typically aborting the program
CThe exception is automatically caught by main()
DA new exception type is created automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1059Ch 3 · Generic Programming & Exception Handling

An exception object can carry additional data (such as an error code) by:

ABeing thrown with arguments that the catch block's parameter receives
BNever being allowed to carry any data
CRequiring a separate global variable only
DUsing only the 'this' pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

When an interrupt occurs, the CPU transfers execution to:

AInterrupt Service Routine (ISR)
BMain program counter
CStack pointer
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8086 microprocessor operates in which two modes?

AReal mode and Protected mode
BMinimum mode and Maximum mode
CUser mode and Kernel mode
DSingle-bus and Multi-bus mode
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Assembly language source code is translated to machine code by:

AAssembler
BCompiler
CInterpreter
DLinker
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

The 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI) provides which type of interface?

APhysical
BLogical
CSerial
DOptical
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) architecture is characterized by:

AComplex variable-length instructions and small register file
BLarge number of registers, fixed instruction size, and pipelining
CMicrocode-based execution and many addressing modes
DSlow clock speed and large instruction cache
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

What does the Address Generation Unit (AGU) in a CPU do?

AExecutes floating-point operations
BComputes effective memory addresses
CManages cache replacement
DDecodes instruction opcodes
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Pipelining in CPU design is also known as:

AParallel processing
BMultiprogramming
CAssembly-line operation / Instruction overlapping
DSuperscalar execution
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

How many signal wires does the I²C (Inter-Integrated Circuit) bus use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

A microprocessor fetches its next instruction from:

ACache memory
BRegister file
CMain memory (RAM)
DAccumulator
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In an SPI bus running at 5 MHz with 8-bit frames, what is the time taken per bit?

A0.02 μs
B0.2 μs
C2 μs
D20 μs
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

Which circuit inside the CPU performs arithmetic and logical operations?

AControl Unit
BALU
CRegister File
DMemory Controller
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1059Ch 3 · Computer Architecture & Hardware

In floating-point multiplication, the correct sequence of operations is:

AAdd exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize and round
BMultiply exponents, add mantissas, then normalize
CSubtract exponents, multiply mantissas, then normalize
DMultiply mantissas, multiply exponents, then round
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

Hardwired control unit design is characterized by:

AMicroinstructions stored in control memory
BFixed combinational logic generating control signals
CBeing easily reprogrammed at runtime
DRequiring no logic circuits at all
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

Microprogrammed control unit design generates control signals using:

AOnly hardwired logic gates
BA sequence of microinstructions stored in control memory
CExternal peripheral devices
DCache memory exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

An instruction format typically consists of:

AOnly an address field
BAn opcode field and one or more operand/address fields
COnly data, no operation code
DA single bit
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

In immediate addressing mode, the operand:

AIs found in a register
BIs given directly within the instruction itself
CRequires an extra memory access to locate
DIs always at a fixed memory address
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

RISC architecture is generally characterized by:

AA large set of complex, variable-length instructions
BA small set of simple, fixed-length instructions
CNo use of registers
DExclusive use of microprogrammed control
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

CISC architecture is generally characterized by:

ASimple fixed-length instructions only
BComplex, variable-length instructions that can operate directly on memory
CThe complete absence of a control unit
DMandatory single-cycle execution
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

Pipelining in a CPU is used primarily to:

AReduce the latency of a single instruction
BIncrease overall instruction throughput by overlapping instruction stages
CEliminate the need for a control unit
DIncrease memory capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

A data hazard in a pipelined processor occurs when:

ATwo instructions require the same functional unit simultaneously
BAn instruction depends on the result of a previous instruction still in the pipeline
CThe control unit fails completely
DNo instructions are being executed
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

Which technique helps mitigate data hazards in a pipeline?

AForwarding (bypassing)
BRemoving the ALU
CDisabling the control unit
DIncreasing instruction length arbitrarily
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1059Ch 4 · Control & Central Processing Units

Parallel processing differs from simple pipelining in that parallel processing:

AUses only a single functional unit
BExecutes multiple instructions/tasks simultaneously using multiple functional units or processors
CCannot be combined with pipelining
DAlways slows down execution
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

Computer arithmetic operations (add, subtract) in the ALU typically use which number representation?

ASign-magnitude only
B2's complement
CBCD exclusively
DGray code
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

In the memory hierarchy, which level is generally fastest and smallest?

ASecondary storage
BMain memory
CRegisters
DCache memory
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

The memory hierarchy's effectiveness relies on the principle of:

ARandom access only
BLocality of reference (temporal and spatial)
CInfinite memory capacity
DZero access time everywhere
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

In direct-mapped cache, each main memory block can be placed:

AIn any cache line
BIn exactly one specific cache line
CIn a set of cache lines
DNowhere; direct mapping bypasses cache
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

Set-associative cache mapping is best described as:

AA pure direct-mapping scheme
BA compromise where a block maps to a specific set, and can go in any line within that set
CFully associative mapping only
DA scheme with no mapping function at all
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

The LRU (Least Recently Used) algorithm is used in cache design to determine:

AWhich block to fetch first
BWhich block to evict when the cache is full
CThe cache's physical size
DThe write policy
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

Write-through cache policy updates:

AOnly the cache, never main memory
BBoth the cache and main memory simultaneously on a write
CNeither the cache nor memory
DOnly main memory, bypassing cache
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

Write-back cache policy updates main memory:

AImmediately on every write
BOnly when the modified cache block is evicted
CNever
DBefore the cache is even written
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

ROM is classified, in terms of write ability and storage permanence, as:

ARead-write and volatile
BRead-only (or limited-write) and non-volatile
CRead-write and non-volatile like RAM
DNeither readable nor writable
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Arithmetic & Memory System

A split cache architecture separates:

AFast memory from slow memory only
BInstruction cache from data cache
CRAM from ROM
DRegisters from the ALU
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

An I/O module's primary role is to:

AReplace the CPU entirely
BHandle the electrical/timing mismatch between the CPU/memory and peripherals
CStore the operating system permanently
DPerform only arithmetic operations
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

Programmed I/O is characterized by:

AThe device interrupting the CPU when ready
BThe CPU actively polling the device status and transferring data itself
CDirect transfer without any CPU involvement
DNo data transfer occurring at all
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

Interrupt-driven I/O improves on programmed I/O by:

AEliminating the need for any CPU involvement
BLetting the CPU do other work until the device signals it is ready
CRequiring the CPU to poll even more frequently
DRemoving the need for I/O modules
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

DMA (Direct Memory Access) transfers data:

AThrough the CPU for every byte
BDirectly between device and memory, with minimal CPU involvement
COnly during system boot-up
DOnly using programmed I/O
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

A multiprocessor system is defined by having:

AA single CPU with multiple caches
BMultiple CPUs sharing memory and I/O resources
CNo shared memory at all
DOnly one processing unit total
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

A common bus interconnection structure in a multiprocessor system can become a:

ASource of infinite bandwidth
BBottleneck, since it is shared among processors
CMethod requiring no synchronization
DReplacement for all memory
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

A crossbar switch interconnection provides:

AOnly sequential access
BAny-to-any connectivity between processors and memory modules, at higher cost
CNo connectivity at all
DConnectivity for exactly two processors only
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

Inter-processor communication via shared memory relies on:

AExplicit message passing exclusively
BProcessors accessing a common address space
CNo communication mechanism at all
DEach processor having entirely isolated, non-shared memory
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

Semaphores and locks in a multiprocessor system are used primarily to:

AIncrease clock speed
BSynchronize access to shared resources and prevent race conditions
CReplace the need for an interconnection network
DPerform arithmetic operations
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1059Ch 4 · I/O Organization & Multiprocessor

Message passing, as an inter-processor communication method, involves:

ADirect shared-memory access only
BExplicit send/receive operations over the interconnect
CNo communication between processors
DOnly DMA transfers
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

An embedded system is best described as:

AA general-purpose computer used for any task
BHardware and software combined to perform one or a few dedicated functions
CSoftware only, with no hardware component
DA standalone desktop operating system
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

A hard real-time embedded system is characterized by:

ANo timing requirements at all
BStrict deadlines that must never be missed
CFlexible deadlines that can occasionally be missed
DBeing identical to a general-purpose computer
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

A custom single-purpose processor, compared to a general-purpose processor, offers:

AMore flexibility but less speed
BHigher speed and efficiency for its specific task, but less flexibility
CIdentical performance in all cases
DNo advantage at all
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

An Application-Specific Instruction-Set Processor (ASIP) is designed to:

ABe completely general-purpose with no customization
BHave an instruction set customized for a particular application domain
CExecute only one fixed hardware function with no programmability
DReplace all memory hierarchies
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

The basic architecture of a custom single-purpose processor consists of:

AA general-purpose instruction fetch/decode unit only
BA datapath tailored to the algorithm, controlled by an FSM-based controller
COnly a memory unit with no control logic
DA standard microprocessor core unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

Optimizing a custom single-purpose processor can involve:

AAdding unnecessary functional units
BPipelining the datapath and removing unused functional units
CMaking the processor fully general-purpose
DRemoving all control logic
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

A cross-compiler is used in embedded development to:

ACompile code on the target device itself
BCompile code on a host machine for execution on a different target architecture
COnly debug hardware faults
DReplace the need for any compiler
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

JTAG interfaces are primarily used in embedded development for:

ACompiling source code
BIn-circuit debugging and testing on real hardware
CGenerating clock signals only
DReplacing the operating system
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

Classification of embedded systems by performance/time requirements distinguishes:

AOnly hardware types
BReal-time (hard/soft) vs non-real-time systems
COnly memory sizes
DOnly programming languages used
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware-Software Design in Embedded Systems

In a custom single-purpose processor, since behavior is implemented directly in hardware:

ATraditional software programming is required as in general-purpose systems
BThere is no traditional general-purpose programming; behavior is fixed by the hardware structure
CThe design cannot execute any algorithm
DIt always requires an operating system
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

A process in an operating system is characterized by:

ASharing memory space with all other processes by default
BBeing an independent program in execution with its own memory address space
CAlways being identical to a thread
DNever being scheduled
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

A thread differs from a process mainly in that a thread:

AHas its own completely separate memory space
BIs a lightweight execution unit sharing the process's memory/resources
CCannot be scheduled by the OS
DAlways requires its own separate processor
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

Multitasking on a single processor is achieved through:

ATrue simultaneous execution of all tasks
BRapid time-slicing between tasks, giving the appearance of concurrency
CPhysically adding more processors
DDisabling the scheduler
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

Multiprocessing differs from multitasking in that multiprocessing involves:

AA single processor time-slicing tasks
BMultiple processors executing tasks truly simultaneously
CNo task execution at all
DOnly software simulation of parallelism
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

Rate-Monotonic scheduling assigns task priority based on:

ATask arrival order only
BThe task's period (fixed priority, shorter period = higher priority)
CRandom assignment
DThe amount of memory a task uses
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

A semaphore in a real-time OS is used to:

AIncrease processor clock speed
BSynchronize access to shared resources between tasks
CCompile source code
DReplace the need for a scheduler
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

A device driver's primary role is to:

AReplace the operating system entirely
BProvide a standard interface between the OS/application and specific hardware
CPerform task scheduling
DOnly manage memory allocation
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

An open-loop control system is characterized by:

AOutput being fed back to correct the input
BNo feedback of output to influence the control action
CAutomatic disturbance compensation
DContinuous error correction
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

A closed-loop (feedback) control system compares:

ANothing; it has no comparison mechanism
BThe measured output with a desired reference, using the error to adjust control action
COnly two open-loop systems against each other
DThe input against itself only
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1059Ch 4 · Real-Time Operating & Control System

Earliest-Deadline-First (EDF) is a scheduling algorithm that assigns priority based on:

AA fixed priority set at design time
BWhich task's deadline is soonest, dynamically
CRandom selection
DMemory usage of each task
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

VHDL is primarily used to:

AWrite general-purpose application software
BDescribe the structure and behavior of digital hardware for simulation/synthesis
CManage databases
DCompile C programs
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

In a VHDL design, the entity primarily defines:

AThe internal behavior of the circuit
BThe interface: input/output ports
CThe clock frequency only
DThe physical chip layout
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

In a VHDL design, the architecture describes:

AOnly the port list
BThe internal behavior/structure implementing the entity's interface
CThe compiler settings
DThe operating system used
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

Which VHDL description style describes a circuit as an interconnection of components?

ABehavioral
BDataflow
CStructural
DProcedural
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

Overflow in a VHDL arithmetic operation occurs when:

AThe result fits perfectly within the bit width
BThe result exceeds the representable range of the chosen bit width
CNo arithmetic operation is performed
DThe clock signal is disabled
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

Combinational logic in VHDL is typically modeled using:

AA process sensitive only to a clock edge
BConcurrent signal assignments or a process with a full input sensitivity list
COnly sequential (clocked) processes
DExternal simulation software only
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

Sequential logic in VHDL is typically modeled using a process sensitive to:

AAll input signals only
BA clock edge (e.g. risingedge(clk))
CNo signals at all
DOnly the reset signal
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

Pipelining in a VHDL design is implemented by:

ARemoving all clocked processes
BInserting register stages between combinational blocks
CUsing only combinational logic with no registers
DDisabling the clock entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

The dataflow style of VHDL description primarily uses:

AComponent instantiation only
BConcurrent signal assignments to describe signal flow
COnly behavioral algorithms with loops
DExternal hardware only, no code
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1059Ch 4 · Hardware Description Language & IC Technology

stdlogic and signed/unsigned vectors in VHDL are examples of:

AProgramming language keywords unrelated to hardware
BData types used to represent bits and numbers for modeling hardware signals
CClock signals only
DSimulation software tools
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which feature of IPv6 is NOT supported (unlike IPv4)?

AUnicast
BMulticast
CBroadcast
DAnycast
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the maximum length of a hostname?

A255 characters
B128 characters
C64 characters
D512 characters
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which OSI layer is responsible for process-to-process (end-to-end) communication?

ANetwork Layer
BTransport Layer
CSession Layer
DApplication Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which cable type is used to directly connect two routers without a switch?

ACrossover cable
BStraight-through cable
CRollover cable
DCoaxial cable
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In hierarchical routing, each autonomous domain (cluster) is called a:

AGateway
BRegion
CNode
DZone
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

FTP uses how many TCP connections?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Heavy network traffic that slows down response time is called:

ACongestion
BCollision
CDeadlock
DLatency
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The default port number for HTTP is:

A21
B80
C443
D25
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which protocol is used for sending email from a client to a mail server?

AIMAP
BPOP3
CSMTP
DFTP
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the loopback address in IPv4?

A127.0.0.1
B192.168.0.1
C255.255.255.255
D0.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the network address of 192.10.16.32 with subnet mask /25?

A192.10.16.32
B192.10.16.0
C192.10.16.128
D192.10.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

What is the Network ID of 203.17.10.7 with a /24 subnet mask?

A203.17.0.0
B203.17.10.0
C203.17.10.7
D203.0.0.0
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Which function is NOT performed at the Transport Layer?

ASegmentation and reassembly
BFlow control
CRouting
DError detection
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

CDMA technology allows multiple users to:

AUse different frequency bands
BShare the same channel simultaneously using unique codes
CTake turns in time slots
DOperate on wired networks only
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A packet filter firewall operates at which OSI layer?

ALayer 2 (Data Link)
BLayer 3 (Network)
CLayer 4 (Transport)
DLayer 7 (Application)
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The most time-critical real-time network application is:

AEmail
BFile transfer
CInternet telephone (VoIP)
DWeb browsing
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A proxy server is implemented at which OSI layer?

AApplication Layer
BTransport Layer
CNetwork Layer
DData Link Layer
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The correct order of network types from smallest to largest geographic scope is:

ALAN < PAN < MAN < WAN
BPAN < LAN < MAN < WAN
CLAN < MAN < PAN < WAN
DPAN < WAN < LAN < MAN
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The RIP routing protocol uses which metric to determine the best path?

ABandwidth
BDelay
CHop count
DCost
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

In RIP, a hop count of 16 means:

A16 routers away
BNetwork is unreachable
CMaximum allowed path
DDirect connection
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

The IEEE standard for Ethernet is:

AIEEE 802.11
BIEEE 802.3
CIEEE 802.15
DIEEE 802.1
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

Distance vector routing protocols use which algorithm to compute shortest paths?

ADijkstra's algorithm
BBellman-Ford algorithm
CFloyd-Warshall algorithm
DA* algorithm
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

10Base5 Ethernet supports a maximum segment length of:

A100 m
B185 m
C500 m
D1000 m
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1059Ch 4 · Computer Networks

A typical LAN covers a geographic scope of up to:

A10 m
B1 km
C50 km
D500 km
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

The OSI model consists of how many layers?

A4
B5
C7
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

The TCP/IP model condenses network functions into how many layers?

A3
B4
C7
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

Which OSI layer corresponds to the TCP/IP model's 'Internet' layer?

AData Link layer
BNetwork layer
CTransport layer
DApplication layer
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

A network hub operates at which layer and with what behavior?

ANetwork layer, filtering by IP address
BPhysical layer, broadcasting to all ports with no intelligence
CApplication layer, running user programs
DTransport layer, managing ports
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

A switch improves on a hub primarily by:

AOperating at the physical layer only
BForwarding frames only to the intended port based on MAC address
CRemoving the need for cabling
DWorking only with wireless connections
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

A router forwards data based on:

AMAC addresses
BIP addresses, using routing tables/protocols
CPhysical port numbers only
DFrame check sequences
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

Optical fiber, compared to twisted pair cable, generally offers:

ALower bandwidth and more interference
BHigher bandwidth and immunity to electromagnetic interference
CNo ability to carry data over long distances
DHigher cost with no other benefits
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

A bridge operates primarily at which OSI layer?

APhysical layer
BData Link layer
CNetwork layer
DApplication layer
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

Coaxial cable, compared to twisted pair, generally provides:

AWorse noise immunity
BBetter noise immunity and bandwidth
CNo ability to transmit data at all
DOnly wireless connectivity
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1059Ch 5 · Introduction to Computer Networks & Physical Layer

Wireless transmission media are characterized by:

ARequiring a physical cable at all times
BPropagating through air, enabling mobility but more susceptible to interference
CZero susceptibility to interference
DBeing usable only for fiber-optic links
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) is primarily used for:

AFlow control
BError detection
CIP addressing
DRouting between networks
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

Flow control at the data link layer is used to:

ARoute packets between networks
BPrevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver
CAssign MAC addresses
DEncrypt transmitted data
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

CSMA/CD is the medium access method used classically by:

AWireless LANs (802.11)
BWired Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)
CToken Ring only
DOptical fiber exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to:

AMap an IP address to its corresponding MAC address
BMap a MAC address to a domain name
CEncrypt network traffic
DRoute packets between distant networks
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

IEEE 802.5 defines which LAN technology?

AEthernet
BToken Bus
CToken Ring
DWireless LAN
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

Wireless LANs (IEEE 802.11) use which medium access method, instead of CSMA/CD?

ACSMA/CA (Collision Avoidance)
BToken passing exclusively
CNo access method at all
DPure ALOHA only
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is commonly used for:

AMulti-access LAN switching
BEstablishing a direct connection between two nodes, e.g. dial-up/WAN links
CIP address resolution
DError-free optical transmission only
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

Hamming code is an example of a technique used for:

AError correction, not just detection
BRouting table computation
CMAC address assignment
DFlow control only
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

IEEE 802.4 defines which LAN technology?

AEthernet
BToken Bus
CToken Ring
DBluetooth
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1059Ch 5 · Data Link Layer

In token-passing protocols, a station is permitted to transmit only when it:

ADetects a collision
BHolds the token
CSenses a carrier signal
DReceives an ARP reply
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

Classful IP addressing divides the address space into which classes for unicast use?

AA, B, C
BD and E only
CX, Y, Z
D1, 2, 3
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

Subnetting is achieved by:

AAdding extra IP versions
BBorrowing bits from the host portion of an address for additional network identification
CRemoving the network portion of an address entirely
DUsing only MAC addresses
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

Flooding as a routing algorithm sends each incoming packet:

AOnly to the shortest path
BOut on every outgoing link except the one it arrived on
COnly back to the source
DNowhere; it is discarded
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

Distance vector routing can suffer from which well-known problem?

AExcessive encryption overhead
BThe count-to-infinity problem, causing slow convergence
CInability to route any packets
DRequiring 128-bit addresses
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

Link state routing, compared to distance vector routing, generally offers:

ASlower convergence
BFaster convergence, since each router independently computes shortest paths from flooded link information
CNo routing capability at all
DOnly support for IPv4
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) uses which metric for route selection?

ABandwidth
BHop count
CDelay only
DMonetary cost
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

OSPF is classified as a:

ADistance-vector protocol
BLink-state interior gateway protocol
CExterior gateway protocol only
DPhysical layer protocol
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is primarily used for:

ARouting within a single small LAN
BRouting between autonomous systems on the Internet
CAssigning MAC addresses
DError detection at the data link layer
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

ICMP is primarily used for:

AEncrypting IP packets
BReporting errors and diagnostic information (e.g. via ping)
CAssigning IP addresses dynamically
DEstablishing TCP connections
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Layer

A key improvement of IPv6 over IPv4 is:

AReduced address space (fewer bits)
BA much larger address space (128-bit vs 32-bit)
CRemoval of all header fields
DElimination of routing entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

TCP is best described as:

AConnectionless and unreliable
BConnection-oriented and reliable, with ordered delivery
CA physical layer protocol
DUsed only for broadcast traffic
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

UDP is generally preferred over TCP when:

AGuaranteed delivery is critical
BSpeed and low overhead matter more than reliability (e.g. streaming, VoIP)
CA connection must always be established first
DCongestion control is mandatory
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

A socket is defined as the combination of:

AOnly an IP address
BOnly a port number
CAn IP address and a port number
DA MAC address and a port number
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

Well-known port numbers generally fall within the range:

A0-1023
B1024-49151
C49152-65535
DThere is no such range
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

TCP establishes a connection using:

AA single SYN packet only
BA three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK)
CA four-way handshake
DNo handshake at all
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

TCP connection release commonly uses:

AA three-way handshake
BA four-way handshake (FIN/ACK exchanges from each side)
CNo termination process
DOnly a single RST packet
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

Flow control at the transport layer primarily protects:

AIntermediate routers from congestion
BThe receiver from being overwhelmed by the sender
CThe physical medium from interference
DThe application layer protocol choice
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

Congestion control, unlike flow control, is primarily concerned with protecting:

AThe receiving application only
BThe network (routers/links) from being overwhelmed
CThe sender's own buffer only
DThe physical transmission medium's voltage levels
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

TCP's slow start is an algorithm used for:

AFlow control exclusively
BCongestion control, gradually increasing the sending rate
CEstablishing a socket connection
DAssigning port numbers
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1059Ch 5 · Transport Layer

De-multiplexing at the transport layer refers to:

ACombining multiple application streams into one
BDelivering incoming data to the correct application process based on port number
CAssigning IP addresses to hosts
DEstablishing a physical connection
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

HTTPS differs from HTTP primarily by adding:

AFaster download speeds only
BTLS/SSL encryption for secure communication
CA different port for file transfer
DSupport for email only
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

FTP is primarily used for:

ASending email between servers
BTransferring files between a client and server
CResolving domain names to IP addresses
DCapturing live network traffic
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

IMAP differs from POP3 in that IMAP:

ADownloads and deletes mail from the server
BKeeps mail synchronized on the server across multiple devices
CCannot retrieve mail at all
DIs used only for sending mail
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

DNS is primarily responsible for:

AEncrypting web traffic
BTranslating domain names into IP addresses
CTransferring files between hosts
DManaging network devices via SNMP
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

In a peer-to-peer (P2P) application, participating hosts:

AAct only as clients, never as servers
BAct as both client and server, sharing resources directly
CRequire a central server for all data transfer
DCannot communicate with each other directly
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

Socket programming provides an API primarily for:

ADesigning physical network cabling
BBuilding networked applications atop the transport layer (TCP/UDP)
CCreating DNS records
DAnalyzing captured packets
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

SNMP is used primarily for:

AEncrypting email
BCollecting and organizing information about managed network devices
CTransferring large files
DResolving domain names
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

Wireshark is best described as a:

AFile transfer client
BPacket analyzer/protocol sniffer for capturing and inspecting live network traffic
CDomain name resolution service
DEmail server
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

Cisco Packet Tracer is primarily used for:

ALive production network monitoring only
BSimulating, designing, and troubleshooting virtual network topologies
CSending email
DFile compression
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1059Ch 5 · Application Layer

PuTTY is commonly used as a client for:

AFTP file transfer only
BSSH/Telnet remote login sessions
CDNS resolution
DPacket capturing
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

The security property ensuring information is not altered in an unauthorized manner is called:

AConfidentiality
BIntegrity
CAvailability
DAuthentication
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

A passive attack, such as eavesdropping, is characterized by:

AModifying transmitted data
BMonitoring traffic without altering data, making it hard to detect
CAlways causing a denial of service
DRequiring the attacker's private key
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

Symmetric-key cryptography uses:

AA different key for encryption and decryption
BThe same secret key for both encryption and decryption
CNo key at all
DOnly public keys
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

In asymmetric-key cryptography, encryption is typically performed using:

AThe recipient's private key
BThe recipient's public key
CA shared symmetric key only
DNo key at all
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

The RSA algorithm's security is based on the computational difficulty of:

AAdding large numbers
BFactoring the product of two large prime numbers
CSorting large data sets
DComputing a checksum
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

A digital signature is created using the sender's:

APublic key
BPrivate key
CSymmetric session key only
DMAC address
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

PGP is primarily used to secure:

AWeb browsing traffic (HTTPS)
BElectronic mail (confidentiality and authentication)
CWireless LAN access
DDNS queries
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

SSL/TLS is primarily used to secure:

APhysical cabling
BTCP connections, such as for HTTPS web traffic
CMAC address resolution
DRouting table updates
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

IPsec operates at which layer, and is commonly used to build:

AApplication layer; used to build web servers
BNetwork layer; used to build VPNs
CPhysical layer; used to build cabling standards
DData link layer; used to build switches
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1059Ch 5 · Network Security

WEP, as a wireless LAN security protocol, is now considered:

AThe strongest available wireless security
BLargely obsolete due to well-known cryptographic weaknesses
CImmune to all attacks
DUnrelated to wireless networking
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

Electric field intensity E is defined as:

ACharge per unit volume
BForce per unit positive charge
CFlux per unit area only
DPotential per unit distance squared
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

The divergence theorem relates a surface integral to:

AA line integral
BA volume integral of the divergence
CA point charge value only
DA magnetic field integral
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

Electric potential V relates to electric field E by:

AE = ∇V
BE = −∇V (potential gradient)
CE = V²
DThere is no relation
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

The energy density stored in an electrostatic field is given by:

Awₑ = εE
Bwₑ = ½εE²
Cwₑ = E/ε
Dwₑ = ε²E
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

An electric dipole's strength is characterized by its:

ATotal charge only
BDipole moment, p = Qd
CRelative permittivity
DRelaxation time
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

Bound charges, unlike free charges, are:

AAble to move freely through a conductor
BLocked in place within atoms/molecules but can shift slightly (polarize)
CAlways zero in any material
DFound only in perfect conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

The continuity equation, ∇·J = −∂ρ/∂t, expresses:

AConservation of energy
BConservation of charge
CConservation of momentum
DNewton's second law
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

Relaxation time in a conductor represents:

AThe time for a wave to travel one wavelength
BThe time constant for excess charge to dissipate to the surface
CThe period of an AC signal
DThe time for a dipole to form
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

Laplace's equation, ∇²V = 0, applies to a region that is:

AFilled uniformly with charge
BFree of charge
CA perfect conductor only
DAlways time-varying
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1059Ch 6 · Electric Field

The uniqueness theorem in electrostatics guarantees that:

AMultiple different solutions can satisfy the same boundary conditions
BA solution satisfying the given boundary conditions is the only correct solution
CBoundary conditions are irrelevant
DLaplace's equation has no solution
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

Biot-Savart's law is used to determine:

AThe electric field from a point charge
BThe magnetic field produced by a current element
CThe potential at infinity
DThe relaxation time of a conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

Ampere's circuital law states that the line integral of H around a closed path equals:

AZero always
BThe current enclosed by the path
CThe electric flux through the path
DThe magnetic flux density at the center
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

A non-zero curl of a vector field indicates:

AThe field has a source or sink there
BThe field has a rotational (circulating) tendency at that point
CThe field is exactly zero
DThe field is purely radial
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

Stoke's theorem converts a closed line integral into:

AA volume integral of divergence
BA surface integral of the curl
CA point charge calculation
DA scalar potential difference
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

The magnetic force on a moving charge (F = qv×B) is always:

AParallel to the velocity
BPerpendicular to both velocity and magnetic field
CParallel to the magnetic field only
DZero regardless of velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by:

AF = qE
BF = IL × B
CF = ½εE²
DF = μ₀H
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is given by:

Am = Qd
Bm = IA
Cm = εE
Dm = σA
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

Magnetization (M) is defined as:

AMagnetic field intensity itself
BMagnetic dipole moment per unit volume induced in a material
CThe relaxation time of a magnetic material
DElectric flux density
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

At a boundary between two media (no surface current), which component of H is continuous?

AThe normal component
BThe tangential component
CNeither component
DBoth are always discontinuous
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1059Ch 6 · Magnetic Field

At any boundary between two media, which component of B is always continuous?

AThe tangential component
BThe normal component
CNeither component
DB is never continuous
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

Displacement current was introduced by Maxwell to:

AReplace conduction current entirely
BFix an inconsistency in Ampere's law for time-varying fields
CEliminate the need for Faraday's law
DIncrease the speed of light
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

In a lossless dielectric, a propagating plane wave:

AAttenuates rapidly
BPropagates without attenuation, with E and H in phase
CCannot exist
DHas a complex propagation constant only
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

In a good conductor, a propagating electromagnetic wave:

APropagates without any loss
BAttenuates very rapidly due to the skin effect
CHas E and H exactly in phase
DCannot be described by Maxwell's equations
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

Skin depth in a good conductor refers to:

AThe total thickness of the conductor
BThe depth at which the wave amplitude falls to 1/e of its surface value
CThe wavelength in free space
DThe Brewster angle
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

The propagation constant γ = α + jβ in a lossy medium includes:

AOnly a phase constant
BBoth an attenuation constant (α) and a phase constant (β)
COnly an attenuation constant
DNeither attenuation nor phase information
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

The Brewster angle refers to the angle of incidence at which:

ATotal internal reflection occurs
BReflection is zero for parallel-polarized incident waves
CThe wave travels fastest
DSkin depth is maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence:

AIs less than the critical angle
BExceeds the critical angle, at a boundary going from denser to less dense medium
CEquals exactly 0°
DIs irrelevant to reflection
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave Equation & Wave Propagation

Oblique incidence of a plane wave at a boundary is governed by:

AOhm's law
BSnell's law
CKirchhoff's law
DCoulomb's law
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

A rectangular waveguide, unlike a coaxial cable, cannot support which propagation mode?

ATE mode
BTM mode
CTEM (Transverse Electromagnetic) mode
DIt supports all modes equally
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

In TE (Transverse Electric) mode, which field component is zero in the direction of propagation?

AThe magnetic field component
BThe electric field component
CBoth fields are zero
DNeither field is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

In TM (Transverse Magnetic) mode, which field component is zero in the direction of propagation?

AThe electric field component
BThe magnetic field component
CBoth fields are zero
DNeither field is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is generally:

ATM₁₁
BTE₁₀, having the lowest cutoff frequency
CTEM
DThere is no dominant mode
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

An antenna functions primarily as a:

APure resistor
BTransducer converting guided electromagnetic energy to free-space radiation, and vice versa
CDigital logic device
DFrequency multiplier only
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

The reciprocity theorem in antenna theory states that:

ATransmitting and receiving properties of an antenna are entirely different
BTransmitting and receiving properties (pattern, gain, impedance) are identical
CAn antenna cannot both transmit and receive
DGain is always greater than directivity
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

Antenna gain differs from directivity in that gain:

AIgnores antenna losses entirely
BAccounts for antenna efficiency (gain = efficiency × directivity)
CIs always greater than directivity
DHas no relation to directivity at all
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

Antenna beamwidth is typically measured at which points of the radiation pattern's main lobe?

AThe nulls
BThe half-power (3 dB) points
CThe side lobes
DThe antenna terminals
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

Antenna polarization refers to:

AThe antenna's physical size
BThe orientation of the electric field vector of the radiated wave
CThe antenna's operating frequency only
DThe waveguide's cutoff frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1059Ch 6 · Wave-Guides & Antenna

Waveguides are used mainly at microwave frequencies because at these frequencies:

ACoaxial cable losses become excessive
BWire cables become cheaper
CNo other transmission medium works at all
DAntennas cannot be used
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

An isotropic antenna is best described as:

AA physically realizable, highly directional antenna
BA hypothetical, idealized antenna radiating equally in all directions
CA type of parabolic reflector
DA waveguide mode
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

An omnidirectional antenna, such as a simple dipole, radiates:

AEqually in all three-dimensional directions
BUniformly in one plane, but not uniformly perpendicular to it
COnly in a single narrow beam
DNowhere; it does not radiate
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

Traveling wave antennas, such as the Rhombus antenna, are characterized by being:

AResonant and narrowband
BNon-resonant, terminated structures supporting a wide bandwidth
CUnable to be terminated
DUsed only at optical frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A parabolic reflector antenna is valued primarily for its:

ALow gain and simple construction only
BVery high gain, by focusing rays to/from a single feed point
CInability to be used at microwave frequencies
DOmnidirectional radiation pattern
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A corner reflector antenna uses:

AA single flat sheet only
BTwo flat sheets meeting at an angle to focus radiation
CA parabolic dish
DA helical conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A horn antenna functions primarily as a(n):

APurely resonant dipole
BFlared waveguide section matching impedance from the guide to free space
CClosed conducting loop
DDigital signal processor
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A Yagi-Uda antenna achieves high gain using:

AA single isolated element only
BA driven element plus parasitic reflector and director elements
CA parabolic dish
DA microstrip patch only
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A log-periodic antenna is notable for offering:

AVery narrow bandwidth only
BWide bandwidth with frequency-independent performance
CNo directivity at all
DOnly vertical polarization
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A helical antenna is commonly used to produce:

ALinear polarization only
BCircular polarization, useful for satellite communication
CNo radiation at all
DOnly reception, never transmission
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1059Ch 6 · Antenna Classification

A microstrip (patch) antenna is characterized by:

ABeing extremely bulky and heavy
BA low-profile, flat conductive patch on a dielectric substrate, easily integrated onto PCBs
CRequiring a parabolic dish structure
DOperating only underwater
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Ground (surface) wave propagation is dominant at which frequency range?

ALow/medium frequencies (e.g. AM broadcast)
BOptical frequencies only
CExtremely high frequencies (EHF) only
DIt is never used in practice
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Space wave propagation consists of:

AOnly a ground wave
BA direct (line-of-sight) wave combined with a ground-reflected wave
COnly an ionospheric wave
DA wave that never reaches the receiver
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Ionospheric (sky) wave propagation enables long-distance communication by:

ATraveling in a perfectly straight line only
BBeing refracted back to Earth by ionized layers of the ionosphere
CBeing absorbed completely by the atmosphere
DBouncing off the Moon
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Duct propagation (tropospheric ducting) allows a wave to:

ABe completely absorbed by the atmosphere
BTravel well beyond normal line-of-sight range, trapped within an atmospheric layer
CNever leave the transmitting antenna
DPropagate only underground
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Tropospheric scatter propagation relies on:

AReflection from the ionosphere
BScattering by irregularities/turbulence in the troposphere
CGround-wave attenuation only
DDirect line-of-sight only, with no scattering
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer is defined as:

AThe lowest frequency that can ever propagate
BThe highest frequency at which a vertically incident wave is reflected back by that layer
CThe frequency of visible light
DA frequency unrelated to the ionosphere
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Above the critical frequency, a vertically incident wave will:

AAlways be reflected back to Earth
BPenetrate through the ionospheric layer into space
CBe completely absorbed at the surface
DTravel only via ground wave
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Free space propagation is an idealized model that assumes:

ASignificant reflections and obstructions
BNo obstructions, reflections, or atmospheric effects, with power following the inverse-square law
CA ground-reflected wave dominates entirely
DSignal power increases with distance
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

Plane earth propagation modeling accounts for:

AOnly the direct wave, ignoring the ground
BInterference between the direct wave and a ground-reflected wave
COnly ionospheric refraction
DNo wave propagation at all
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1059Ch 6 · Propagation & Radio Frequency Spectrum

The ionosphere's critical frequency varies primarily with:

AOnly the receiver's antenna gain
BTime of day, season, and solar activity
CThe transmitter's physical location on the ground only
DThe transmission line impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

The basic building-block chain of a communication system is:

AReceiver → Channel → Transmitter → Source
BSource → Transmitter → Channel → Receiver → Destination
CChannel → Source → Destination
DDestination → Source → Channel
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Compared to analog systems, digital communication systems offer the key advantage of:

ASimpler transmitter design only
BNoise immunity through signal regeneration
CZero bandwidth requirement
DInability to be encrypted
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) is defined as:

ANoise power divided by signal power
BSignal power divided by noise power
CThe sum of signal and noise power
DThe carrier frequency divided by bandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Thermal noise in a receiver is best classified as:

AAn external channel disturbance only
BAn internal noise source arising from the receiver's own components
CA type of modulation
DA digital coding technique
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

A digital communication system converts the message into:

AA continuously varying analog waveform only
BDiscrete symbols/bits before transmission
CPure noise
DAn unmodulated carrier
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Regeneration in a digital communication system refers to:

AAmplifying analog noise along with the signal
BDetecting and re-transmitting clean pulses at intermediate repeater points
CRemoving the need for a receiver
DConverting digital signals back to pure noise
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

The transmitter in a communication system is primarily responsible for:

ARecovering the original message
BConverting the message into a form suitable for the channel (e.g. via modulation/coding)
CGenerating random noise
DStoring the message permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Analog communication systems are generally more susceptible than digital systems to:

AEncryption failures only
BNoise accumulation along the transmission path
CBeing demodulated at all
DHaving no transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

The receiver's primary role in a communication system is to:

AIntroduce noise into the channel
BReverse the transmitter's processing to recover the original message
CGenerate the carrier signal only
DReplace the destination
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1059Ch 7 · Communications System

Noise entering a communication system primarily corrupts the signal at the:

AInformation source
BChannel
CDestination only
DIt never corrupts the signal
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

A low pass signal is characterized by significant frequency content:

AConcentrated around a high, non-zero center frequency
BConcentrated around DC (0 Hz) up to some cutoff
COnly at a single discrete frequency
DUniformly across all frequencies to infinity
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

A band pass signal is characterized by significant frequency content:

AConcentrated around DC only
BConcentrated around some non-zero center frequency, within a band
CZero at all frequencies
DPresent at negative frequencies only
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

For distortionless transmission, the system output must satisfy:

Ay(t) = x(t)²
By(t) = K·x(t−t₀)
Cy(t) = x(t) + noise only
Dy(t) is unrelated to x(t)
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

Distortionless transmission requires the system's magnitude response to be:

AHighly variable across frequency
BConstant (flat) across the signal's bandwidth
CZero everywhere
DIncreasing linearly with frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

Distortionless transmission requires the system's phase response to be:

ARandom with frequency
BLinear with frequency (constant group delay)
CExactly zero at all frequencies
DQuadratic with frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

A non-flat magnitude response in a transmission system causes:

ADelay (phase) distortion only
BAmplitude distortion
CNo distortion at all
DOnly frequency shifting
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

The Hilbert transform of a signal shifts each frequency component by:

A180°
B90°
C0° (no change)
D45° only for positive frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

The Hilbert transform is commonly used in generating:

AAM signals only
BSingle-Sideband (SSB) modulated signals
CDigital logic circuits
DPower system fault currents
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

The bandwidth of a system determines primarily:

AIts physical size
BThe maximum data rate/information content it can support
CIts cost only
DIts color/appearance
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1059Ch 7 · Representation of Signals & Systems

An analytic signal, constructed using the Hilbert transform, is used to define:

AOnly the DC value of a signal
BInstantaneous amplitude, phase, and frequency
CThe physical bandwidth of a cable
DThe noise figure of a receiver
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

In Amplitude Modulation, the carrier's amplitude is varied in proportion to:

AThe carrier frequency
BThe message signal
CRandom noise
DThe sampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

In Frequency Modulation, the carrier's frequency spectrum consists of:

AOnly a single carrier line with no sidebands
BAn infinite number of sidebands described by Bessel functions
CExactly two sidebands only
DNo spectral content at all
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Conventional (full) AM, compared to DSB-SC, transmits:

ANo carrier at all
BThe carrier plus both sidebands
COnly one sideband
DOnly the carrier, with no sidebands
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Synchronous (coherent) detection is required for demodulating:

AConventional AM only
BDSB-SC and SSB-SC signals
CFM signals exclusively
DDigital ASK signals only
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Carson's rule is used to estimate the bandwidth of:

AAM signals
BFM signals
CASK signals
DPCM signals
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Among ASK, FSK, and PSK, which generally offers the best noise resistance?

AASK
BFSK
CPSK
DAll are identical
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Phase Shift Keying (PSK) represents digital data by varying the carrier's:

AAmplitude
BFrequency
CPhase
DBandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

M-ary data communication systems encode how many bits per symbol?

A1 bit always
Blog₂M bits
CM bits always
DNo bits; it is analog only
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Increasing M in an M-ary modulation scheme generally:

AReduces bandwidth efficiency
BImproves bandwidth efficiency but requires higher SNR for the same error rate
CHas no effect on system performance
DEliminates the need for a carrier
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1059Ch 7 · Modulation

Narrowband FM (NBFM) is characterized by a modulation index β that is:

AMuch greater than 1
BMuch less than 1
CExactly equal to infinity
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

The standard analog-to-digital communication process follows the order:

AEncoding → Sampling → Quantization
BSampling → Quantization → Encoding
CQuantization → Encoding → Sampling
DEncoding → Quantization → Sampling
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Source coding is applied primarily to:

AAdd redundancy for error correction
BRemove redundancy and reduce the number of bits required
CModulate the carrier frequency
DFilter channel noise
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) represents sampled and quantized values as:

AAnalog waveforms
BBinary codewords
CPure sine waves
DRandom noise
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Non-uniform quantization (via companding) is used primarily to:

AWorsen SNR for weak signals
BImprove SNR for low-amplitude signals by using smaller step sizes there
CEliminate quantization noise completely
DIncrease the sampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

For a uniform quantizer, the maximum quantization error is:

AEqual to the step size
BHalf the step size
CTwice the step size
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

The Shannon-Hartley theorem gives channel capacity as:

AC = B log₂(1+S/N)
BC = B/N
CC = S × N
DC = 2B
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Increasing the signal-to-noise ratio (S/N), according to Shannon-Hartley, generally:

ADecreases channel capacity
BIncreases the maximum achievable channel capacity
CHas no effect on capacity
DMakes the channel unusable
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) shares a channel among signals by dividing it in:

AFrequency
BTime
CWavelength
DAmplitude
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) is most commonly associated with:

ADigital PCM telephony exclusively
BAnalog systems, assigning each signal a distinct frequency band
COptical fiber wavelength sharing
DError correction coding
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1059Ch 7 · Digital Communication Systems

Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) varies the:

APulse frequency in proportion to the message
BPulse amplitude in proportion to the sampled message value
CPulse phase only
DBit error rate
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

The self-information of an event with probability p is given by:

AI = p²
BI = log₂(1/p) bits
CI = 1/p²
DI = p×log₂(p)
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Entropy of a source represents:

AThe maximum possible bit rate of any channel
BThe average information per symbol, and the theoretical minimum bits needed to represent it
CThe carrier frequency
DThe quantization step size
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Unipolar NRZ line coding is characterized by having:

ANo DC component and self-clocking
BA DC component and no self-clocking
CZero bandwidth requirement
DOnly negative pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Bipolar (AMI) line coding alternates the polarity of successive:

A0 bits
B1 bits
CAll bits equally
DOnly the first bit
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Manchester coding guarantees a signal transition:

AOnly at the start of a frame
BEvery bit interval, providing self-clocking
CNever, since it uses NRZ
DOnly for 0 bits
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI) refers to:

ANoise generated purely by the receiver
BOverlapping of adjacent symbol pulses causing detection errors
CA type of line coding
DThe channel capacity theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

The raised-cosine pulse shape is designed to achieve:

AMaximum ISI
BZero ISI at the correct sampling instants (Nyquist criterion)
CInfinite bandwidth
DNo relationship to bandwidth at all
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Which of the following is an example of a block error control code?

AConvolutional code
BHamming code
CManchester code
DRaised-cosine pulse
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Convolutional codes are typically decoded using:

AThe Viterbi algorithm
BHuffman coding
CThe Fourier transform
DCompanding
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1059Ch 7 · Baseband & Bandpass Data Communication

Line coding is applied primarily to:

AIncrease the noise power in a channel
BRepresent digital data as electrical pulses suitable for transmission over a physical channel
CEliminate the need for a receiver
DPerform analog modulation only
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

A random signal (stochastic process) is best described by:

AA single deterministic formula
BStatistical properties such as mean, variance, and correlation
CZero information content
DOnly its peak amplitude
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

A wide-sense stationary (WSS) process has:

AA time-varying mean and arbitrary autocorrelation
BA constant mean, with autocorrelation depending only on the time difference between samples
CNo autocorrelation at all
DInfinite variance always
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

A process is called ergodic if:

AIts time averages differ completely from ensemble averages
BIts time averages (from one sample function) equal its ensemble averages
CIt has zero mean always
DIt cannot be measured practically
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

White noise is characterized by having:

AA power spectral density that varies strongly with frequency
BA constant (flat) power spectral density across all frequencies
CZero power at all frequencies
DPower concentrated only at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

Thermal noise in a receiver is well-approximated, over practical bandwidths, as:

APerfectly periodic noise
BWhite noise
CA deterministic sine wave
DHaving zero power
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

Bandlimited white noise differs from ideal white noise in that bandlimited white noise has:

AInfinite total power
BFinite total power, due to being passed through a filter
CZero power spectral density
DNo relation to white noise at all
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

The power spectral density (PSD) of a random process describes:

AHow power is distributed across time only
BHow average power is distributed across frequency
CThe exact instantaneous value of the signal
DThe bit error rate
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

The autocorrelation function R(τ) of a WSS process measures:

AThe signal's peak amplitude
BHow similar the process is to a time-shifted version of itself
CThe channel's bandwidth
DThe quantization error
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

The Wiener-Khinchin theorem relates power spectral density to:

AThe Hilbert transform of the signal
BThe Fourier transform of the autocorrelation function
CThe channel capacity theorem
DThe quantization step size
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1059Ch 7 · Random Signals & Noise

For ideal white noise, the autocorrelation function is:

AConstant for all τ
BAn impulse at τ = 0, indicating samples are uncorrelated for any nonzero separation
CZero everywhere, including at τ=0
DA pure sinusoid
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The sifting property of the unit impulse function states that:

A∫x(t)δ(t−t₀)dt = x(t₀)
B∫x(t)dt = δ(t)
Cδ(t) = x(t) always
D∫δ(t)dt = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The sinc function is the Fourier transform pair of:

AA unit impulse
BAn ideal rectangular (low pass) spectrum
CA pure sinusoid only
DWhite noise
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The impulse response of an LTI system is defined as its output when the input is:

AA unit step
BA unit impulse
CA sinusoid of infinite frequency
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The output of a continuous-time LTI system for any input is found via:

AMultiplication of input and impulse response
BConvolution of input with the impulse response
CAddition of input and impulse response
DDifferentiation of the input
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The Discrete-Time Fourier Series (DTFS), unlike the CTFS, represents a periodic signal using:

AAn infinite number of harmonics always
BA finite sum of N harmonics
CNo harmonics at all
DOnly the fundamental frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The Discrete-Time Fourier Transform (DTFT) of a sequence is always:

AAperiodic in frequency
BPeriodic in frequency with period 2π
CDefined only for finite sequences
DIdentical to the DTFS
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

Energy Spectral Density (ESD) of a signal is given by:

A|X(ω)|
B|X(ω)|²
CX(ω)³
D1/X(ω)
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

Power Spectral Density (PSD) applies most naturally to:

AFinite-energy signals only
BPower signals (with finite average power, possibly infinite energy)
COnly deterministic impulse signals
DOnly DC signals
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The Hilbert transform of a signal changes its:

AMagnitude spectrum only
BPhase by 90°, without changing the magnitude spectrum
CAmplitude to zero
DFrequency content entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1059Ch 8 · Signal and System

The signum function sgn(t) is defined as:

AAlways zero
B+1 for t>0, −1 for t<0, 0 at t=0
COnly positive values
DEqual to u(t) exactly
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

The sampling theorem states that perfect reconstruction requires the sampling rate fₛ to satisfy:

Afₛ < fₘₐₓ
Bfₛ ≥ 2fₘₐₓ (the Nyquist rate)
Cfₛ = fₘₐₓ exactly
Dfₛ = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

The linearity property of an LTI system means it obeys:

AOnly time-invariance
BSuperposition
COnly causality
DOnly BIBO stability
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

A causal system's output at any given time depends on:

AFuture inputs only
BPresent and past inputs only
CNothing at all
DOnly the system's memory-less property
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

The frequency response H(ω) of an LTI system is obtained by:

ATaking the derivative of the impulse response
BTaking the Fourier transform of the impulse response
CSquaring the input signal
DSampling the output signal
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

The impulse response of an ideal low pass filter is a:

ARectangular pulse
BSinc function
CUnit step
DDelta function
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

The step response of an ideal low pass filter exhibits:

APerfect, distortion-free transition
BOvershoot/ringing, known as the Gibbs phenomenon
CZero output at all times
DInfinite bandwidth with no distortion
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

BIBO stability of an LTI system requires that its impulse response be:

AInfinite in duration always
BAbsolutely summable/integrable
CExactly zero
DA pure sinusoid
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

For a causal discrete-time system described by a transfer function, BIBO stability requires all poles to lie:

AOutside the unit circle
BStrictly inside the unit circle in the z-plane
CExactly on the unit circle
DAt the origin only
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

Implementation of a discrete-time LTI system is typically based on:

AContinuous integration only
BA difference equation, realized with delay elements, multipliers, and adders
CRandom number generation
DOnly analog components
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1059Ch 8 · Linear Time Invariant System

A memoryless system's output at any time depends on:

APast and future inputs
BOnly the present input value
CNothing at all
DOnly the system's impulse response history
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The z-transform of a sequence x[n] is defined as:

AX(z) = Σx[n]zⁿ
BX(z) = Σx[n]z⁻ⁿ
CX(z) = ∫x(t)e⁻Ṙωᳳdt
DX(z) = x[n]²
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The DTFT of a sequence can be obtained from its z-transform by:

ASetting z=0
BEvaluating X(z) on the unit circle (z=e^(jω))
CTaking the derivative of X(z)
DSetting z to infinity
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The Region of Convergence (ROC) of a causal sequence is typically:

AThe interior of a circle
BThe exterior of a circle (|z|>r)
CThe entire z-plane always
DA single point only
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

Convolution in the time domain corresponds, in the z-domain, to:

AAddition of z-transforms
BMultiplication of z-transforms
CDivision of z-transforms
DDifferentiation of z-transforms
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The system function H(z), evaluated on the unit circle, gives the system's:

ATransient response only
BSteady-state sinusoidal (frequency) response
CPole locations only
DTime-domain impulse response directly
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

For a causal LTI system, BIBO stability requires all poles of H(z) to lie:

AOutside the unit circle
BStrictly inside the unit circle
CExactly on the unit circle
DAt z=1 only
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) can be understood as:

AA continuous transform with no relation to the DTFT
BThe DTFT of a finite-length sequence, sampled at N discrete frequency points
COnly applicable to analog signals
DIdentical to the z-transform in all respects
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

Multiplying the DFTs of two sequences and taking the inverse DFT yields:

ATheir linear convolution
BTheir circular convolution
CTheir cross-correlation only
DZero, always
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

Sampling the DTFT in the frequency domain corresponds, in the time domain, to:

ACompressing the original sequence
BPeriodic repetition of the original sequence
CDeleting the original sequence
DNo change at all
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1059Ch 8 · Z-Transform & Discrete Fourier Transform

The inverse z-transform can be computed using:

AOnly numerical integration in the time domain
BPartial fraction expansion, power series expansion, or the contour integral (residue) method
COnly the sampling theorem
DOnly the Hilbert transform
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

A direct-form realization of a digital filter implements the difference equation using:

AOnly analog components
BDelay elements, multipliers, and adders
COnly a single multiplier
DNo delay elements at all
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

A key advantage of the lattice structure over direct form is:

AHigher sensitivity to coefficient quantization
BBetter numerical robustness to coefficient quantization
CInability to realize IIR filters
DRequiring no reflection coefficients
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

A lattice-ladder structure is used specifically to realize:

AOnly FIR filters
BFull IIR filters, including both poles and zeros
COnly analog filters
DOnly the DFT
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Fixed-point number representation is characterized by:

AA variable number of bits for integer/fractional parts
BA fixed number of bits allocated to integer and fractional parts, with limited dynamic range
CInfinite precision always
DRepresenting numbers as mantissa times an exponent
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Floating-point representation offers which advantage over fixed-point?

ASimpler hardware
BWider dynamic range, at the cost of more complex hardware
CNo rounding error ever
DFixed precision at all magnitudes
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Rounding error, compared to truncation error, is generally:

ABiased in one direction
BSymmetric, bounded by ±half the quantization step
CAlways larger
DImpossible to bound
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Truncation, as a finite-precision effect, produces an error that is:

ASymmetric around zero
BBiased (one-directional)
CAlways exactly zero
DLarger than rounding error in all cases
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Quantizing filter coefficients to finite precision primarily causes:

ANo change to the filter's poles/zeros
BPerturbation of the actual pole/zero locations from their ideal design values
CAutomatic improvement in filter stability
DElimination of the need for a filter structure
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

Coefficient quantization effects are especially critical for filters whose poles are located:

AFar from the unit circle
BNear the unit circle (e.g. narrow-band, high-Q filters)
CAt the origin of the z-plane
DOutside the region of convergence only
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1059Ch 8 · Implementation of Discrete-Time System

The conversion between direct-form coefficients and lattice reflection coefficients is typically performed using:

AA single multiplication
BA recursive algorithm (e.g. Levinson-Durbin-type recursion)
CRandom guessing
DThe sampling theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

Classical IIR filter design typically starts from:

AA random coefficient set
BA well-known analog prototype filter (e.g. Butterworth, Chebyshev)
CAn FIR filter converted directly
DA window function only
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

The impulse-invariant method for IIR design obtains the digital filter by:

ASampling the analog prototype's frequency response
BSampling the analog prototype's impulse response
CIgnoring the analog prototype entirely
DUsing only FIR techniques
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

FIR filter design by Fourier approximation computes coefficients as:

AThe derivative of the desired frequency response
BThe truncated inverse Fourier transform of the desired frequency response
CA random sequence
DThe z-transform of the input signal
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

The window function method for FIR design is used primarily to:

AIncrease ripple near band edges
BTaper the truncated impulse response, reducing ripple at the cost of a wider transition band
CEliminate the need for any filter design method
DConvert an FIR filter into an IIR filter
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

Which window is NOT commonly used in FIR filter design by the window method?

AHamming
BHanning
CBlackman
DGaussian elimination
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

The frequency sampling method for FIR design computes coefficients by:

ATaking the derivative of a specified response
BApplying the inverse DFT to a desired frequency response specified at discrete points
CRandomly selecting values
DUsing only analog components
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

The Remez exchange algorithm (Parks-McClellan) designs FIR filters by:

AMinimizing the maximum (Chebyshev/minimax) approximation error
BMaximizing the ripple in the passband
CIgnoring the stopband entirely
DUsing only a single window function
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

An equi-ripple FIR filter design distributes approximation error:

AOnly in the passband, never the stopband
BEqually across ripples in both passband and stopband
CRandomly and unevenly
DOnly at a single frequency point
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

Compared to window-based FIR design, equi-ripple (Remez) design generally achieves:

AA higher filter order for the same specifications
BA lower (more efficient) filter order for the same specifications
CIdentical results in all cases
DNo usable frequency response
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1059Ch 8 · IIR & FIR Filter Design

A key drawback of the impulse-invariant method for IIR design is:

AComplete elimination of aliasing
BPotential aliasing in the resulting digital filter's frequency response
CInability to design any IIR filter at all
DRequiring an FIR prototype
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

A digital filter processes its input according to:

AA continuous analog equation only
BA difference equation (FIR or IIR)
CNo mathematical relationship at all
DOnly random noise addition
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

The FFT algorithm reduces the computational complexity of computing a DFT from:

AO(N) to O(N²)
BO(N²) to O(Nlog₂N)
CO(Nlog₂N) to O(N³)
DThere is no complexity reduction
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

Fast convolution using the FFT relies on the principle that:

AConvolution in time equals addition in frequency
BConvolution in time equals multiplication in frequency
CThe FFT cannot be used for convolution
DConvolution requires no transform at all
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

The FFT is commonly used in spectral analysis to:

AIncrease the signal's amplitude
BEstimate a signal's frequency content
CEliminate the need for sampling
DConvert digital signals to analog
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

Frequency-domain filtering using the FFT involves:

AMultiplying the signal's spectrum by the desired frequency response, then taking the inverse FFT
BAdding noise to the time-domain signal directly
CIgnoring the frequency response entirely
DUsing only analog filters
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing), used in modern communications, relies heavily on:

AAnalog filtering only
BFFT/IFFT processing
CDirect-form IIR filters exclusively
DManual Fourier series calculation
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

Digital filters can be implemented in which of the following ways?

AHardware (DSP/FPGA/ASIC) or software on a general-purpose processor
BOnly as purely mechanical devices
COnly using analog components
DThey cannot be implemented practically
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

Cascade (second-order sections) implementation of a digital filter is chosen mainly to improve:

AComputational speed only, with no other benefit
BNumerical robustness/reduced sensitivity to coefficient quantization
CThe filter's physical size only
DThe need for an FFT
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

The FFT enables practical frequency-domain processing mainly because it:

AIncreases computational complexity for large datasets
BMakes frequency-domain analysis of large datasets computationally feasible
CRemoves the need for any digital signal processing
DWorks only for very small datasets
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1059Ch 8 · Digital Filter

2-D FFT is an application area relevant to:

AAudio-only processing
BImage processing
COnly analog telephony
DMechanical engineering exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

The first generation (1G) of mobile telecommunication systems was characterized by:

ADigital voice and SMS
BAnalog voice transmission only
CAll-IP packet data
DMassive MIMO and mmWave
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

2G mobile systems (e.g. GSM, CDMA) introduced which major advancement over 1G?

AAnalog transmission
BDigital transmission with voice and low-rate data (SMS)
CTerahertz frequency bands
DOptical fibre backhaul only
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

4G (LTE/LTE-Advanced) networks are distinguished by being:

ACircuit-switched voice only
BAll-IP, OFDMA-based mobile broadband
CPurely analog
DLimited to 1G-level data rates
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

5G networks primarily add which new capability compared to 4G?

AAnalog voice only
BMassive machine-type communication and ultra-reliable low-latency communication (URLLC)
CRemoval of mobile broadband
DExclusive use of twisted-pair cable
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

Which transmission medium offers the highest bandwidth and lowest attenuation for long-haul telecommunication backbones?

ATwisted pair copper cable
BCoaxial cable
COptical fibre
DOpen wire lines
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

Twisted pair copper cable is most commonly associated with:

ALong-haul submarine links
BThe local loop/telephone access network
CDeep-space satellite communication
D5G mmWave backhaul
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

A key advantage of wireless/radio transmission media over wired media is:

AZero propagation loss
BSupport for user mobility without a physical medium
CComplete immunity to interference
DNo need for spectrum regulation
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

The evolution of telecommunication historically began with:

AThe internet
BThe electrical telegraph
C5G cellular networks
DOptical fibre
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

Which of the following is a future trend in telecommunication networks?

AAbandoning digital transmission
BNetwork function virtualization (NFV) and software-defined networking (SDN)
CElimination of mobile broadband
DReturning to analog-only systems
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1059Ch 9 · Telecommunication and its Evolution

Coaxial cable, compared to twisted pair, generally offers:

ALower bandwidth
BHigher bandwidth and better shielding
CNo use in telecommunication
DOnly wireless connectivity
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

The free space propagation model assumes received power decreases with distance d as:

A1/d
B1/d²
C1/d³
DIndependent of d
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Diffraction in radio propagation refers to:

AReflection off a large smooth surface
BBending of waves around an obstacle's edge, reaching shadow regions
CScattering from rough surfaces only
DComplete absorption of the signal
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Scattering occurs when a radio wave encounters an object that is:

AMuch larger than the wavelength and smooth
BComparable to or smaller than the wavelength (e.g. rough surfaces, foliage)
CPerfectly absorbing
DLocated exactly at the transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

The Rayleigh fading model is typically applied when:

AA strong line-of-sight component exists
BThere is no dominant line-of-sight signal component
CThe channel is completely static
DOnly free-space propagation occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

The cellular concept increases system capacity mainly by:

AUsing a single very powerful transmitter for the whole area
BReusing the same frequencies in non-adjacent cells
CEliminating the need for base stations
DUsing only one channel for all users
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Handover (handoff) in a cellular network refers to:

ATerminating a call when signal quality drops
BTransferring an ongoing call from one cell/base station to another as the user moves
CAssigning a fixed channel permanently to a user
DSwitching off the mobile device
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Cell splitting is used to:

AReduce the number of base stations
BSubdivide a congested cell into smaller cells with reduced transmit power, increasing capacity
CIncrease the cell radius indefinitely
DEliminate frequency reuse
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Cell sectoring improves system performance mainly by:

AUsing an omnidirectional antenna only
BUsing directional antennas to reduce co-channel interference and improve frequency reuse
CRemoving the need for channel assignment
DIncreasing cell size
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

A key difference between fixed and dynamic channel assignment strategies is: allocation

AFixed assignment allocates channels flexibly in real time
BDynamic assignment allocates channels based on real-time demand, while fixed assignment uses a pre-set
CBoth are identical in all respects
DDynamic assignment is used only for 1G systems
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1059Ch 9 · Cellular Network

Which propagation mechanism explains why a signal can be received even when there is no direct line-of-sight path to the transmitter?

AFree space propagation only
BDiffraction
COnly reflection from the ionosphere
DNone; signal is impossible without LOS
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Equalization in a wireless receiver is primarily used to:

AIncrease transmit power
BCompensate for inter-symbol interference (ISI) caused by a multipath channel
CGenerate the carrier signal
DEliminate the need for an antenna
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Diversity techniques combat fading by:

AUsing only a single signal path
BProviding multiple, ideally independently-faded copies of the same signal
CIncreasing the transmitted data rate
DEliminating multipath entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Space diversity is achieved by:

ATransmitting at different times
BUsing multiple physically separated antennas
CUsing different frequency channels
DIncreasing the code rate
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Spread spectrum modulation spreads a signal's energy over a bandwidth that is:

ANarrower than the minimum required
BMuch wider than strictly necessary for the data rate
CExactly equal to the data bandwidth
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) achieves spreading by:

AHopping the carrier frequency rapidly
BMultiplying the data signal by a high-rate pseudo-random noise (PN) code
CUsing multiple antennas only
DReducing the symbol rate to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) operates by:

AKeeping the carrier frequency fixed at all times
BRapidly switching the carrier frequency among channels per a pseudo-random sequence
CUsing only a single fixed time slot
DEliminating the carrier entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

In TDMA, multiple users are separated by:

ADifferent frequency bands
BDifferent, dedicated time slots within a shared frequency channel
CDifferent spreading codes only
DDifferent antenna polarizations only
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

In CDMA, users sharing the same time and frequency are distinguished by:

ADifferent time slots
BUnique orthogonal/near-orthogonal spreading codes
CDifferent antenna heights
DDifferent modulation index values
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

OFDMA, used in systems such as LTE/5G, allocates resources to users based on:

ADedicated analog frequency bands only
BOrthogonal narrowband subcarriers
CA single shared time slot for all users
DRandom unassigned resources
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1059Ch 9 · Signal and System

Time diversity combats fading by:

AUsing multiple antennas at different locations
BTransmitting the same information at different time instants so fades are decorrelated
CUsing a single frequency channel only
DReducing the transmitted power to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Digital (time-division) switching operates by:

APhysically connecting circuits via a crossbar matrix only
BSwitching digitized time slots between input and output, using techniques such as TSI/TST
CIgnoring the concept of time slots entirely
DOnly handling analog voice directly
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Circuit switching is characterized by:

AData broken into independently-routed packets
BA dedicated end-to-end path established for the entire call/session duration
CNo connection setup phase at all
DSharing a single path randomly among all users
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Packet switching, compared to circuit switching, is characterized by:

AA single dedicated path for the full call duration
BData broken into packets, each routed independently and sharing links among many users
CNo routing required
DExclusive use for analog telephony
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

A softswitch primarily separates:

AVoice from video
BCall-control/signaling functions from the physical media-transport (bearer) function
CAnalog from digital voice only
DRouting from addressing
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Traditional hardware-based circuit switches, compared to softswitches, typically have:

AControl and transport functions fully separated
BControl and transport functions tightly integrated in hardware
CNo signaling function at all
DOnly packet-based operation
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Routing in a telecommunication network refers to:

AEncoding voice into digital time slots
BSelecting a path through the network for a call or data packet
CEstablishing billing records only
DConverting analog signals to digital
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Signaling in a telecommunication network refers to the exchange of:

AUser voice/data content itself
BControl information needed to set up, maintain, and release a connection
COnly billing invoices
DPhysical layer cabling specifications
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Common-channel signaling (e.g. SS7) differs from in-band signaling in that it:

AUses the same channel as the voice/data traffic
BUses a separate, dedicated signaling channel
CRequires no signaling at all
DIs only usable in analog networks
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Analog (space-division) switching physically connects circuits using:

ADigital time-slot interchange
BA matrix of electromechanical or crossbar switches
CPacket routing tables
DOnly software-based control
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1059Ch 9 · Switching Systems

Which switching approach is best suited to bursty data traffic shared efficiently among many users?

ACircuit switching
BPacket switching
CSpace-division switching only
DAnalog switching only
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

The 'busy hour' in teletraffic engineering refers to:

AThe hour with the least traffic
BThe continuous 60-minute period of highest traffic volume/intensity
CA fixed hour that never changes
DOnly the hour of network maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Traffic intensity in a telecommunication network is typically measured in:

AWatts
BErlangs
CDecibels
DHertz
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Grade of Service (GoS) represents:

AThe average call duration
BThe probability that a call is blocked or delayed beyond an acceptable time during the busy hour
CThe total network bandwidth
DThe number of base stations in a network
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Common channel signaling (CCS), such as SS7, uses:

AThe same channel as voice traffic for signaling
BA dedicated signaling channel separate from traffic-bearing channels
CNo signaling channel at all
DOnly analog signaling tones
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is characterized by:

ACarrying only analog voice
BCarrying voice, data, and other services over standardized B and D digital channels
CUsing exclusively packet switching
DHaving no signaling channel
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

For continuous, delay-sensitive traffic such as voice, which switching approach is traditionally best suited?

APacket switching
BCircuit switching
CNo switching at all
DOnly common channel signaling
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Packet switching is generally preferred over circuit switching for:

AContinuous voice calls only
BBursty data traffic, enabling efficient sharing of scarce wireless spectrum
CEliminating the need for routing
DOnly satellite links
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Modern personal communication networks (PCN)/mobile systems increasingly carry even voice traffic using:

APure analog circuit switching
BAll-IP packet switching (e.g. VoIP/VoLTE)
CTelegraph signaling
DNo switching mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

A protocol for network access defines:

AThe billing structure of a network operator
BThe rules/procedures a device follows to gain access to and communicate over the network
COnly the physical dimensions of network cables
DThe color coding of network cables
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1059Ch 9 · Traffic Engineering

Service levels in traffic engineering define:

ARandom, undefined performance
BPerformance targets (e.g. blocking probability, delay) a network must meet for acceptable quality of service
COnly the physical layout of switches
DThe color of signaling lamps
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is best described as:

AA private telecom equipment manufacturer
BA specialized United Nations agency coordinating global telecom standards and spectrum/orbit allocation
CNepal's national telecom regulator
DA mobile network operator
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

Which ITU sector is primarily responsible for radiocommunication matters, including spectrum management?

AITU-T
BITU-R
CITU-D
DITU-X
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

In Nepal, the autonomous body responsible for telecom licensing, spectrum allocation, and QoS enforcement is:

AThe Ministry of Communication and Information
BThe Nepal Telecommunication Authority (NTA)
CThe International Telecommunication Union
DA private mobile operator
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

The Ministry of Communication and Information (Technology) in Nepal is primarily responsible for:

ADay-to-day spectrum licensing of individual operators
BFormulating national telecommunication/ICT policy and sector governance
CManufacturing telecom equipment
DOperating mobile base stations
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

The national frequency allocation plan serves to:

ARandomly assign frequencies with no coordination
BSpecify which frequency bands are allocated to which services within the country, aligned with ITU allocations
CBan all wireless communication
DOnly apply to television broadcasting
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

The Radio Act in Nepal primarily governs:

AInternational trade tariffs
BThe establishment, operation, and licensing of radio communication equipment and services
CUniversity curricula
DPostal services only
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

International coordination of telecommunication standards and spectrum is primarily achieved through:

AIndividual national ministries acting alone
BThe International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
CPrivate equipment vendors
DNo coordination is needed
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

Nepal's telecom regulatory framework operates at which levels?

AOnly at the international (ITU) level
BBoth international (ITU) coordination and national implementation (NTA, Ministry, Radio Act, frequency plan)
COnly at the municipal level
DNo regulation exists
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

Setting tariff and interconnection rules for telecom operators in Nepal falls primarily under the role of:

AThe ITU
BThe Nepal Telecommunication Authority (NTA)
CIndividual equipment manufacturers
DThe Radio Act exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1059Ch 9 · Rules and Regulations

ITU-T, one of the ITU's three sectors, focuses primarily on:

ARadiocommunication spectrum allocation
BTelecommunication standardization
CDevelopment assistance to developing countries only
DNational frequency plans
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Fourier Transform is used to:

AConvert a signal from the time domain to the frequency domain
BConvert a signal from the frequency domain to the time domain
CCompress digital signals
DEncrypt data transmissions
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

When a square wave is applied to an integrator op-amp circuit, the output is:

ASquare wave
BSine wave
CTriangle wave
DSawtooth wave
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Z-transform is primarily used for:

AAnalysing continuous-time signals
BAnalysing discrete-time signals and systems
CImage compression
DFrequency modulation
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Interleaving in digital communications provides what type of diversity?

ATime diversity
BFrequency diversity
CSpace diversity
DPolarization diversity
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In FDM, increasing the modulation index results in:

ADecreased bandwidth requirements
BIncreased bandwidth requirements
CNo change in bandwidth
DIncreased signal-to-noise ratio without bandwidth change
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Adding zeros to the end of a discrete signal before taking its DFT is called:

AZero Padding
BWindowing
CDecimation
DInterpolation
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In TDM (Time Division Multiplexing), the component essential for recovering individual channels at the receiver is:

AEqualizer
BFrame synchronization
CBandwidth filter
DDemodulator
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1059Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In a common-collector (emitter follower) BJT amplifier, the phase relationship between input and output is:

A180 degrees (inverted)
B90 degrees
C0 degrees (in phase)
D45 degrees
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1059Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 1059Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 1059Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden