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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Electrical Engineering

10 Chapters·959 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

Ohm's law states that, at constant temperature, the current through a conductor is:

AInversely proportional to voltage
BDirectly proportional to voltage, with resistance as the constant of proportionality
CIndependent of voltage
DProportional to the square of voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

Electrical power dissipated in a resistor can be expressed as:

AP = V/I only
BP = VI = I²R = V²/R
CP = V+I
DP = V−I
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

A good electrical conductor is characterized by:

AVery high resistivity
BAbundant free electrons and low resistivity
CNo free electrons at all
DOnly ionic conduction
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

In a series circuit, which quantity remains the same through all elements?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CPower
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

In a parallel circuit, which quantity remains the same across all branches?

ACurrent
BVoltage
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

Star-delta (Y-Δ) conversion is primarily used to:

AIncrease circuit power
BSimplify analysis of a 3-terminal network by converting between equivalent configurations
CConvert AC to DC
DMeasure insulation resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) is based on the principle of conservation of:

AEnergy
BCharge
CMomentum
DMass only, not charge
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) is based on the principle of conservation of:

ACharge
BEnergy
CCurrent
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

A circuit element whose V-I characteristic is a straight line through the origin is classified as:

ANon-linear
BLinear
CUnilateral only
DActive only
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Circuit Concept

A diode is an example of a:

ABilateral, linear element
BUnilateral, non-linear element
CPassive, linear element only
DPurely resistive linear element
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

The superposition theorem applies to circuits that are:

ANon-linear only
BLinear, with multiple independent sources
CContaining a single source only
DPurely capacitive only
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

When applying superposition, an inactive voltage source is replaced by:

AAn open circuit
BA short circuit
CA current source
DA resistor of infinite value
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

Thevenin's theorem replaces a linear two-terminal network with:

AA current source in parallel with a resistance
BA voltage source in series with a resistance
COnly a resistance
DOnly a capacitance
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

The Thevenin resistance Rᴛₕ is found by:

AMeasuring open-circuit voltage
BDeactivating all independent sources and finding the resistance seen from the terminals
CMeasuring short-circuit current only
DAdding all resistances in the circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

Norton's equivalent current source Iᴚ equals:

AThe open-circuit voltage at the terminals
BThe short-circuit current at the terminals
CThe Thevenin resistance
DZero, always
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

The relationship between the Thevenin and Norton equivalents is given by:

AVᴛₕ = Iᴚ / Rᴚ
BVᴛₕ = Iᴚ × Rᴚ
CVᴛₕ = Iᴚ + Rᴚ
DThere is no relationship
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

For maximum power transfer to a purely resistive load, the load resistance Rₗ must equal:

AZero
BThe Thevenin resistance Rᴛₕ
CInfinity
DTwice the Thevenin resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

At the maximum power transfer condition (resistive case), the power transfer efficiency is:

A100%
B50%
C0%
D75%
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

For AC circuits with complex source impedance, maximum power transfer requires the load impedance to be:

AEqual to the source impedance exactly
BThe complex conjugate of the source impedance
CZero
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 959Ch 1 · Network Theorems

Which theorem is NOT directly valid for computing power (as opposed to voltage/current) in a multi-source linear circuit?

AThevenin's theorem
BNorton's theorem
CSuperposition theorem
DMaximum power transfer theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

An alternating EMF is generated in a coil primarily due to:

AConstant magnetic flux linkage
BA time-varying flux linkage, inducing EMF per Faraday's law
CDirect current flow only
DStatic electric charge
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The instantaneous value of a sinusoidal voltage is expressed as v(t) =

AVₘ + ωt
BVₘsin(ωt)
CVₘ/ωt
DVₘ × t
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The time period T of an alternating quantity is related to frequency f by:

AT = f
BT = 1/f
CT = 2f
DT = f²
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

For a pure sinusoidal waveform, the average value over a half-cycle equals:

AVₘ
B0.637 Vₘ
C0.707 Vₘ
D1.414 Vₘ
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of a pure sinusoidal waveform equals:

A0.637 Vₘ
B0.707 Vₘ
C1.11 Vₘ
DVₘ exactly
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The full-cycle average value of a pure sinusoidal AC quantity is:

AEqual to its peak value
BZero
CEqual to its RMS value
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is defined as the ratio of:

APeak value to average value
BRMS value to average value
CAverage value to peak value
DRMS value to peak value
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Peak (crest) factor of a sinusoidal waveform is defined as the ratio of:

ARMS value to average value
BPeak value to RMS value
CAverage value to RMS value
DFrequency to peak value
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

A 'cycle' of an alternating quantity refers to:

AOnly the positive half of the waveform
BOne complete set of positive and negative values
CThe time period squared
DThe frequency in Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 959Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

If the supply frequency is 50 Hz, the angular frequency ω is:

A50 rad/s
B100π rad/s (≈314 rad/s)
C50π rad/s only
D0.02 rad/s
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

The transient response of a circuit refers to its behavior:

AAfter it has fully settled
BTemporarily, immediately following a sudden change, before settling
COnly under DC steady-state conditions
DOnly at t=0 exactly, with no duration
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

The time constant of an R-L circuit is given by:

Aτ=RC
Bτ=L/R
Cτ=R/L
Dτ=LC
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

The time constant of an R-C circuit is given by:

Aτ=L/R
Bτ=RC
Cτ=R/C
Dτ=1/RC
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

After one time constant, a first-order circuit's response has reached approximately what fraction of its total change?

A10%
B50%
C63.2%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

A critically damped R-L-C circuit is characterized by:

AOscillation that never decays
BReturning to steady state in the shortest time without oscillating
CThe slowest possible return to steady state
DZero resistance in the circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

An underdamped R-L-C circuit's response is characterized by:

ANo oscillation at all
BOscillation with exponentially decaying amplitude
COscillation that never decays
DInstantaneous settling with no transient
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

An undamped R-L-C circuit (zero resistance, ideal) exhibits:

AContinuous oscillation at the natural frequency, without decay
BImmediate settling with no oscillation
CExponential decay with no oscillation
DNo response at all
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

An overdamped R-L-C circuit's response reaches steady state:

AFaster than critical damping
BMore slowly than critical damping, without oscillation
CWith continuous oscillation
DInstantaneously
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

The steady-state response of a circuit under sinusoidal AC excitation is:

AA decaying exponential only
BA fixed-amplitude sinusoid at the same frequency as the source
CAlways zero
DA constant DC value
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 959Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Responses

A first-order transient is generally considered to have essentially decayed after approximately how many time constants?

A1
B2
C5
D50
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

Active (real) power in an AC circuit is given by:

AP = VI
BP = VIcosφ
CP = VIsinφ
DP = VI²
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

Reactive power in an AC circuit is given by:

AQ = VIcosφ
BQ = VIsinφ
CQ = VI
DQ = I²R
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

The relationship between apparent, active, and reactive power is:

AS = P + Q
BS² = P² + Q²
CS = P − Q
DS = PQ
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

A purely resistive load has a power factor of:

AZero
BUnity (1)
CLeading, always less than 1
DLagging, always less than 1
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

An inductive load typically has a power factor that is:

ALeading
BLagging
CAlways unity
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

A low power factor for a given real power results in:

ALower current and lower losses
BHigher current and higher I²R losses
CNo effect on current
DAutomatically improved efficiency
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

Power factor correction for an inductive (lagging) load is typically achieved by adding:

ASeries resistors
BCapacitors
CMore inductors
DA step-up transformer
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

Series resonance in an R-L-C circuit occurs when:

AXₗ > X₊
BXₗ = X₊, giving minimum impedance and maximum current
CR = 0
DThe frequency is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

At parallel resonance, the line current drawn from the source is:

AMaximum
BMinimum
CEqual to the branch currents summed arithmetically
DIndependent of frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 959Ch 1 · AC Series & Parallel Circuits

The resonant frequency of a series or parallel R-L-C circuit is given by:

Af₀ = 2πLC
Bf₀ = 1/(2π√(LC))
Cf₀ = LC
Df₀ = R/(L+C)
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

In a star-connected three-phase system, the line voltage relates to the phase voltage as:

AVₗ = Vₚₕ
BVₗ = √3 × Vₚₕ
CVₗ = 3 × Vₚₕ
DVₗ = Vₚₕ/√3
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

In a delta-connected three-phase system, the line current relates to the phase current as:

AIₗ = Iₚₕ
BIₗ = √3 × Iₚₕ
CIₗ = Iₚₕ/√3
DIₗ = 3 × Iₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

A neutral conductor is available in which connection?

ADelta connection only
BStar connection
CNeither connection
DBoth, identically
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

For a perfectly balanced three-phase load, the current in the neutral conductor is:

AMaximum
BZero
CEqual to the line current
DEqual to the phase voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

An unbalanced three-phase load causes:

AEqual currents in all phases always
BUnequal phase currents and a resulting neutral current
CThe neutral to always carry zero current
DNo effect on phase voltages
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

Without a solidly connected neutral, an unbalanced star load can cause:

ANo change in phase voltages
BNeutral point voltage displacement, leading to unequal phase voltages
CAutomatic load balancing
DLine voltage to become zero
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

The total active power in a balanced three-phase system is given by:

AP = VIcosφ
BP = √3 VₗIₗcosφ
CP = VₗIₗ
DP = 3VₗIₗ
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

The apparent power in a balanced three-phase system is given by:

AS = √3 VₗIₗ
BS = VₗIₗcosφ
CS = 3VₗIₗ
DS = Vₗ + Iₗ
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

In a delta connection, the phase voltage equals:

A√3 times the line voltage
BThe line voltage directly
CThe line voltage divided by 3
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 959Ch 1 · Three Phase Systems

Which connection is typically preferred at the load end when both single-phase (line-to-neutral) and three-phase supply is required?

ADelta connection only
BStar connection, because a neutral point is available
CNeither connection can supply single-phase loads
DOnly an open-delta connection
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

When a cylinder is unrolled (opened in rope form), what shape is formed?

AInvolute
BHelix
CCycloid
DRectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

How many transistors does a class B push-pull amplifier use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In which region does a class B amplifier operate?

ASaturation
BCut-off
CActive
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which quantity remains constant (same) throughout a series circuit?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In a star (Y) connected three-phase system, what is the relationship between line voltage (Vₗ) and phase voltage (Vₚₕ)?

AVₗ = Vₚₕ
BVₗ = √3 × Vₚₕ
CVₗ = Vₚₕ / √3
DVₗ = 3 × Vₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the primary advantage of CMOS logic technology?

AHighest switching speed
BMinimum power consumption
CHighest noise margin
DMaximum fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What type of feedback do oscillators use to sustain oscillations?

ANegative
BPositive
CZero
DMixed
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which theorem gives the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load?

ANorton's Theorem
BThevenin's Theorem
CMaximum Power Transfer Theorem
DSuperposition Theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

According to Ohm's Law, which relationship is correct?

ACurrent = Voltage / Resistance
BResistance = Voltage × Current
CVoltage = Current / Resistance
DPower = Voltage + Current
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three equal resistors in series dissipate 10 W. How much power do they dissipate when connected in parallel (same supply voltage)?

A10 W
B30 W
C90 W
D270 W
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A semiconductor is primarily used for:

AStoring electrical energy
BConverting AC to DC
CControlling electrical current
DAmplifying magnetic fields
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Two copper wires of the same length have cross-sectional area ratio 1 : 4. What is the ratio of their resistances (small : large)?

A1 : 4
B1 : 2
C4 : 1
D2 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A wire has resistance 40 Ω. Another wire of the same length has 4× the cross-sectional area. What is the resistance of the second wire?

A160 Ω
B40 Ω
C20 Ω
D10 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The Superposition Theorem is NOT applicable to which type of circuit analysis?

APower calculations
BVoltage calculations
CCurrent calculations
DResistive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The current through a capacitor is known as:

AConduction current
BLeakage current
CDisplacement current
DEddy current
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A bridge rectifier operating at 50 Hz produces an output of:

A50 Hz pulsating DC
B100 Hz pulsating DC
C25 Hz pulsating DC
DPure DC
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

An inductor and resistor are connected in series and a DC voltage V is applied. At steady state, what is the current?

AV/R
BV/(R+XL)
CZero
DV/XL
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected in delta. What is the equivalent resistance between any two terminals?

A2 Ω
B1.333 Ω
C6 Ω
D3 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A 1 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 3 Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance?

A4 Ω
B0.75 Ω
C2 Ω
D1.5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) when the reflection coefficient is 0.8?

A1.8
B4.5
C0.8
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 959Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A transmission line has Z₀ = 50 Ω and termination impedance Za = 75 Ω. What is the SWR and reflection coefficient?

ASWR = 1.5, RC = 0.2
BSWR = 2.5, RC = 0.4
CSWR = 1.5, RC = 0.5
DSWR = 3, RC = 0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Flux linkage of a coil with N turns and flux Φ is given by:

Aψ=Φ/N
Bψ=NΦ
Cψ=N+Φ
Dψ=N²Φ
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

The energy stored in the magnetic field of an inductor carrying current I is:

AW=LI
BW=½LI²
CW=L²I
DW=LI²
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Ferromagnetic materials are characterized by:

AVery low permeability
BVery high permeability and strong attraction to magnetic fields
CWeak repulsion from magnetic fields
DNo magnetic properties at all
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Hysteresis loss in a magnetic material is represented by:

AThe slope of the B-H curve
BThe area enclosed by the B-H hysteresis loop
CThe value of coercivity alone
DThe saturation flux density
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Retentivity of a magnetic material refers to:

AThe magnetizing force needed to demagnetize it
BThe residual flux density remaining after the magnetizing force is removed
CIts electrical resistivity
DIts permeability at saturation
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that induced EMF is proportional to:

AThe magnitude of the magnetic field only
BThe rate of change of flux linkage
CThe resistance of the circuit
DThe physical size of the coil only
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

Lenz's law determines the:

AMagnitude of induced EMF only
BDirection of induced EMF/current, opposing the change producing it
CResistance of the coil
DFrequency of the induced EMF
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

A dynamically induced EMF (e=Blv) arises due to:

AA stationary coil with changing current
BRelative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field
COnly changing temperature
DOnly changing resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

A statically induced EMF is best exemplified by:

AA generator with a rotating armature
BTransformer action, where a stationary coil experiences changing flux from a changing current
CA conductor moving through a static field
DA permanent magnet at rest
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 959Ch 2 · Magnetic Circuits

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field, F=BIl, is the basis of:

AGenerator (dynamo) action
BMotor action / torque production
CTransformer action
DHysteresis loss
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

In a shell-type transformer, the core:

AIs surrounded by the windings
BSurrounds (encloses) the windings
CIs absent entirely
DIs laminated only in core-type transformers
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

The conservator tank in a transformer is used to:

AHouse the main windings
BAccommodate oil expansion/contraction and keep the main tank full
CCool the core directly with air
DProvide the main insulation between windings
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

The breather in a transformer primarily functions to:

ACool the transformer oil
BDry incoming air using a desiccant, preventing moisture ingress
CRelieve internal fault pressure
DProvide electrical insulation for bushings
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

The open-circuit (no-load) test on a transformer is used to determine:

ACopper losses and equivalent series impedance
BCore (iron) losses and magnetizing branch parameters
COnly the turns ratio
DOnly the insulation resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

The short-circuit test on a transformer is used to determine:

ACore losses only
BCopper losses and equivalent series resistance/reactance
CThe no-load current only
DThe breather's condition
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

Core (iron) loss in a transformer is essentially:

AProportional to the square of the load current
BConstant with load, depending mainly on flux and frequency
CZero at all times
DOnly present at no-load
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

Maximum efficiency of a transformer occurs at the load where:

ACopper loss is zero
BCopper loss equals core (iron) loss
CCore loss is maximum
DOutput power is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

Eddy current loss in a transformer core is minimized by:

AIncreasing the applied voltage
BUsing a laminated core
CRemoving the core entirely
DIncreasing the load current
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

For successful parallel operation of two transformers, it is essential that they have:

ADifferent voltage (turns) ratios
BThe same voltage ratio, phase sequence/polarity, and ideally equal per-unit impedance
CDifferent phase sequences
DNo requirement for matching parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 959Ch 2 · Transformers

Transformer capacity (rating) is expressed in:

AkW
BkVA
CAmperes only
DHenries
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

The commutator in a DC machine primarily functions to:

AIncrease the armature resistance
BMechanically rectify AC in the armature to DC at the terminals (or vice versa for a motor)
CCool the armature windings
DGenerate the main magnetic field
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

A series DC motor is characterized by:

AConstant speed regardless of load
BHigh starting torque, with speed varying widely with load
CField winding in parallel with the armature
DNever carrying armature current in its field winding
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

A shunt DC motor is characterized by:

AField winding in series with the armature
BField winding in parallel with the armature, giving fairly constant speed
CThe highest possible starting torque of all DC motor types
DField current equal to armature current always
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Armature reaction in a DC machine refers to:

AThe effect of field current on armature resistance
BThe distorting/weakening effect of armature MMF on the main field flux
CThe commutator's mechanical wear
DThe cooling effect of ventilation
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Sparking at the brushes due to armature reaction is commonly corrected using:

ALarger brushes only
BInterpoles/compensating windings
CReducing the number of armature conductors
DIncreasing supply voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

A starter is required when starting a DC motor mainly because:

AThe armature has zero resistance
BBack-EMF is zero at standstill, so armature current would otherwise be excessive
CThe field current is too high initially
DThe commutator cannot handle any current at start
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Field control of a DC motor's speed operates by:

AReducing armature resistance
BVarying field current/flux, giving speeds above normal
CVarying the supply frequency
DAdding resistance in series with the armature only
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Armature (rheostatic) speed control of a DC motor gives speeds that are:

AAbove normal rated speed only
BBelow normal rated speed
CAlways exactly equal to rated speed
DIndependent of the added resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Maximum efficiency of a DC machine occurs when:

AVariable (armature copper) losses equal constant losses
BCopper losses are zero
CConstant losses are zero
DThe machine runs at no load
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 959Ch 2 · DC Machines

Which type of DC motor combines both series and shunt field windings?

AShunt motor
BSeries motor
CCompound motor
DSeparately excited motor only
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

In a synchronous machine, the field winding is typically excited by:

AAC only
BDC
CNo excitation is needed
DOnly residual magnetism
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

A salient-pole rotor construction is typically used for:

AHigh-speed turbo-alternators
BLow-speed alternators such as hydro-generators
COnly synchronous motors
DOnly small fractional-horsepower machines
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

A brushless excitation system eliminates the need for:

AA rotating rectifier
BSlip rings and brushes
CAny exciter at all
DAn AVR
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

The relationship between frequency, poles, and synchronous speed is given by:

Af = P + Nₛ
Bf = PNₛ/120
Cf = Nₛ/P
Df = 120P/Nₛ
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

The per-phase induced EMF equation for an alternator is given by:

AE = fΦN
BE = 4.44fΦNKₖ
CE = f²ΦN
DE = ΦN/f
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

Voltage regulation of an alternator is defined as the percentage change in terminal voltage when:

ASpeed is increased
BFull load is removed, with speed and excitation held constant
CField excitation is doubled
DThe machine is short-circuited
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

Before connecting (synchronizing) an alternator to the grid, which quantities must be matched?

AOnly voltage magnitude
BVoltage magnitude, frequency, phase sequence, and phase angle
COnly frequency
DOnly phase sequence
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

For an alternator connected to an infinite bus, increasing the prime-mover's mechanical input primarily changes the machine's:

ASpeed
BReal (active) power output
CTerminal voltage directly
DFrequency
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

A synchronous motor, from standstill, develops:

AHigh starting torque directly from the stator field
BNo net starting torque; an auxiliary method is needed to reach near-synchronous speed
CTorque proportional to slip, like an induction motor
DTorque only when over-excited
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 959Ch 2 · Synchronous Machines

An over-excited synchronous motor running unloaded, used for power factor correction, is called a:

ASynchronous generator
BSynchronous condenser
CInduction condenser
DDamper motor
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

A squirrel cage rotor is characterized by:

AWindings brought out to slip rings
BRotor bars permanently short-circuited by end rings
CNo rotor conductors at all
DExternal resistance always connected
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

The rotating magnetic field in a three-phase induction motor is produced by:

AThe rotor winding alone
BThe three-phase stator winding
CA permanent magnet on the rotor
DThe slip rings
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

Slip of an induction motor is defined as:

As = Nₛ/Nr
Bs = (Nₛ−Nr)/Nₛ
Cs = Nr/Nₛ
Ds = Nₛ+Nr
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

An induction motor can never run at exactly synchronous speed under load because:

AThe stator winding would burn out
BZero slip means zero relative motion, zero induced EMF, and hence zero torque
CThe rotor would overheat
DThe supply frequency would need to change
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

Increasing rotor resistance in a slip-ring induction motor primarily: magnitude

ADecreases starting torque
BIncreases starting torque and shifts the maximum torque point toward standstill, without changing its
CIncreases the maximum (pull-out) torque value
DHas no effect on the torque-slip curve
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

Star-delta starting of an induction motor is used primarily to:

AIncrease starting torque beyond DOL
BReduce starting current by starting the motor in star (reduced voltage) before switching to delta
CEliminate the need for a stator winding
DOnly apply to slip-ring motors
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

The blocked-rotor test on an induction motor is analogous to which transformer test?

AOpen-circuit test
BShort-circuit test
CInsulation resistance test
DPolarity test
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

The no-load test on an induction motor primarily determines:

ACopper losses and series impedance
BCore losses and magnetizing branch parameters
CStarting torque only
DRotor resistance only
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

The most widely used modern method for continuous, wide-range speed control of induction motors is:

APole-changing only
BVariable frequency drive (V/f control)
CRotor resistance control only
DStar-delta switching
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 959Ch 2 · Three Phase Induction Motors

Rotor resistance speed control is applicable to which type of induction motor?

ASquirrel cage only
BSlip-ring (phase wound) motors only, since external resistance must be connected to the rotor circuit
CBoth types equally
DNeither type
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

A single-phase stator winding alone produces a magnetic field that is:

AA rotating field at synchronous speed
BA pulsating field, resolvable into two equal counter-rotating fields
CCompletely absent
DA rotating field only at standstill
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

A single-phase induction motor, without any starting mechanism, has:

AHigh starting torque
BNo net starting torque, since counter-rotating field torques cancel at standstill
CTorque equal to a three-phase motor
DTorque that reverses automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

Once a single-phase induction motor is started (given an initial push), it continues to run because:

ABoth counter-rotating fields remain equal
BThe forward-rotating field's torque comes to dominate over the backward field's torque
CThe auxiliary winding remains connected permanently
DThe capacitor is removed
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

In a split-phase (resistance-start) motor, the auxiliary winding is designed with:

ALower resistance and higher reactance than the main winding
BHigher resistance and lower reactance than the main winding
CIdentical characteristics to the main winding
DNo electrical connection to the circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

The auxiliary winding of a split-phase motor is typically disconnected once the motor reaches speed by:

AA capacitor
BA centrifugal switch
CA shaded-pole ring
DManual operation only
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

A capacitor-start motor, compared to a plain split-phase motor, generally provides:

ALower starting torque
BHigher starting torque, due to a larger phase angle difference
CNo starting torque at all
DIdentical starting torque
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

A shaded-pole motor achieves self-starting by:

AUsing a capacitor in series with an auxiliary winding
BA short-circuited copper ring that delays flux in part of each pole, creating a weak rotating field
CA centrifugal switch and auxiliary winding
DExternal rotor resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

Shaded-pole motors are typically used for:

AHigh-starting-torque industrial drives
BVery low-torque, low-cost applications such as small fans
CLarge compressor loads
DApplications requiring precise speed control
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

Speed control of small single-phase induction motors (e.g. fans) is most commonly achieved by:

AChanging the supply frequency via a VFD only
BVarying the supply voltage (e.g. tapped autotransformer or triac control)
CRotor resistance control
DChanging the number of stator poles only, in all cases
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 959Ch 2 · Single Phase Induction Motor

Which single-phase motor type generally provides the highest starting torque?

AShaded-pole motor
BCapacitor-start motor
CA motor with no auxiliary winding at all
DAll types provide identical starting torque
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

A Pelton wheel turbine is best suited for:

ALow head, high flow sites
BHigh head, low flow sites
CMedium head only
DTidal power only
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

The Francis turbine is classified as a:

AImpulse turbine
BReaction turbine
CNeither impulse nor reaction
DWind turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

A Kaplan turbine is distinguished by:

AFixed blades only, unsuitable for varying flow
BAdjustable propeller blades, suited to low head, high flow sites
CUse only at extremely high head
DOperation without a runner
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

The purpose of a surge tank in a hydro-plant layout is to:

AStore water for irrigation
BAbsorb pressure surges in the penstock caused by load changes
CGenerate electricity directly
DFilter debris from intake water
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

A run-of-river hydro plant is characterized by:

ALarge reservoir storage for multi-year regulation
BLittle or no water storage, depending on natural river flow
CPumping water back to an upper reservoir
DOperation only during flood season
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

The main function of a turbine governor is to:

AIncrease water head artificially
BRegulate water flow to maintain constant turbine speed/frequency as load varies
CFilter sediment from the water
DControl the generator's excitation directly
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

Pumped storage hydro plants are primarily used for:

AContinuous base-load generation only
BStoring energy during off-peak periods and generating during peak demand
CIrrigation exclusively
DFlood control only
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

A penstock in a hydro-plant layout functions as:

AThe intake structure
BThe pressure pipe delivering water from forebay/surge tank to the turbine
CThe tailrace channel
DThe governor mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

Which turbine type is generally considered the most widely used worldwide, suited to a broad range of medium head/flow conditions?

APelton wheel
BFrancis turbine
CKaplan turbine
DWind turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 959Ch 3 · Hydroelectric Power Plants

A key site selection criterion for a hydroelectric power plant is:

AProximity to a coal mine
BAdequate and dependable water supply/head with suitable geology for dam/powerhouse
CAvailability of natural gas pipelines
DPresence of tidal currents
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

A key advantage of diesel electric power plants is:

AVery low running (fuel) cost
BRelatively quick starting and low capital cost for small capacities
CSuitability for continuous base-load generation
DNo need for a governor
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

Diesel power plants are most commonly used for:

AContinuous base-load generation at large scale
BStandby, peaking, or isolated/off-grid supply
COnly irrigation pumping
DOnly nuclear backup
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

In a diesel plant, the governor primarily regulates:

AWater flow to the turbine
BFuel injection, to maintain constant engine speed under varying load
CAir intake filtration only
DGenerator field current directly
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

The cooling system of a diesel engine primarily functions to:

ASupply fuel to the engine
BRemove heat from the engine to prevent overheating
CStart the engine initially
DFilter exhaust gases only
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

The lubrication system in a diesel plant serves to:

ASupply combustion air
BReduce friction/wear between moving engine parts
CRegulate engine speed
DConvert mechanical to electrical energy
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

In a diesel power plant, mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy by:

AThe diesel engine directly
BThe generator, coupled to the engine shaft
CThe governor
DThe fuel supply system
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

A key site selection factor specific to diesel power plants is:

AAvailability of a large river for hydro head
BProximity to the load center and availability of fuel supply/access
CAvailability of strong, consistent wind
DProximity to a nuclear fuel source
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

Diesel engine starting systems commonly use:

AOnly manual hand-cranking for all sizes
BCompressed air, electric starter motors, or hydraulic starting, depending on engine size
COnly steam pressure
DOnly water pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

Compared to hydroelectric plants, diesel plants generally have:

ALower running cost per unit generated
BHigher running (fuel) cost per unit generated
CNo need for any cooling system
DNo governor requirement
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 959Ch 3 · Diesel Electric Power Plants

The exhaust system of a diesel engine is primarily responsible for:

ASupplying lubricating oil
BSafely discharging combustion exhaust gases, often via a silencer
CRegulating fuel injection
DCooling the generator windings
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Solar photovoltaic (PV) cells convert sunlight into electricity via:

AMechanical rotation of a turbine
BThe photovoltaic effect in semiconductor material, producing DC directly
CSteam generation
DChemical combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

An inverter in a solar PV system is used to:

AStore DC energy
BConvert DC output to AC for grid connection or AC loads
CRegulate battery charging only
DTrack the sun's position
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) generates electricity by:

ADirect photovoltaic conversion
BConcentrating sunlight to heat a fluid, producing steam for a conventional turbine-generator
CWind-driven turbines
DBattery discharge only
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

The function of a charge controller in an off-grid solar PV system is to:

AConvert DC to AC
BRegulate battery charging, preventing overcharge/deep discharge
CTrack sunlight direction mechanically
DGenerate additional voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Wind turbine power output is related to wind speed by:

AA linear relationship
BThe cube of wind speed (P∝v³)
CThe square root of wind speed
DNo relationship at all
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

A wind turbine converts kinetic energy of moving air into electricity via:

ADirect photovoltaic conversion
BAerodynamic blades driving a generator (directly or via gearbox)
CCombustion of fuel
DSteam generation
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Pitch control in a wind turbine serves to:

AConvert DC to AC
BOptimize blade angle relative to wind for maximum/safe energy capture
CStore excess electrical energy
DFilter exhaust emissions
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

A key operational challenge shared by both solar and wind power generation is:

AExcessive fuel cost
BIntermittency/variability of the energy source
CRequirement for large fuel storage tanks
DHigh noise from combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Yaw control in a wind turbine primarily adjusts:

AThe blade pitch angle
BThe turbine nacelle's orientation to face the wind direction
CThe generator's field current
DThe inverter's output frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 959Ch 3 · Non-Conventional Power Generation

Compared to conventional thermal/hydro plants, solar PV plants typically have:

AA higher capacity factor
BA lower capacity factor, due to dependence on sunlight availability
CNo dependence on weather at all
DContinuous, constant output at all hours
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Pumped storage plants store energy by:

ACompressing air underground
BPumping water to an upper reservoir during off-peak periods for later release through turbines
CStoring energy chemically in batteries
DSpinning a flywheel
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

A key requirement for pumped storage plant siting is:

AFlat terrain with no elevation change
BTwo reservoirs at significantly different elevations
CProximity to a coal seam
DConsistent high wind speed
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) are particularly valued for:

AExtremely long storage duration only
BFast, near-instantaneous response for grid frequency regulation and renewable integration
CRequiring specific underground geology
DBeing usable only at very large utility scale
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Compressed Air Energy Storage (CAES) typically requires:

ANo specific geological conditions
BSuitable geological formations (e.g. underground caverns) for storing compressed air
CA large body of water at elevation
DA rotating flywheel mass
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Flywheel energy storage is best suited for:

ALong-duration bulk energy storage
BVery fast response, short-duration applications like frequency regulation
COnly seasonal energy storage
DStoring chemical energy
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Round-trip efficiency of an energy storage technology refers to:

AThe physical size of the storage facility
BThe ratio of energy delivered (output) to energy input during charging
CThe number of charge cycles possible
DThe response time only
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Which storage technology generally offers the fastest response time?

APumped storage
BCompressed air energy storage
CFlywheel storage
DAll have identical response times
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

For large-scale, long-duration grid energy storage, which technologies are generally most suitable?

AFlywheels only
BPumped storage and compressed air energy storage
COnly battery storage
DNone of these technologies suit long duration
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

Battery Energy Storage Systems store energy via:

AMechanical rotation
BElectrochemical processes
CCompressed gas
DElevated water
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 959Ch 3 · Energy Storages

A key advantage of battery storage over pumped storage is:

ALarger storage capacity at lower cost
BSiting flexibility and modularity, without requiring specific topography
CLonger storage duration
DNo round-trip losses
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

A brushless excitation system eliminates the need for:

AA rotating rectifier
BSlip rings and brushes
CAny exciter at all
DAn AVR
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

A static excitation system derives field current from:

AA separate DC generator only
BThe generator's own output terminals (or auxiliary source), via thyristor-based rectification
CA flywheel
DCompressed air
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

The primary function of an Automatic Voltage Regulator (AVR) is to:

ARegulate the prime mover's speed
BMaintain generator terminal voltage at a desired setpoint by adjusting field current
CControl the plant's fuel supply
DSynchronize the generator to the grid automatically
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

An AVR operates as what type of control system?

AOpen-loop, with no feedback
BClosed-loop, negative feedback control
CManual control only
DPurely mechanical, with no electronic sensing
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

Over-excitation limiting in an AVR primarily protects against:

AUnder-voltage at the terminals
BThermal damage to the field winding from excessive field current
CLoss of synchronism from too little excitation
DTurbine over-speed
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

Under-excitation limiting in an AVR primarily protects against:

AOverheating of the stator winding
BLoss of synchronism/instability due to insufficient excitation
CExcessive terminal voltage
DTurbine cavitation
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

Compared to DC excitation systems, static excitation systems generally offer:

ASlower response and less precise control
BFaster response and more precise control
CNo need for any slip rings
DComplete elimination of field current
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

In a DC excitation system, field current is supplied to the main generator via:

ADirect wireless transfer
BSlip rings and brushes from a separate DC exciter
CA rotating rectifier only
DThe generator's own AC output directly, unrectified
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

When generator load increases and terminal voltage tends to drop, the AVR responds by:

ADecreasing field current further
BIncreasing field current to restore terminal voltage
CDisconnecting the generator from the grid
DIncreasing turbine speed only
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 959Ch 3 · Excitation Systems

A key advantage of brushless excitation systems over slip-ring based systems is:

AFaster mechanical response
BReduced maintenance, by eliminating brush wear and related faults
CHigher field current capability only
DRequirement for more frequent servicing
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

A key prerequisite before starting a hydro generator is:

ADisconnecting the governor permanently
BEnsuring adequate water availability/head and operational governor/control systems
CDisabling all protection relays
DRemoving the excitation system
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

A key prerequisite before starting a diesel generator is:

ADraining all lubrication oil
BAdequate fuel supply/quality and correct lubrication oil level/pressure
CDisconnecting the cooling system
DDisabling the governor
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

Before connecting a newly started generator to the grid, it must be:

AImmediately connected without any checks
BSynchronized, matching voltage, frequency, phase sequence, and phase angle
CRun at half rated speed only
DDisconnected from its excitation system
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

A 'black start' refers to:

AStarting a generator during nighttime only
BRestoring a power station/grid after a total blackout without relying on external grid power
CA routine daily startup procedure
DStarting only diesel generators
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

A black start unit is characterized by its ability to:

AOperate only when connected to a live grid
BStart independently, without external electrical supply, using its own auxiliary power
CGenerate at very high voltage only
DFunction only as a backup for hydro plants
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

Why can't a typical large generating unit normally perform its own black start?

AIt has no generator at all
BIts own auxiliary systems (pumps, controls, lubrication) normally require external grid power to start
CIt has no governor
DIt cannot be synchronized
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

Common examples of black start units include:

AOnly large steam turbines
BSmall diesel generators and gas turbines with battery/air-start systems
COnly nuclear power plants
DOnly large hydro units with extensive auxiliary power needs
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

The role of a black start unit during grid restoration is to:

APermanently replace the main grid supply
BEnergize auxiliary systems of larger units, progressively restoring the grid
COnly provide emergency lighting
DDisconnect all other generators
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

Synchronizing a generator before grid connection is necessary to avoid:

AReducing fuel consumption
BDamaging inrush currents from mismatched voltage/frequency/phase
CIncreasing water head
DReducing lubrication oil temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 959Ch 3 · Starting of Generators

For a diesel generator, the starting system prerequisite check specifically ensures:

AThe battery/starting mechanism is charged and functional
BThe fuel tank is empty
CThe generator is already synchronized
DThe governor is disconnected
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

A static error in measurement occurs when:

AThe measured quantity is rapidly changing
BThe measured quantity is constant (not varying with time)
CThe instrument has infinite bandwidth
DNo instrument is used at all
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

A systematic error is characterized by being:

ACompletely random and unpredictable
BConsistent and repeatable, due to known/predictable causes, and often correctable by calibration
CAlways due to human mistakes only
DImpossible to identify or correct
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

Random (accidental) errors can best be reduced by:

AIgnoring them entirely
BTaking repeated measurements and averaging
CIncreasing the measured quantity
DUsing a less precise instrument
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

A dynamic error arises specifically when:

AThe measured quantity is constant
BThe measured quantity varies with time and the instrument cannot respond instantaneously
CThe instrument is perfectly calibrated
DNo error is possible
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

The Maxwell (Maxwell-Wien) bridge is primarily used to measure:

AUnknown capacitance
BUnknown inductance, balanced against a known capacitance
CUnknown frequency only
DUnknown resistance only
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

A key advantage of the Maxwell bridge for measuring medium-Q inductors is that:

AIts balance equations depend heavily on frequency
BIts balance equations are independent of frequency
CIt cannot be used for AC measurements
DIt requires no standard capacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

The Schering bridge is primarily used to measure:

AUnknown inductance
BUnknown capacitance and dissipation factor
CUnknown frequency only
DDC resistance only
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

The Wien bridge is notably used for:

AMeasuring unknown inductance only
BMeasuring unknown frequency, or as the frequency-determining network in an oscillator
CMeasuring DC voltage only
DTesting insulation resistance only
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

At balance, the Wien bridge must simultaneously satisfy:

AOnly a magnitude condition
BBoth a magnitude condition and a frequency condition
CNo specific condition
DOnly a phase condition, unrelated to frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 959Ch 4 · Measurement and Error

A gross error in measurement is typically caused by:

AInstrument bandwidth limitations
BHuman mistakes such as misreading or incorrect recording
CEnvironmental temperature drift
DRandom statistical fluctuation
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

In a PMMC instrument, deflection is proportional to:

AThe square of current
BCurrent directly
CVoltage squared
DFrequency
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A moving iron instrument's deflection is proportional to:

ACurrent directly
BThe square of current, allowing it to read true rms on AC
CFrequency only
DVoltage directly
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

An ammeter is connected in a circuit:

AIn parallel with the element
BIn series with the element, ideally with very low resistance
CNeither in series nor parallel
DOnly across a capacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A voltmeter is connected in a circuit:

AIn series, with very high resistance
BIn parallel with the element, ideally with very high resistance
CIn series, with very low resistance
DOnly in DC circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A wattmeter's deflection is proportional to:

ACurrent only
BVoltage only
CVIcosφ
DFrequency only
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A watt-hour (energy) meter differs from a wattmeter in that it measures:

AInstantaneous power only
BEnergy, by integrating power over time
CFrequency only
DOnly reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A maximum demand meter is used to record:

AInstantaneous voltage spikes only
BThe highest average power demand over a specified interval within a billing period
CTotal energy consumed only
DPower factor only
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

The Kelvin double bridge is specifically designed for measuring:

AVery high (insulation) resistances
BLow resistances, while eliminating the effect of lead/contact resistance
COnly capacitance
DOnly frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A Megger (insulation resistance tester) is used to measure:

AMedium resistances via a Wheatstone bridge
BVery high (insulation) resistances, using a high DC test voltage
COnly inductance
DOnly power factor
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 959Ch 4 · Measuring Instruments

A galvanometer is primarily used as:

AA high-power measuring instrument
BA highly sensitive null detector in bridge circuits
CAn energy meter
DA frequency meter
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A potentiometer transducer produces an output that varies with:

ATemperature only
BThe wiper's linear/angular displacement
CApplied magnetic field
DLight intensity
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

An LVDT measures displacement by sensing:

AResistance change in a strain gauge
BThe differential output voltage between two secondary windings as a core moves
CLight intensity changes
DCapacitance change only
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

The resistance of a strain gauge changes primarily due to:

ATemperature only
BMechanical strain/deformation applied to it
CLight intensity
DMagnetic field strength
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A load cell typically uses which sensing element to measure force/weight?

AThermocouples
BStrain gauges bonded to an elastic structural element
CPhotodiodes
DLVDTs exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

The Hall Effect sensor generates a voltage that is:

AIndependent of magnetic field
BPerpendicular to both current flow and the applied magnetic field
COnly present in insulators
DProportional to temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A piezoelectric sensor generates an electrical output in response to:

ALight intensity
BApplied mechanical stress/pressure
CTemperature change only
DMagnetic field only
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A thermocouple generates a voltage based on which physical principle?

APiezoelectric effect
BSeebeck effect, from the temperature difference between junctions of dissimilar metals
CHall effect
DPhotoelectric effect
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A key advantage of a thermocouple over a thermistor is:

AHigher sensitivity at a narrow temperature range
BA much wider usable temperature range and self-generating operation (no external excitation needed)
CA perfectly linear output at all times
DLower cost only
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A photoconductive cell (LDR)'s resistance:

AIncreases as light intensity increases
BDecreases as light intensity increases
CIs unaffected by light
DOnly responds to infrared light
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 959Ch 4 · Transducers and Sensors

A capacitive sensor detects changes based on variations in:

AMagnetic field strength only
BPlate distance, overlap area, or dielectric properties
CTemperature only
DMechanical strain only
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

A weighted resistor D/A converter uses resistors that are:

AAll equal in value
BBinary-weighted (R, 2R, 4R, 8R, ...)
CRandomly assigned values
DOnly a single resistor value repeated
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

A key drawback of the weighted resistor D/A converter is:

AIt cannot use an op-amp
BIt requires a wide range of precise resistor values, impractical for many bits
CIt is only usable for 1-bit conversion
DIt has no drawbacks
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

The R-2R ladder D/A converter's main advantage over the weighted resistor type is:

AHigher cost
BUsing only two resistor values, making it far more practical for higher bit counts
CRequiring more distinct resistor values
DBeing usable only for analog signals
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

A dual-ramp (dual-slope) A/D converter determines the input voltage by:

AComparing it directly to a fixed threshold once
BTiming a de-integration phase against a known reference, after integrating the input for a fixed time
CUsing a binary search algorithm
DSampling at a single instant only
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

A key advantage of the dual-ramp A/D converter is:

AVery high conversion speed
BHigh accuracy and noise immunity, since integrator/clock errors tend to cancel
CSimplicity with no integrator required
DRequiring no reference voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

A successive approximation (SAR) A/D converter operates by:

AIntegrating the input over a long fixed time
BPerforming a binary search, testing bits from MSB to LSB using an internal D/A converter and comparator
CDirectly outputting the input voltage unconverted
DUsing only resistive ladders with no comparator
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

Compared to the dual-ramp type, the successive approximation A/D converter generally offers:

AMuch slower conversion, but higher accuracy
BA good balance of speed and accuracy, with conversion time independent of input magnitude
CNo conversion capability at all
DOnly 1-bit resolution
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

Digital multimeters commonly use which A/D converter type, valuing accuracy over speed?

ASuccessive approximation
BDual-ramp (dual-slope integrating)
CFlash (parallel) type only
DWeighted resistor type
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

In an R-2R ladder D/A converter, the network structure primarily consists of:

AA single large resistor
BA repeating pattern using only two resistor values
CCapacitors only, with no resistors
DA binary-weighted set of unique resistor values
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 959Ch 4 · A/D and D/A Converters

The successive approximation A/D converter's internal comparator is used to:

ADirectly generate the analog output
BCompare the internal D/A converter's output against the input signal at each step of the binary search
CIntegrate the input voltage
DGenerate the reference clock only
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

A key advantage of digital instrumentation over analog instrumentation is:

ALower accuracy
BHigher accuracy/resolution and noise immunity
CInability to store data
DNo possibility of remote monitoring
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

A typical digital instrumentation system chain begins with:

AA digital display
BA sensor/transducer, followed by signal conditioning
CAn A/D converter alone, with no sensor
DA communication interface
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

GPIB (IEEE-488) is specifically designed for:

AGeneral office networking
BConnecting programmable test/measurement instruments to a controller computer
CWireless internet access
DPower distribution control
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

RS-232 is best described as:

AA parallel bus for test instruments only
BA serial communication standard for short-distance instrument-to-computer connection
CA wireless networking protocol
DA power supply standard
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

Compared to RS-232, USB interfacing generally offers:

ALower speed and no plug-and-play capability
BHigher speed and plug-and-play capability
CNo practical use for instrumentation
DOnly parallel communication
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

Ethernet/LAN interfacing for instruments primarily enables:

AOnly local, wired, single-instrument connection
BRemote instrument access/control and data transfer over local or wide-area networks
COnly serial, short-distance communication
DElimination of all digital processing
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

A microprocessor-based instrument can typically perform which additional function compared to a purely analog instrument?

ANo additional functions
BSelf-calibration and computed corrections such as linearization
COnly basic on/off switching
DOnly mechanical deflection
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

Signal conditioning in a digital instrumentation chain typically includes:

AA/D conversion itself
BAmplification and filtering of the sensor signal before conversion
CFinal digital display only
DMicroprocessor programming
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

A key benefit of microprocessor-based instrumentation is:

AReduced flexibility compared to hard-wired analog designs
BGreater flexibility and functionality, such as multiple measurement ranges/functions
CInability to communicate with other systems
DComplete elimination of the need for sensors
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 959Ch 4 · Digital Instrumentation

Which interface is a legacy but still-recognized standard specifically associated with connecting test and measurement instruments?

AEthernet only
BGPIB (IEEE-488)
CUSB only
DBluetooth
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A Current Transformer's primary winding is connected:

AIn parallel with the line
BIn series with the line, carrying the full line current
CAcross the secondary only
DOnly during testing
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A critical safety rule for Current Transformers is that the secondary must:

AAlways be left open-circuited during operation
BNever be left open-circuited while the primary is energized
CAlways be short-circuited
DBe disconnected from all meters
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

If a CT's secondary is accidentally left open while the primary carries current, the result is:

ANo effect at all
BCore saturation and a dangerously high induced secondary voltage
CReduced primary current automatically
DImproved metering accuracy
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A measuring (metering) CT is specifically designed to:

ARemain accurate up to many times rated current
BSaturate at currents somewhat above rated, protecting connected meters during faults
CNever saturate under any condition
DOperate only at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A protection CT is specifically designed to:

ASaturate quickly at low currents
BRemain accurate (largely unsaturated) up to many times rated current, for correct relay operation
CBe used only for metering purposes
DHave no core at all
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

The standard secondary current rating for most Current Transformers is:

A100A or 200A
B1A or 5A
C1000A
D0.001A
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A Potential Transformer's primary winding is connected:

AIn series with the line
BIn parallel (across) the line
COnly to the secondary of a CT
DNowhere; PTs have no primary winding
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

A key safety consideration for Potential Transformers is that the secondary should never be:

ALeft open-circuited
BShort-circuited while energized
CConnected to a voltmeter
DGrounded at one point
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

The standard secondary voltage rating for most Potential Transformers is:

A440V
B110V or 120V
C11kV
D1V
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 959Ch 4 · Instrument Transformers

Compared to CTs, Potential Transformers are constructed essentially like:

AA small, lightly-loaded power transformer designed for high accuracy
BA current-source device with a saturating core
CA purely mechanical instrument
DA capacitor bank
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

An open-loop control system is characterized by:

AOutput being fed back to compare with input
BNo feedback; output has no effect on the control action
CAutomatic error correction
DComplex, expensive design
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

A closed-loop (feedback) control system is characterized by:

ANo comparison between output and reference
BOutput being measured and fed back to compare with the reference input, correcting for disturbances
CComplete immunity to instability
DSimplicity compared to open-loop systems
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

A key disadvantage of open-loop systems compared to closed-loop systems is:

AHigher cost
BSensitivity to disturbances and parameter variations, with no automatic correction
CGreater complexity
DInherent instability
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

The transfer function of a linear system is defined as:

AThe ratio of input to output in the time domain
BThe ratio of the Laplace transform of output to input, with zero initial conditions
CThe system's physical dimensions
DThe system's operating temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

For a closed-loop system with forward gain G(s) and feedback gain H(s) (negative feedback), the overall transfer function is:

AG(s) × H(s)
BG(s)/(1+G(s)H(s))
CG(s) + H(s)
DG(s) − H(s)
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

A key element unique to closed-loop systems (not present in open-loop systems) is the:

AController
BFeedback element/sensor returning a measured output signal
CPlant/process
DReference input
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

The error signal in a closed-loop system is generated by:

ASquaring the output
BComparing the reference input with the fed-back output signal
CMultiplying input and output
DIgnoring the output entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

Which type of system generally provides better rejection of external disturbances?

AOpen-loop system
BClosed-loop (feedback) system
CNeither type
DOnly systems without a controller
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

A washing machine operating on a fixed timer (with no sensing of cleanliness) is an example of:

AA closed-loop system
BAn open-loop system
CA system with infinite feedback gain
DA frequency-domain controller
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 959Ch 5 · Control System Fundamentals

The transfer function concept applies strictly to systems that are:

ANonlinear and time-varying
BLinear and time-invariant (LTI)
COnly digital systems
DOnly mechanical systems
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

A first-order system's step response is characterized by:

AOscillation with overshoot
BA simple exponential rise/decay with no overshoot
CInfinite settling time always
DA response independent of time constant
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

A second-order system with damping ratio ζ<1 is described as:

AOverdamped
BCritically damped
CUnderdamped, exhibiting oscillatory response with overshoot
DUndamped only at ζ=0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

Critically damped response (ζ=1) is characterized by:

AThe slowest possible settling with oscillation
BThe fastest possible response without oscillation
CSustained oscillation forever
DInfinite overshoot
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

Settling time in a control system's step response refers to:

AThe time to reach the very first peak
BThe time for the response to stay within a specified tolerance band of final value
CThe system's natural frequency
DThe steady-state error value
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

A linear control system is stable if and only if:

AAll closed-loop poles lie in the right-half s-plane
BAll closed-loop poles lie in the left-half s-plane
CAll poles lie on the imaginary axis
DThe system has no poles at all
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

A pole located exactly on the imaginary axis of the s-plane indicates:

AAbsolute instability
BMarginal stability (sustained oscillation)
CAbsolute stability with fast decay
DAn error in the transfer function
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

The Root Locus technique is used to study how a system's closed-loop poles move as:

ATime increases indefinitely
BA parameter (typically loop gain K) is varied from 0 to ∞
CThe input signal frequency changes
DThe system's mass changes
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

In a PID controller, the proportional (P) term primarily:

AEliminates steady-state error completely
BReduces rise time but leaves a steady-state offset error
CAmplifies high-frequency noise the most
DHas no effect on system response
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

The integral (I) term in a PID controller primarily serves to:

AAmplify noise only
BEliminate steady-state error by accumulating past error
CReduce rise time only
DHave no effect on stability
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 959Ch 5 · Time Domain Analysis

The derivative (D) term in a PID controller primarily:

AEliminates steady-state error
BImproves transient response/damping by acting on the rate of change of error, but amplifies noise
CSlows down the system's response only
DHas no relation to system stability
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

A Bode plot represents a system's frequency response as:

AA single combined magnitude-phase curve
BSeparate magnitude (dB) and phase (degrees) plots against log-frequency
CA time-domain step response only
DA polar plot on the complex plane
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

Gain margin is measured at the frequency where:

AMagnitude = 0 dB
BPhase = −180° (the phase crossover frequency)
CFrequency = 0
DMagnitude is maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

Phase margin is measured at the frequency where:

APhase = −180°
BMagnitude = 0 dB (the gain crossover frequency)
CFrequency approaches infinity
DPhase = 0°
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

For a stable control system, gain margin and phase margin should be:

ABoth negative
BBoth positive
CExactly zero
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

A Nyquist plot is constructed by plotting:

AOnly the magnitude of the open-loop transfer function
BThe open-loop frequency response G(jω)H(jω) on the complex plane as ω varies
CThe step response in the time domain
DOnly the poles of the closed-loop system
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

The Nyquist stability criterion determines closed-loop stability by:

AMeasuring only the DC gain
BCounting encirclements of the critical point (−1+j0) by the Nyquist plot
CSketching a Bode magnitude plot only
DCounting the number of system inputs
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

A key advantage of the Nyquist criterion over the Bode plot method is that it can:

AOnly be used for first-order systems
BAssess stability even for systems with open-loop unstable poles
CNever be plotted graphically
DOnly apply to discrete-time systems
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

The critical point used in Nyquist stability analysis is located at:

A(0, 0)
B(−1, 0)
C(1, 0)
D(0, 1)
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

If the Nyquist plot passes very close to the critical point (−1+j0), the system is:

AExtremely robustly stable
BClose to instability, with small gain/phase margins
CGuaranteed unstable regardless of other factors
DUnaffected in terms of stability margin
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 959Ch 5 · Frequency Domain Analysis

Both Bode and Nyquist plots are fundamentally used to analyze control systems in the:

ATime domain
BFrequency domain
CSpatial domain
DZ-domain exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

A power diode is best described as:

AA three-terminal, gate-controlled device
BA two-terminal, uncontrolled device that conducts when forward biased
CA fully controllable bidirectional switch
DA voltage-controlled device only
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

A thyristor (SCR), once triggered on via its gate, will:

ATurn off immediately when the gate signal is removed
BLatch on and continue conducting until current falls below a holding value or is forced off
CNever conduct at all
DOnly conduct in the reverse direction
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

A GTO (Gate Turn-Off thyristor) differs from a standard SCR in that it:

ACannot be turned on via a gate pulse
BCan be turned off via a (negative) gate pulse, without relying on natural commutation
CIs a two-terminal device
DCannot handle any power
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

A TRIAC is essentially equivalent to:

AA single diode
BTwo SCRs connected in anti-parallel with a common gate, enabling bidirectional conduction
CA MOSFET with no gate
DAn IGBT variant
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

An IGBT combines characteristics of which two device types?

ADiode and thyristor
BMOSFET (gate) and bipolar transistor (low conduction loss)
CTRIAC and GTO
DOnly two diodes
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

Compared to IGBTs, power MOSFETs generally offer:

ASlower switching speed
BFaster switching speed, with relatively higher conduction loss at high voltage/current
CNo gate drive requirement at all
DOnly bidirectional conduction
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

Switching loss in a power semiconductor device occurs primarily due to:

AThe device being fully off
BNon-instantaneous turn-on/turn-off transitions where voltage and current overlap
CLeakage current alone
DThe gate drive circuit only
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

Conduction loss in a power semiconductor device is primarily determined by:

ASwitching frequency alone
BThe device's on-state voltage drop/resistance and the current flowing through it
COff-state leakage current
DAmbient temperature alone
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

A snubber circuit is used to:

AIncrease switching losses intentionally
BLimit the rate of change of voltage (dV/dt) and/or current (dI/dt) during switching transitions
CPermanently disconnect the device from the circuit
DReplace the need for a heat sink entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 959Ch 5 · Power Semiconductor Switches

Freewheeling (flyback) diodes are specifically used to protect switching devices when:

ASwitching purely resistive loads
BSwitching inductive loads, from voltage spikes caused by stored inductive energy
COperating at very low frequency only
DNo protection is otherwise needed
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

A half-wave rectifier conducts during:

ABoth half-cycles of the AC input
BOnly one half-cycle of the AC input
CNeither half-cycle
DOnly at the zero-crossing point
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

A full-wave rectifier, compared to a half-wave rectifier, provides:

AHigher ripple and lower efficiency
BLower ripple and higher average DC output/efficiency
CIdentical performance
DNo DC output at all
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) quantifies:

AThe DC output voltage magnitude only
BThe distortion of a waveform due to harmonics, as a percentage of the fundamental component
CThe physical size of the rectifier
DThe switching frequency only
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

Active power factor correction (PFC) circuits function by:

AReducing the output voltage to zero
BShaping the input current to closely track the input voltage waveform, achieving near-unity power factor
CEliminating the need for any filtering
DOnly working with DC inputs
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) in inverter control primarily serves to:

AIncrease harmonic distortion in the output
BSynthesize an output whose fundamental component closely approximates a sine wave, reducing THD
CConvert AC to DC
DEliminate the need for semiconductor switches
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

A basic square-wave inverter, compared to a PWM inverter, generally produces:

ALower THD
BHigher THD (richer harmonic content)
CIdentical output quality
DNo AC output at all
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

In a buck (step-down) DC-DC converter, the average output voltage is given by:

AV₀=V₁₄/(1−D)
BV₀=D×V₁₄
CV₀=V₁₄+D
DV₀=V₁₄/D
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

In a boost (step-up) DC-DC converter, the average output voltage is given by:

AV₀=D×V₁₄
BV₀=V₁₄/(1−D)
CV₀=V₁₄×D²
DV₀=V₁₄/D²
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

The average output voltage of a DC-DC converter is primarily controlled by adjusting:

AThe input voltage magnitude only
BThe duty cycle (fraction of switching period the switch is on)
CThe output capacitor value only
DThe load resistance only
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 959Ch 5 · Power Converters

A buck-boost converter is distinguished by its ability to:

AOnly step down voltage
BProduce an output voltage either higher or lower than the input, of opposite polarity
COnly operate at unity duty cycle
DConvert AC directly to AC
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

An offline (standby) UPS normally supplies the load from:

AThe battery-inverter path continuously
BThe AC mains directly, switching to battery backup only on mains failure
CA DC generator
DAn HVDC link
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

An online (double-conversion) UPS provides power to the load via:

ADirect mains connection only
BA continuous rectifier-battery-inverter chain at all times, giving zero transfer time
CA mechanical transfer switch with a noticeable delay
DNo battery at all
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

A line-interactive UPS differs from a basic offline UPS mainly by adding:

AA larger battery only
BA voltage regulation stage to correct minor sags/surges without switching to battery
CAn HVDC converter
DA smoothing reactor
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

A key advantage of HVDC transmission over long-distance AC transmission is:

AHigher transmission losses
BLower transmission losses and no reactive power/stability limits associated with long AC lines
CInability to interconnect different grids
DRequirement for identical AC frequencies at both ends
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

A monopolar HVDC link is characterized by:

ATwo conductors of opposite polarity
BA single conductor with ground/sea return for the return current
CNo conversion equipment at all
DOperation only between synchronous grids
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

A bipolar HVDC link offers improved reliability because:

AIt uses no conductors at all
BIf one pole fails, the other can continue supplying power at reduced capacity
CIt requires no converter stations
DIt cannot transmit any power
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

A back-to-back HVDC link is specifically used to:

ATransmit power over very long submarine distances
BInterconnect two asynchronous AC systems at a common site, with no DC transmission line
CReplace all AC transmission entirely
DEliminate the need for converter stations
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

The smoothing reactor in an HVDC system primarily functions to:

AIncrease DC ripple intentionally
BReduce ripple in the DC current and limit the rate of rise of fault currents
CConvert AC to DC directly
DFilter AC-side harmonics only
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

DC filters in an HVDC system are used to:

AIncrease harmonic content on the DC side
BFilter harmonic components on the DC side, reducing interference with communication lines
CReplace the converter stations
DRegulate AC-side voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 959Ch 5 · Applications of Power Electronics

The most critical and costly component of an HVDC transmission link is generally the:

ASmoothing reactor
BConverter stations (rectifier/inverter equipment)
CDC filters alone
DTransmission tower structure
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

An HRC (High Rupturing Capacity) fuse, compared to a rewireable fuse, offers:

ASlower, less reliable operation
BFaster, more reliable operation and higher breaking capacity
CNo breaking capacity at all
DOnly domestic-scale application
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

A fuse's time-current characteristic is generally:

ADirectly proportional (higher current = slower operation)
BInversely related (higher fault current causes faster operation)
CCompletely independent of current
DOnly valid at rated current
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

An isolator (disconnector) is characterized by:

AThe ability to interrupt fault current safely
BProviding a visible open gap for isolation, with no fault-current interrupting capability
CBeing operated under full load routinely
DAutomatic operation during a fault
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

The correct sequence for de-energizing a circuit using a circuit breaker and isolator is:

AOpen isolator first, then breaker
BOpen circuit breaker first, then isolator
COpen both simultaneously
DThe sequence does not matter
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

An isolator must never be operated:

AWhen the circuit is de-energized
BUnder load, since it has no current-interrupting capability
CDuring scheduled maintenance
DIn outdoor substations
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

A series (current-limiting) reactor is inserted into a power system to:

AIncrease fault current magnitude
BLimit fault current magnitude, reducing the required breaking capacity of switchgear
CAbsorb reactive power at line receiving ends
DProvide visible isolation
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

A shunt reactor is typically connected:

AIn series with a feeder to limit fault current
BIn parallel, often at the receiving end of long transmission lines, to absorb excess reactive power
COnly inside a fuse assembly
DIn series with an isolator
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

The Ferranti effect, which shunt reactors help mitigate, refers to:

AExcessive voltage rise at the receiving end of a lightly-loaded long transmission line
BA type of fuse failure
CIsolator arcing under load
DCircuit breaker overheating
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

A drop-out (expulsion) fuse is characterized by:

ANo visual indication of operation
BThe fuse carrier visibly dropping/swinging out after operation, providing clear indication and isolation
CUse only in low-voltage domestic wiring
DBeing non-replaceable
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 959Ch 6 · Fuses, Isolators and Reactors

Common types of isolators used in outdoor substations include:

AOnly rewireable fuse types
BDouble-break and pantograph types
COnly HRC cartridge types
DOnly drop-out fuse types
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

A vacuum circuit breaker (VCB) quenches the arc using:

AInsulating oil decomposition
BA high-vacuum interrupter with very high dielectric strength
COpen air only
DSF₆ gas
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

A gas circuit breaker (GCB) typically uses which gas for arc quenching?

ANitrogen
BSulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
COxygen
DHydrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

An oil circuit breaker (OCB) quenches the arc via:

AA vacuum interrupter
BDecomposition of insulating oil, generating hydrogen gas that cools/deionizes the arc
CSF₆ gas
DOpen air with arc chutes
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

The rated breaking capacity of a circuit breaker refers to:

AIts continuous current carrying capability
BThe maximum fault current it can safely interrupt
CIts physical size
DIts rated voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

The rated making capacity of a circuit breaker refers to:

AIts interrupting time only
BThe maximum current (including asymmetrical/DC offset) it can safely close onto
CIts insulation resistance
DIts continuous voltage rating
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

A type test on a circuit breaker is:

APerformed on every manufactured unit
BPerformed once on a design, e.g. a short-circuit/breaking capacity test
COnly a visual inspection
DNot required for HV breakers
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

An MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker) is typically used for:

AMain distribution of large industrial loads
BFinal circuit protection in domestic/light commercial installations
CHigh-voltage transmission line protection only
DSF₆ gas insulated substations only
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

An MCCB (Moulded Case Circuit Breaker), compared to an MCB, generally offers:

ALower current rating and no adjustable trip settings
BHigher current rating, often with adjustable trip settings
CUse only in domestic wiring
DNo overload protection capability
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

Circuit breaker selection is primarily based on:

AColor and physical appearance only
BSystem voltage, fault level, continuous current rating, and required operating speed
CManufacturer brand name only
DOnly the installation location's altitude
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 959Ch 6 · Circuit Breakers

Operating (interrupting) time of a circuit breaker includes:

AOnly the mechanical breaker operating time
BBoth relay operating time and breaker mechanical operating time, from fault inception to arc extinction
COnly the time to reset the breaker
DTime unrelated to protection relays
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

An IDMT (Inverse Definite Minimum Time) overcurrent relay is characterized by:

AConstant operating time regardless of fault current
BOperating time that decreases as fault current increases
COperation only at exactly rated current
DNo time delay under any condition
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

An earth fault relay is specifically designed to detect:

AOnly three-phase balanced faults
BCurrent flowing to earth, typically via residual/zero-sequence current sensing
CUndervoltage conditions only
DOnly overload conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

An undervoltage relay operates when:

ACurrent exceeds a threshold
BSystem voltage falls below a preset threshold
CFrequency exceeds a threshold
DThe system is fully de-energized only
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

A contactor differs from a circuit breaker in that a contactor:

ACan safely interrupt fault currents
BIs used for frequent switching of loads under normal conditions, not fault interruption
CProvides a visible isolation gap like an isolator
DHas no electrical control mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

Differential protection operates based on the principle that: internal fault

AVoltage always equals current
BCurrent entering and leaving a protected zone balances under normal conditions, with imbalance indicating an
CImpedance is proportional to distance
DTime delay increases with fault severity
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

A key advantage of differential protection is:

ASlow but highly sensitive operation
BFast, highly selective operation limited strictly to the protected zone
CApplicability only to overhead lines
DRequiring no current transformers
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

Distance protection determines fault location by measuring:

AOnly the fault current magnitude
BImpedance between the relay location and the fault point
COnly the system frequency
DOnly the fault duration
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

Distance protection is most widely used for protecting:

ASmall domestic circuits
BTransmission lines, using graded zones (Zone 1, 2, 3) for backup protection
COnly low-voltage motor circuits
DOnly lighting circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

Earth fault protection is generally more sensitive than phase-overcurrent protection because:

AGround fault currents can be much smaller than phase fault currents
BGround faults never occur in practice
CPhase faults are always larger than any threshold
DEarth fault relays cannot detect small currents
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 959Ch 6 · Protective Relays

Overload protection, as distinct from short-circuit protection, typically involves:

AInstantaneous tripping with no delay
BTime-delayed tripping for moderate, sustained excess current
CNo relay involvement at all
DOnly voltage-based tripping
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

A direct lightning stroke refers to:

ALightning that strikes a line/equipment directly
BA nearby strike inducing a surge via electromagnetic coupling
CA strike that never affects power systems
DOnly strikes occurring underground
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

An induced (indirect) lightning stroke affects a power line by:

ADirect physical contact with the conductor
BInducing a voltage surge via electromagnetic coupling from a nearby strike, without direct contact
COnly affecting underground cables
DNever causing any overvoltage
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

A rod (spark) gap arrestor's main drawback is:

AExtremely precise breakdown voltage
BImprecise breakdown voltage and the risk of a follow-through power-frequency arc
CBeing a modern, gapless design
DZero leakage current under all conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

A horn gap arrestor improves on a simple rod gap by:

AEliminating the air gap entirely
BUsing diverging horn-shaped electrodes that elongate and help self-extinguish the follow-through arc
CRequiring no ground connection
DOperating only at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

A valve-type lightning arrestor combines a series gap with:

AA simple resistor of fixed (linear) value
BA non-linear resistor (valve element) that limits follow-through current
CNo resistive element at all
DA capacitor bank only
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

A metal oxide (ZnO) lightning arrestor is distinguished by:

ARequiring a series spark gap always
BBeing a gapless design using highly non-linear zinc oxide resistive elements
CHaving high resistance during a surge
DBeing an older, largely obsolete technology
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

The core function of a lightning arrestor is to:

AIncrease the surge voltage reaching equipment
BLimit surge voltage reaching protected equipment to a safe level by diverting surge current to ground
CPermanently connect the line to ground
DPrevent all current flow at all times
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

An overhead earth wire (shield wire) on a transmission line primarily functions to:

ACarry normal load current
BIntercept direct lightning strokes before they hit the phase conductors, conducting surge current to ground
CReplace the need for insulators
DIncrease line inductance intentionally
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

An overhead earth wire is positioned on a transmission tower:

ABelow the phase conductors
BAbove the phase conductors
CAt the same height as the phase conductors
DUnderground, parallel to the tower base
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 959Ch 6 · Lightning Protection

After a metal oxide arrestor conducts a surge to ground, its behavior at normal system voltage is to:

AContinue conducting heavily, like a short circuit
BReturn to a very high resistance state, presenting negligible leakage current
CPhysically disconnect from the circuit
DRequire manual resetting before normal operation
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

A solidly earthed system's neutral is connected to earth:

AThrough a large resistor
BDirectly, with no intentional impedance
CThrough a reactor only
DNot connected at all
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

A resistance earthed system limits ground fault current by:

AConnecting the neutral directly to earth
BEarthing the neutral through a resistor
CLeaving the neutral completely unearthed
DIncreasing system voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

In an unearthed (isolated neutral) system, a single ground fault typically produces:

AA very large fault current requiring immediate tripping
BOnly a small capacitive current, not necessarily requiring immediate tripping
CNo current flow at all
DImmediate equipment destruction
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

Equipment earthing primarily protects against:

AOvervoltage from lightning strikes only
BDangerous touch voltage on equipment frames in the event of an insulation failure
CLoss of supply frequency
DExcessive reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

Touch potential refers to:

AThe voltage between two points on the ground one stride apart
BThe potential difference between an energized object and the ground surface at a point a person could touch
CThe total system voltage
DThe resistance of the earth electrode
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

Step potential refers to:

AThe voltage between an equipment frame and the person touching it
BThe potential difference between two points on the ground surface separated by one stride
CThe system's rated voltage
DThe earth electrode's physical depth
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

Earth electrode resistance should generally be kept:

AAs high as possible
BAs low as practicable, per relevant standards
CExactly equal to the system voltage
DIrrelevant to safety
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

A key precaution in earthing system maintenance is:

ANever testing earth resistance
BRegular testing/measurement of earth resistance and maintenance of connections
CUsing undersized conductors to save cost
DAvoiding bonding of metallic parts
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

A key risk of prolonged operation with an unresolved ground fault in an unearthed system is:

AImmediate complete system shutdown
BA second ground fault occurring, potentially causing a severe phase-to-phase fault condition
CNo risk at all, since the system is isolated
DAutomatic self-correction of the fault
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 959Ch 6 · Earthing

Equipment earthing conductors should be sized to:

ACarry only the rated normal load current
BCarry the expected fault current without damage
CBe as thin as possible to save material
DMatch only the equipment's physical dimensions
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A step-up substation is typically located:

AAt the final consumer's premises
BNear generating stations, raising voltage to transmission level
COnly at switching points with no transformers
DOnly underground
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A switching substation is distinguished by:

AAlways changing voltage level via transformers
BInterconnecting/switching circuits without changing voltage level
CBeing used only for generation
DHaving no circuit breakers
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A single bus bar arrangement's main drawback is:

AExcessive cost
BPoor reliability, since a bus fault or maintenance takes the entire substation out of service
CBeing usable only for EHV substations
DRequiring the most breakers of any arrangement
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A ring main bus bar arrangement improves reliability because:

AEach circuit breaker is fed from only one direction
BEach circuit breaker is fed from two directions, so a single outage doesn't interrupt other circuits
CIt has no circuit breakers at all
DIt requires the fewest breakers of any scheme
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A breaker-and-a-half arrangement is typically used in:

ASmall domestic substations
BImportant EHV substations requiring high reliability and flexibility
COnly switching substations with no transformers
DOnly indoor GIS substations
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A tap changing transformer regulates voltage by:

AChanging the system frequency
BAdjusting the transformer's turns ratio via a tap changer
CAdding a series capacitor only
DDisconnecting the load
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A booster transformer provides voltage regulation by:

AChanging the main transformer's core material
BInjecting an additional series (boost or buck) voltage into the line
CAbsorbing reactive power only
DActing purely as a step-down transformer
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

A static compensator (e.g. SVC or STATCOM), compared to a synchronous condenser, generally offers:

ASlower response due to mechanical rotation
BMuch faster reactive power response, being power-electronic based
CNo ability to regulate voltage
DOnly reactive power absorption, never injection
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

Substation earthing (grounding) design primarily aims to:

AMaximize step and touch potentials
BKeep step and touch potentials within safe limits for personnel during a fault
CEliminate the need for any earth connections
DIncrease the substation's operating voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 959Ch 6 · Substations

Which of the following is classified as substation auxiliary equipment?

ACurrent transformers used for metering
BStation batteries/DC supply for protection and emergency lighting
CThe main power transformer
DThe transmission line conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

An overhead transmission line relies primarily on which insulating medium between conductors?

AOil-impregnated paper
BAir
CCross-linked polyethylene (XLPE)
DRubber
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

The cross-arm on a transmission tower/pole primarily serves to:

ACarry current between towers
BMount the insulators that support the conductors on the tower/pole
CProtect against lightning strikes
DProvide the earth connection
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

An underground cable's metallic sheath primarily serves to:

ACarry the main current
BProvide a moisture barrier protecting the insulation
CReplace the need for a conductor
DIncrease the cable's voltage rating directly
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

PILC cable construction uses which type of conductor insulation?

ACross-linked polyethylene (XLPE)
BOil-impregnated paper
CBare air gap
DPVC only, with no impregnation
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

Compared to PILC cables, modern XLPE cables generally offer:

ALower thermal rating and heavier construction
BHigher thermal rating, lighter construction, and no oil leakage risk
CNo insulation at all
DUse only for overhead lines
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

Compared to underground cables, overhead transmission lines have:

AMuch higher initial cost
BMuch lower initial cost
CIdentical cost in all cases
DNo dependency on right-of-way
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

A key advantage of underground cables over overhead lines is:

AFaster fault location
BProtection from weather exposure and lightning, and minimal visual/right-of-way impact
CLower installation cost
DEasier repair access
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

Locating and repairing a fault is generally:

AFaster and easier on underground cables
BFaster and easier on overhead lines, since faults are visible and accessible
CEqually fast for both
DImpossible on overhead lines
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

Underground cabling is most commonly preferred in:

ALong rural transmission corridors
BDense urban areas, short high-value runs, and special crossings
CAreas with no space constraints
DOnly in desert regions
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 959Ch 7 · Section 7.1

An overhead earth (shield) wire, as a component of an overhead line, primarily provides:

AAdditional current-carrying capacity
BLightning protection for the phase conductors
CMechanical support only
DUnderground fault indication
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

Raising the transmission voltage for a fixed power transfer primarily achieves:

AHigher line current and higher losses
BLower line current, reducing I²R losses and required conductor size
CNo change in line current
DIncreased conductor material requirement
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

The economic optimum transmission voltage balances:

AConductor cost against insulation/equipment cost
BOnly the cost of towers
COnly the cost of conductors, ignoring insulation
DOnly labor cost
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

Corona discharge around a conductor becomes more significant when:

AVoltage is lower and conductors are farther apart
BVoltage is higher and conductors are closer/smaller in diameter
CThe conductor is perfectly insulated
DFrequency is zero (DC)
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

A key characteristic of glass insulators is that they:

ANever fail under any condition
BShatter visibly when damaged, providing self-indication of failure
CAre heavier than porcelain with no dielectric benefit
DCannot be used for high voltage lines
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

Polymer (composite) insulators are increasingly preferred for HV/EHV lines mainly because of their:

AHeavy weight and poor water resistance
BLight weight and hydrophobic (water-repellent) surface reducing flashover risk
CInability to withstand pollution
DHigh cost with no performance benefit
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

Voltage regulation of a transmission line is defined as:

A(PR/PS)×100
B[(VS−VR)/VR]×100
CLine current divided by rated current
DTotal line resistance in ohms
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

Transmission efficiency is calculated as:

A(Sending-end power / Receiving-end power)×100
B(Receiving-end power / Sending-end power)×100
CVoltage regulation percentage
DLine current squared
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

A short transmission line (up to ~80 km) is typically modeled using:

ASeries resistance and reactance only, neglecting shunt capacitance
BOnly shunt capacitance
CA distributed-parameter model exclusively
DNo electrical parameters at all
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

A medium transmission line (roughly 80–250 km) is commonly modeled using:

ASeries impedance only, with no capacitance
BA nominal-π or nominal-T equivalent circuit that includes shunt capacitance
COnly shunt capacitance with no series impedance
DThe same model as a short line
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 959Ch 7 · Transmission Lines Circuit Selection

The choice of transmission voltage level is influenced primarily by:

AOnly the color of the conductor insulation
BThe quantity of power to be transmitted and the transmission distance
COnly the ambient temperature
DOnly the manufacturer's preference
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

Sag in an overhead conductor is defined as:

AThe horizontal distance between two supports
BThe vertical difference between the support level and the lowest point of the conductor
CThe conductor's total length
DThe tension applied to the conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

Increasing conductor tension, for a given span and weight, generally:

AIncreases sag
BDecreases sag, but risks conductor breakage if excessive
CHas no effect on sag
DAlways improves safety with no drawback
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

Ground clearance for an overhead line must be maintained at:

AMinimum sag condition (coldest temperature)
BMaximum sag condition (highest temperature/heaviest loading)
CAny arbitrary sag condition
DZero sag only
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

ACSR conductor construction consists of:

APure copper strands only
BAluminium strands around a steel core
CSteel strands around an aluminium core
DGlass fiber core with copper strands
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

Compared to ACSR, AAAC (All Aluminium Alloy Conductor) offers:

AWorse corrosion resistance due to its steel core
BBetter corrosion resistance, since it has no steel core to corrode
CIdentical construction and properties
DUse only for underground cables
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

A suspension insulator, compared to a pin insulator, is typically used for:

ALower voltage, straight-line supports only
BHigher voltage applications, as a string of discs that can be extended by adding more discs
COnly underground cable terminations
DApplications with no mechanical loading
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

A strain (tension) insulator is used primarily at:

AStraight-line tangent supports only
BDead-ends, angle towers, or river crossings, where the string withstands full conductor tension
CLocations with no mechanical stress
DOnly for low-voltage shackle applications
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

String efficiency of a suspension insulator string is always:

AExactly 100%, regardless of the number of discs
BLess than 100%, decreasing as more discs are added
CGreater than 100% for long strings
DIndependent of shunt capacitance to the tower
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

Jumpers at a strain/dead-end tower serve to:

AIncrease the insulator string's mechanical strength
BElectrically bypass the insulator string, connecting the two conductor sections
CReduce conductor sag directly
DReplace the need for cross-arms
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 959Ch 7 · Mechanical Design of Overhead Line

A Stockbridge (vibration) damper is primarily used to:

AIncrease conductor tension
BAbsorb the energy of wind-induced (aeolian) vibrations and prevent conductor fatigue damage
CProvide the main lightning protection for the line
DReplace insulators at dead-end towers
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Demand factor is defined as:

AMaximum demand divided by total connected load
BTotal connected load divided by maximum demand
CAverage load divided by maximum demand
DMaximum demand divided by average load
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Load factor is defined as:

AMaximum demand divided by average load
BAverage load divided by maximum demand, over a given period
CTotal connected load divided by rated capacity
DDiversity factor divided by demand factor
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

A higher load factor is generally desirable for a utility because it indicates:

APoor utilization of generating capacity
BMore uniform loading and better utilization of generating capacity
CHigher peak demand only
DLower average load
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Diversity factor is defined as:

ACoincident system maximum demand divided by sum of individual maximum demands
BSum of individual maximum demands divided by coincident system maximum demand
CAverage load divided by maximum demand
DRated capacity divided by average load
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

A high diversity factor among a set of connected loads allows a utility to:

ARequire a larger generation/distribution capacity than the sum of individual peaks
BServe the loads economically with a smaller capacity, since individual peaks don't coincide
CIgnore load forecasting entirely
DEliminate the need for any generation capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Plant capacity factor is defined as:

ARated plant capacity divided by average load
BAverage load on the plant divided by its rated capacity
CMaximum demand divided by connected load
DLoad factor divided by diversity factor
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Industrial loads, compared to domestic loads, are generally characterized by:

ASharp morning/evening peaks only
BBeing the largest and steadiest load with relatively flat demand through the day
CBeing entirely seasonal
DHaving no motor loads
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Short-term load forecasting is primarily used for:

ALong-term capacity investment decisions only
BOperational scheduling, covering hours to days ahead
CSetting electricity tariffs exclusively
DDesigning insulator strings
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Medium/long-term load forecasting is primarily used for:

AReal-time dispatch of generators
BCapacity planning and investment decisions over months to years
CSetting instantaneous relay trip settings
DSizing a single conductor span
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 959Ch 7 · Electrical Loads

Correlation-based load forecasting methods relate load growth to factors such as:

AOnly the color of transmission towers
BPopulation growth, GDP, and weather/temperature
COnly the type of insulator used
DThe exact instant of a lightning strike
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

In a radial primary distribution system, a fault upstream of the substation feeder typically:

AAffects only the single consumer nearest the fault
BInterrupts supply to all consumers downstream of the fault point
CHas no effect on any consumer
DAutomatically reroutes power via a second feeder
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

A ring main distribution system improves reliability over a radial system because: whole ring

AIt uses fewer conductors overall
BEach point on the ring can be fed from two directions, allowing a fault to be isolated without interrupting the
CIt has no closed loop at all
DIt eliminates the need for a substation
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

An interconnected network distribution system, compared to radial and ring systems, generally offers:

AThe lowest cost and simplest design
BThe highest reliability and best voltage regulation, at higher cost and complexity
CNo improvement in reliability
DOnly single-direction power flow
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

A three-phase, four-wire secondary distribution system is used when: same network

AOnly single-phase loads exist on the network
BBoth three-phase (motor/industrial) and single-phase (lighting/domestic) loads must be supplied from the
CNo neutral conductor is required
DOnly DC loads are present
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

A single-phase, two-wire secondary distribution system is typically used for:

ALarge industrial motor loads requiring three-phase supply
BPurely single-phase loads such as small residential or rural consumers
COnly high-voltage transmission
DInterconnected network substations only
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

Conductor selection in secondary distribution considers all of the following EXCEPT:

ACurrent-carrying capacity (ampacity) for expected load
BPermissible voltage drop over the run
CMechanical strength for the span
DThe color of the substation building
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

A stay (guy) wire on a distribution pole is primarily used to:

AIncrease the pole's current-carrying capacity
BCounteract unbalanced mechanical pull on the pole, preventing it from bending or toppling
CReplace the need for cross-arms
DProvide the main lightning protection
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

A strain insulator is typically fitted into a stay wire to:

AIncrease the wire's mechanical strength only
BElectrically isolate the ground-level section of the stay wire from the pole-side section for safety
CReplace the anchor at the ground end
DProvide a path for lightning surge current
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

Support pole selection for secondary distribution (wood, concrete, or steel) depends on:

AOnly the aesthetic preference of the utility
BSpan length, conductor loading, soil conditions, and cost
COnly the color required by regulation
DOnly the number of nearby buildings
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 959Ch 7 · Distribution Systems

Which primary distribution configuration typically involves the highest complexity and cost?

ARadial system
BRing main system
CInterconnected network system
DAll are equally complex and costly
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

Voltage drop along a distribution feeder is primarily caused by:

AThe feeder's color and length only
BLoad current flowing through the feeder's impedance (I×Z)
CThe presence of insulators
DAmbient temperature alone
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

A tap-changing transformer regulates distribution voltage by:

AAdding shunt capacitance to the line
BAdjusting the transformer's turns ratio (on-load or off-load)
CIncreasing the conductor's cross-sectional area
DRemoving the neutral conductor
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

Shunt capacitor banks help improve distribution voltage regulation mainly by:

AIncreasing the reactive current drawn from the source
BSupplying local reactive power, reducing the I×X component of voltage drop
CIncreasing the feeder's resistance
DEliminating the need for any voltage regulation
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

Most practical industrial and commercial loads exhibit a power factor that is:

ALeading, due to capacitive loads dominating
BLagging, due to inductive loads such as motors and transformers
CAlways exactly unity
DImpossible to determine
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

A low (lagging) power factor at a given real power demand results in:

ALower current and reduced losses
BHigher current, higher I²R losses, and often utility penalty charges
CNo change in required conductor size
DAutomatic voltage improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

Power factor correction is achieved by:

AAdding more lagging (inductive) reactive power
BAdding leading (capacitive) reactive power to offset the lagging reactive power drawn by inductive loads
CRemoving the neutral conductor
DIncreasing the supply frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

The most common and economical method of power factor correction is:

AA synchronous condenser
BStatic (shunt) capacitor banks
CA tap-changing transformer
DA booster transformer
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

A synchronous condenser used for power factor correction is essentially:

AA static capacitor bank with no moving parts
BAn over-excited synchronous motor running unloaded, supplying leading reactive power
CA type of circuit breaker
DA passive resistor bank
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

Compared to static capacitor banks and synchronous condensers, SVC/STATCOM devices offer:

AThe slowest possible response time
BFast, continuously variable reactive power compensation via power electronics
CNo ability to vary compensation at all
DOnly fixed, non-adjustable compensation
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 959Ch 7 · Voltage Regulation and Power Factor Correction

A key benefit of power factor correction, besides reduced losses, is:

AIncreased current draw from the source
BFreed-up capacity in conductors/transformers and improved voltage regulation
CGuaranteed elimination of all voltage drop
DElimination of the need for any transformers
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

Luminous flux is measured in:

ACandela
BLumen
CLux
DWatt
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

Illuminance (E), the flux received per unit area of a surface, is measured in:

ALumen
BCandela
CLux
DLumen per watt
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

Luminous efficacy of a lamp is defined as:

ATotal lumens emitted regardless of power
BLuminous flux produced per unit electrical power input (lm/W)
CThe lamp's physical size
DThe lamp's operating voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

An incandescent lamp produces light by:

ASemiconductor electroluminescence
BHeating a tungsten filament to incandescence (white-hot) in an evacuated/inert-gas bulb
CA mercury vapor discharge with phosphor coating
DA gas laser mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

A fluorescent lamp produces visible light primarily by:

ADirect semiconductor electroluminescence
BA mercury vapor discharge emitting UV radiation, converted to visible light by a phosphor coating
CHeating a tungsten filament directly
DCombustion of a gas mixture
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

A CFL (Compact Fluorescent Lamp) differs from a standard fluorescent tube mainly in:

AUsing a completely different light-generation principle
BBeing a miniaturized/folded tube with integrated ballast, for direct incandescent replacement
CRequiring no phosphor coating
DProducing light via semiconductor action
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

An LED lamp produces light through:

AFilament incandescence
BElectroluminescence at a semiconductor p-n junction
CMercury vapor discharge
DChemical combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

Compared to incandescent and fluorescent lamps, LED lamps generally offer:

AThe lowest luminous efficacy of the group
BThe highest luminous efficacy, longest life, and low heat generation
CNo advantage in efficiency
DA required warm-up period before reaching full brightness
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

Indoor lighting schemes such as direct, semi-direct, and indirect are classified primarily by:

AThe lamp's wattage only
BHow much luminous flux is directed downward toward the working plane versus upward toward the ceiling
CThe color of the lamp housing
DThe building's construction material
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 959Ch 8 · Illumination

A key design consideration for outdoor street lighting schemes is:

AMaximizing glare to road users
BAchieving uniform illuminance on the target area while minimizing glare and stray light
CUsing only incandescent lamps exclusively
DEliminating all luminaire spacing requirements
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

An electrical layout plan primarily shows:

AOnly the total project cost
BThe physical location of outlets, switches, distribution boards, and wiring runs on the building plan
COnly the single-line distribution hierarchy
DThe building's structural foundation design
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

A single-line (schematic) diagram in an electrical drawing primarily clarifies:

AThe physical wall colors of the building
BThe electrical distribution hierarchy, circuit protection, and ratings
CThe plumbing layout
DThe landscaping plan
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

Estimation in an electrical project refers to:

AOnly the final invoice amount
BCalculating the quantities of materials and labor required, from the approved drawings
CThe building's architectural style
DOnly the contractor's profit margin
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

Costing in an electrical project is derived by:

AIgnoring material costs entirely
BApplying unit rates (material + labor) to the estimated quantities
CUsing only the labor cost with no material cost
DA fixed percentage of the building's total floor area regardless of installation scope
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

Conductor and protection sizing in an electrical estimate is primarily driven by:

AThe building's paint color
BLoad calculation, including connected load and demand factor
CThe number of windows in the building
DThe estimator's personal preference alone
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

The National Building Code (NBC) of Nepal primarily sets out:

AOnly decorative interior design guidelines
BMinimum requirements for structural safety, fire safety, and building services including electrical installations
COnly telecommunications wiring standards
DOnly landscaping requirements
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

National electricity standards and codes primarily establish:

AOnly pricing guidelines for electricians
BMinimum technical requirements for wiring, earthing, protection, and installation safety
COnly aesthetic requirements for fixtures
DOnly requirements for underground cabling, excluding overhead lines
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

A good electrical estimate/costing exercise should account for:

AOnly material cost, ignoring labor
BContingencies, overheads, and applicable taxes/duties in addition to material and labor
COnly labor cost, ignoring material
DNothing beyond the raw material price
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

Estimation and costing documents primarily serve as the basis for:

AOnly aesthetic approval of the building
BBudgeting, tendering, and contractor payment
CStructural load calculations only
DFire alarm system design exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 959Ch 8 · Electrical Design and Estimation

National electricity standards/codes are typically referenced alongside the NBC during:

AOnly the building's demolition phase
BDesign approval and inspection of electrical installations
COnly marketing of the building
DOnly the final sale of the property
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

A flat rate tariff charges consumers:

AA rate that varies by time of day
BA single fixed rate per unit (kWh) regardless of time of use or demand
CA rate based only on maximum demand
DA rate that decreases with more usage in all cases
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

A two-part tariff structure combines:

AOnly a fixed charge, with no energy component
BA fixed charge (based on connected load/demand) with a running/energy charge (per kWh)
COnly a per-kWh energy charge with no fixed component
DA penalty charge only for low power factor
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

An increasing-block (slab) tariff is primarily designed to:

ACharge the same rate regardless of consumption level
BEncourage conservation by charging a higher rate per kWh at higher consumption levels
CCharge lower rates as consumption increases
DApply only to industrial consumers
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

A Time-of-Day (ToD) tariff varies the energy charge based on:

AThe customer's physical location only
BThe time period of consumption (e.g. peak, off-peak, shoulder hours)
CThe color of the electricity meter
DThe customer's age
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

A demand tariff primarily charges customers based on:

AOnly their total annual energy consumption
BTheir maximum demand (kW/kVA), typically combined with an energy charge
COnly the number of days in the billing period
DA completely fixed amount regardless of usage or demand
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

In Nepal, domestic electricity tariffs are commonly structured as:

AA flat rate with no blocks
BIncreasing-block (slab) rates, to encourage conservation while moderating cost for essential use
CA pure demand-based tariff with no energy component
DTime-of-day tariffs exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

Industrial and larger commercial consumers in Nepal are typically billed using:

AA flat rate tariff only
BA two-part (demand + energy) tariff
CNo tariff at all, only a fixed annual fee
DOnly a block tariff with no demand component
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

Nepal's electricity tariff structure is generally organized by:

ARandom assignment with no categorization
BConsumer category, such as domestic, industrial, commercial, and irrigation/agricultural
COnly the consumer's physical address
DOnly the phase of the moon
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

The Electricity Act and associated Rules/Regulations in Nepal primarily establish:

AOnly building aesthetic standards
BLicensing requirements, safety/technical standards, and the basis for tariff regulation
COnly road construction standards
DOnly import duties on appliances
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 959Ch 8 · Tariff Schemes

The electricity regulatory body's role in Nepal's tariff-setting process is to:

ASet tariffs with no consideration of utility viability
BBalance consumer protection with the financial viability of utilities and power producers
CHave no role in the electricity sector
DOnly regulate transmission line construction
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

A group drive arrangement uses:

AA separate motor for each machine
BA single motor to drive multiple machines via a common shaft and belts/pulleys
CMultiple motors within a single machine
DNo motor at all, only manual power
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

An individual drive arrangement, compared to a group drive, offers:

ALower reliability, since one motor failure stops all machines
BIndependent control and higher reliability, since one motor's failure affects only its own machine
CNo possibility of independent control
DIdentical characteristics to a group drive
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

A multi-motor drive is characterized by:

AA single motor for an entire factory
BMultiple motors within a single machine/process, each driving a different part or function
CThe complete absence of electric motors
DMotors used only for lighting
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

A variable speed drive, such as one using a VFD, primarily offers:

AFixed speed operation only
BAdjustable speed, providing energy savings and process flexibility
CNo control over motor speed whatsoever
DOnly manual mechanical speed adjustment
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

Motor duty cycle classification (continuous, short-time, intermittent) matters for sizing because: load

AIt has no effect on the motor rating required
BA motor can often be rated lower for intermittent/short-time duty than for continuous duty at the same peak
CContinuous duty always requires the smallest motor
DDuty cycle only affects motor color/appearance
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

The relationship between mechanical power, torque, and angular speed is given by:

AP = T / ω
BP = T × ω
CP = ω / T
DP = T + ω
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

When selecting a motor for a high-inertia load such as a conveyor, it is especially important to verify:

AOnly the motor's physical color
BAdequate starting torque to accelerate the load from rest
CThat the motor has no rated speed
DThat the motor cannot be started at all
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

Excessive motor starting current, if not properly managed, can result in:

ANo effect on the electrical system
BExcessive line disturbance or voltage dip
CAutomatic increase in supply voltage
DA guaranteed increase in motor efficiency
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

A safety/service factor margin is typically applied above the calculated running power requirement to:

AReduce the motor's cost at the expense of reliability
BAccommodate load variation, voltage fluctuation, and aging
CGuarantee the motor never needs replacement
DEliminate the need for any torque calculation
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Drives and Motor Selection

Fans and pumps are typically classified, for motor selection purposes, as having a load characteristic of:

AConstant torque, independent of speed
BVariable torque (torque generally increasing with speed)
CZero torque at all speeds
DInfinite torque at zero speed
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Resistance heating generates heat by:

AInducing eddy currents in a workpiece
BPassing current through a resistive element, producing I²R loss
CApplying a high-frequency electric field across a dielectric
DStriking an electric arc
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Induction heating works by:

ADirect physical contact between a heating element and the workpiece
BInducing eddy currents directly within a conductive workpiece via an alternating magnetic field
CPassing current through a resistive coil in contact with the workpiece
DApplying radiant infrared energy
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Induction heating is commonly used for:

ADrying wood and textiles
BMelting metals, surface hardening, and forging preheat
COnly domestic space heating
DOnly food processing
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Dielectric heating is applied to:

AHighly conductive metals only
BNon-conductive (dielectric) materials such as wood, plastics, and textiles
COnly liquids
DOnly gases
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Arc heating, used in arc welding and electric arc furnaces, generates heat via:

AResistive current flow through a fixed element
BAn electric arc struck between electrodes or between an electrode and the workpiece
CInduced eddy currents only
DRadiant infrared energy only
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Infrared heating transfers heat to the target material primarily by:

ADirect electrical conduction
BRadiation from a heated element or lamp
CInduced eddy currents
DMolecular friction within a dielectric field
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

A key advantage of dielectric heating for materials like wood or food is that it:

AHeats only the surface, leaving the interior cold
BHeats the material internally and relatively uniformly
CRequires the material to be electrically conductive
DCannot be used for drying or curing
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Power factor correction contributes to electrical energy conservation mainly by:

AIncreasing reactive current drawn from the source
BReducing reactive current drawn from the source, lowering I²R losses in supply conductors/transformers
CEliminating the need for any heating equipment
DIncreasing the required conductor size
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Variable-speed drives (VSDs) contribute to energy conservation in motor-driven loads by:

AAlways running the motor at full fixed speed
BMatching motor output/speed to the actual load requirement rather than running at fixed full speed
CIncreasing motor starting current unnecessarily
DDisabling the motor entirely during operation
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Heating

Load management/scheduling as an energy conservation measure primarily involves:

ARunning all loads simultaneously at peak demand times
BShifting non-critical loads away from peak demand periods
CDisconnecting all loads permanently
DIgnoring demand charges entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

A tramway is best described as:

AA rubber-tired bus with no overhead power connection
BA rail-guided electric vehicle operating on city streets, typically powered from an overhead line
CAn underground-only rail system
DA vehicle powered solely by onboard batteries with no external supply
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

A trolley bus differs from a tramway mainly in that it:

ARuns on rails like a tramway
BIs rubber-tired and road-flexible while still drawing power from twin overhead wires
CHas no connection to any overhead power supply
DCannot share the road with other traffic
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Why was the DC series motor traditionally favored for electric traction? demands

AIt has low starting torque, unsuitable for traction
BIt offers high starting torque and naturally slows as load/torque increases, suiting variable tractive-effort
CIt cannot handle hill-climbing or acceleration loads
DIt requires no electrical supply at all
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Modern traction systems increasingly favor three-phase induction or synchronous motors mainly because they offer:

ALower efficiency than DC series motors
BHigher efficiency, lower maintenance (no commutator/brushes), and precise electronic control
CNo possibility of speed control
DHigher maintenance requirements than DC motors
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Rheostatic (resistance) speed control of a DC traction motor works by:

AVarying the supply frequency
BInserting/removing series resistance to vary motor terminal voltage/current
CUsing a chopper circuit exclusively
DChanging the motor's physical size
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Chopper control, used in modern DC traction drives, works by:

APhysically switching resistors in and out only
BA DC-DC converter rapidly switching to vary the effective voltage applied to the traction motor
CReversing the motor's field winding continuously
DUsing no electronic switching at all
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

VVVF (Variable-Voltage Variable-Frequency) inverter control is primarily used for:

ADC series traction motors only
BInduction or synchronous traction motors, allowing precise speed control
CElevators using only mechanical gearing with no electronics
DSystems with no speed control requirement
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

A key advantage of modern chopper/VVVF traction control over traditional rheostatic control is:

AGreater energy loss in control resistors
BSmoother, more efficient control along with regenerative braking capability
CThe complete elimination of any speed control
DHigher required maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Modern elevators commonly use which motor/drive combination?

AA DC series motor with rheostatic control only
BA gearless permanent-magnet synchronous motor with a VVVF drive
CNo motor at all, purely counterweight-driven
DAn uncontrolled fixed-speed induction motor
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 959Ch 8 · Electric Traction

Regenerative braking in a modern traction drive refers to:

ADissipating all braking energy as heat in resistors
BReturning braking energy to the supply system rather than wasting it
CDisconnecting the motor completely during braking
DA braking method usable only with rheostatic control
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

The series parameters of a transmission line equivalent circuit are:

ACapacitance and conductance
BResistance and inductance
COnly capacitance
DOnly conductance
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

GMR (Geometric Mean Radius) is used in transmission line calculations to account for:

AThe spacing between phase conductors
BThe internal flux linkage of a conductor, giving an equivalent radius for inductance calculation
CThe capacitance to ground only
DThe corona inception voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Capacitance calculation for a transmission line uses:

AGMR instead of actual conductor radius
BThe actual conductor radius (not GMR), since capacitance depends on the external electric field
CNeither GMD nor conductor radius
DOnly the conductor's internal flux linkage
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Transposition of transmission line conductors is performed to:

AIncrease unbalanced mutual inductance/capacitance among phases
BEqualize mutual inductance/capacitance among phases despite unsymmetrical spacing
CEliminate the need for any per unit calculations
DIncrease corona loss intentionally
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Skin effect in an AC conductor refers to: resistance

AUniform current distribution across the conductor cross-section
BHigher current density near the conductor surface, reducing usable cross-section and increasing effective AC
CA reduction in AC resistance compared to DC resistance
DAn effect that only occurs at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Proximity effect in transmission line conductors becomes more significant when:

AConductors are widely spaced
BConductors are closely spaced, so nearby conductors' magnetic fields distort current distribution
CThe system operates at DC only
DConductor radius is very large with no nearby conductors
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Corona inception voltage is the threshold at which:

AThe conductor physically melts
BThe surface voltage gradient becomes sufficient to ionize the surrounding air
CThe line loses all capacitance
DThe conductor's DC resistance becomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

Bundled conductors are used on EHV lines primarily to:

AIncrease corona loss and radio interference
BIncrease effective conductor diameter, reducing surface voltage gradient and thus corona loss
CReduce the line's current-carrying capacity
DEliminate the need for transposition
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

In the per unit system, base impedance is calculated as:

ABase MVA divided by base kV
B(Base kV)² divided by base MVA
CBase kV multiplied by base MVA
DBase kV squared multiplied by base MVA
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 959Ch 9 · Transmission Line Parameters

A single-line diagram is used to represent a power system because:

AEach phase must be shown separately for accuracy
BUnder balanced three-phase conditions, all three phases are identical, so one line suffices
CIt eliminates the need for any impedance diagram
DIt applies only to single-phase systems
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

A short transmission line (up to ~80 km) is typically modeled using:

AOnly shunt capacitance
BLumped series impedance only, with shunt capacitance neglected
CA fully distributed-parameter model
DOnly a shunt conductance
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

A long transmission line (greater than about 250 km) is most accurately modeled using:

AA lumped series impedance only
BA distributed-parameter model using hyperbolic functions of the propagation constant and length
CNo electrical model at all
DThe same nominal-π model as a medium line, with no modification
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

For a symmetrical transmission line represented by ABCD parameters:

AA and D are always different
BA = D
CB and C are always zero
DAD + BC = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

For a passive, reciprocal two-port network represented by ABCD parameters, the identity that must hold is:

AAD + BC = 1
BAD − BC = 1
CA + D = 0
DBC = 0 always
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

In the ABCD parameter representation, the constant B has units of:

ASiemens (mhos)
BOhms (impedance)
CNo units (dimensionless)
DWatts
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

The Ferranti effect occurs when:

AA heavily loaded line has receiving-end voltage lower than sending-end voltage
BA lightly-loaded or no-load long line has receiving-end voltage exceeding sending-end voltage
CA line is perfectly loaded at its surge impedance loading
DOnly short lines are involved
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

Surge Impedance Loading (SIL) is defined as the power delivered when a line is terminated in a resistive load equal to:

AIts series resistance only
BIts surge (characteristic) impedance, ZC = √(L/C)
CZero ohms (a short circuit)
DInfinite impedance (open circuit)
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

At Surge Impedance Loading, a transmission line operates at:

AA highly lagging power factor with large voltage drop
BUnity power factor with a flat voltage profile along the line
CZero power factor
DMaximum possible voltage rise at the receiving end
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

Loading a long transmission line below its SIL tends to cause:

AVoltage drop toward the receiving end
BVoltage rise toward the receiving end, as the capacitive (Ferranti-like) effect dominates
CNo change in voltage profile under any condition
DImmediate line tripping
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 959Ch 9 · Performance of Transmission Line

Loading a long transmission line above its SIL tends to cause:

AVoltage rise toward the receiving end
BVoltage drop toward the receiving end, as the inductive effect dominates
CThe line to behave purely capacitively
DNo relationship between loading and voltage profile
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

The method of symmetrical components resolves an unbalanced 3-phase phasor set into:

AA single balanced set only
BPositive, negative, and zero sequence balanced sets
COnly positive and negative sequence sets
DFour sequence sets
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

Positive sequence components have a phase rotation that is:

AOpposite to the normal system (a-c-b)
BThe same as the normal system (a-b-c)
CIdentical in all three phases with no rotation
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

Zero sequence current requires, for it to flow in a power system:

ANo special path at all
BA return path, such as a grounded neutral or earth connection
COnly a balanced three-phase load
DA purely resistive load
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

In an ungrounded (or high-impedance grounded) system, a single line-to-ground fault typically results in:

AVery high ground fault current with no voltage rise
BLimited fault current, but possible significant voltage rise on the healthy phases
CNo fault current and no voltage change at all
DImmediate destruction of all connected equipment
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

A single line-to-ground (L-G) fault is analyzed by connecting the three sequence networks:

AIn parallel
BIn series
CCompletely disconnected from each other
DOnly the positive sequence network is used
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

A line-to-line (L-L) fault, with no ground involvement, does NOT involve:

AThe positive sequence network
BThe negative sequence network
CZero sequence current flow
DAny sequence network at all
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

A double line-to-ground (L-L-G) fault is represented by connecting the three sequence networks:

AIn series
BIn parallel
CUsing only the zero sequence network
DUsing only the negative sequence network
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

A three-phase fault (L-L-L) is unique among fault types in that it:

ARequires all three sequence networks connected in series
BIs the only balanced fault type, analyzable using only the positive sequence network
CNever produces significant fault current
DCannot occur in practice
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

Among common fault types, the three-phase fault generally produces:

AThe lowest fault current on most systems
BThe highest fault current on most systems
CExactly the same fault current as an L-G fault always
DNo fault current at all
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 959Ch 9 · Fault Calculations

A solidly (effectively) grounded system, compared to an ungrounded system, during a ground fault typically exhibits:

ALower ground fault current and higher healthy-phase overvoltage
BHigher ground fault current but more limited transient overvoltage on healthy phases
CIdentical behavior to an ungrounded system in all respects
DNo ground fault current at all
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

In the Y-bus matrix, the diagonal element Yii represents:

AThe negative of the admittance between bus i and bus j
BThe sum of all admittances connected to bus i
CAlways zero
DThe system's total generation
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

In the Y-bus matrix, an off-diagonal element Yij (for buses i and j with no direct connection) is:

AAlways equal to the diagonal element
BZero
CAlways a large positive number
DEqual to the system's base MVA
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

A slack (swing) bus in a load flow study is characterized by:

ASpecified real and reactive power, with voltage to be solved
BSpecified voltage magnitude and angle, absorbing the system's power balance/losses
CSpecified voltage magnitude and real power only
DNo specified quantities at all
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

A PV (generator) bus in a load flow study has which quantities specified?

AReal and reactive power
BVoltage magnitude and real power
CVoltage magnitude and angle
DNothing is specified
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

The Gauss-Seidel load flow method updates bus voltages by:

AUsing only values from the previous complete iteration
BUsing the most recently computed values of other bus voltages within the same iteration
CSolving a full Jacobian matrix at every iteration
DIgnoring the power balance equations entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

A key drawback of the Gauss-Seidel method for load flow is:

AExcessive memory requirement per iteration
BSlow (linear) convergence, requiring a relatively large number of iterations
CIts complete inability to converge on any system
DRequiring a Jacobian matrix at every iteration
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

The Newton-Raphson load flow method linearizes the power flow equations at each iteration using:

AA random guess with no mathematical basis
BThe Jacobian matrix of partial derivatives
COnly the Y-bus diagonal elements
DA fixed table of pre-computed values
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

Compared to Gauss-Seidel, the Newton-Raphson method generally offers:

ASlower convergence for large systems
BFaster (quadratic) convergence near the solution, requiring fewer iterations for large systems
CNo difference in convergence behavior
DConvergence only for very small systems
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

The Fast Decoupled Load Flow method simplifies computation by exploiting the typical relationship that:

AReal power depends mainly on voltage magnitude and reactive power on voltage angle
BReal power depends mainly on voltage angle and reactive power on voltage magnitude
CReal and reactive power are entirely unrelated to voltage
DVoltage magnitude has no effect on either real or reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 959Ch 9 · Load Flow

Newton-Raphson is generally preferred over Gauss-Seidel for large-scale practical power system load flow studies because of its:

ALower computational cost per iteration
BSuperior (quadratic) convergence behavior, despite higher cost per iteration
CComplete elimination of the need for a Y-bus matrix
DRequirement of fewer bus classifications
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Steady state stability limit refers to the maximum power transfer possible:

AFollowing a sudden large disturbance
BWithout loss of synchronism under small, slow (quasi-static) disturbances or load changes
COnly during a three-phase fault
DWith no relationship to synchronism at all
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Transient stability assessment following a disturbance typically focuses on:

AOnly the system's behavior after 10 minutes
BThe first swing (typically around 1 second) after the disturbance
COnly steady-state conditions decades later
DA period with no relevance to fault clearing time
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

The swing equation relates a generator's angular acceleration to:

AOnly its rated voltage
BThe accelerating power — the difference between mechanical input power and electrical output power
COnly the system's base MVA
DThe line's series resistance alone
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

If a generator's mechanical input power exceeds its electrical output power, the rotor:

ADecelerates, causing δ to decrease
BAccelerates, causing δ to increase
CRemains at exactly constant speed with no change in δ
DImmediately loses synchronism
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

The equal area criterion assesses transient stability by comparing:

AOnly the fault duration to an arbitrary fixed value
BThe accelerating area to the available decelerating area on the power-angle curve
CThe system's total installed capacity to its peak load
DOnly the generator's inertia constant in isolation
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

The equal area criterion is commonly used to determine:

AThe system's total generation capacity
BThe critical clearing angle/time for a fault
CThe steady state voltage regulation of a line
DThe corona inception voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Fast fault clearing improves transient stability primarily by:

AIncreasing the accelerating area experienced during the fault
BReducing the accelerating area experienced during the fault, since the fault is removed sooner
CHaving no effect on system stability
DIncreasing the fault current magnitude
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Which of the following is a stability enhancement technique?

ASlowing down circuit breaker operation deliberately
BInstalling power system stabilizers (PSS) and fast-responding excitation systems (AVR)
CRemoving all series compensation from long lines
DDisabling automatic reclosing entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Voltage collapse is best described as: power support

AA sudden loss of generator synchronism only
BA progressive, uncontrollable decline in system voltage, often under heavy loading with insufficient reactive
CA condition that always occurs simultaneously with rotor-angle instability and never independently
DAn event unrelated to reactive power demand
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 959Ch 9 · Stability Analysis

Reducing the transfer reactance of a transmission path (e.g. via series compensation) generally helps stability by:

AIncreasing the accelerating area for a given fault
BIncreasing the power transfer capability and available decelerating area on the power-angle curve
CHaving no effect on the power-angle relationship
DReducing the system's steady state stability limit
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Real power flow through a predominantly reactive transmission line is primarily controlled by:

AThe voltage magnitude difference between the two buses
BThe angle difference (δ) between the two bus voltages
CThe line's shunt capacitance alone
DThe ambient temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Reactive power flow through a predominantly reactive transmission line is primarily controlled by:

AThe angle difference between the two bus voltages
BThe voltage magnitude difference between the two buses
CThe line's series resistance only
DThe system frequency alone
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

The angle-real-power / magnitude-reactive-power decoupling is the physical basis for:

AThe Gauss-Seidel method exclusively
BThe Fast Decoupled Load Flow method and the practice of using VAR injection for local voltage control
CSymmetrical component analysis
DThe equal area criterion
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Series compensation of a transmission line primarily works by:

AAdding shunt capacitance at the receiving end
BReducing the line's effective series reactance, increasing real power transfer capability
CIncreasing the line's series resistance
DRemoving all reactive elements from the line
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

A key risk associated with series capacitor compensation is:

AReduced power transfer capability
BSub-synchronous resonance (SSR) with nearby generator shafts
CComplete elimination of voltage drop with no downside
DGuaranteed improvement in all cases with no design considerations
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Shunt capacitor banks connected at a bus primarily serve to:

AAbsorb reactive power, lowering voltage
BSupply reactive power, raising voltage and supporting power factor
CIncrease the line's series reactance
DProvide the primary means of real power flow control
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Shunt reactors are typically used at the receiving end of a lightly-loaded long line to:

AFurther raise the already-elevated voltage caused by the Ferranti effect
BAbsorb reactive power and counter the voltage rise caused by the Ferranti effect
CIncrease real power transfer capability
DReplace the need for any series compensation
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Compared to fixed or mechanically-switched shunt compensation, dynamic devices such as SVC/STATCOM offer:

ASlower, less precise reactive power control
BRapid, continuously variable reactive power control, offering superior voltage regulation and stability support
CNo ability to vary reactive power output
DOnly real power control capability
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

Maximum real power transfer over a line (for a given voltage magnitude) generally occurs near an angle difference of:

A0°
B90°
C180°
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 959Ch 9 · Voltage Control and VAR Compensation

A synchronous condenser used for VAR compensation is essentially:

AA static capacitor bank with no moving parts
BAn over-excited synchronous motor running unloaded, supplying reactive power
CA purely resistive shunt element
DA device that can only absorb, never supply, reactive power
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 959Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 959Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 959Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 959Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden