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All Chapters · MCQ Read Mode

Electrical & Electronics Engineering

10 Chapters·1042 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Ohm’s law relates voltage and current through the:

APower
BResistance
CEnergy
DCharge
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

The SI unit of electric charge is the:

AAmpere
BCoulomb
CVolt
DJoule
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

For three equal resistors R connected in delta, the equivalent star resistance per arm is:

A3R
BR/3
CR
DR/9
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

In a parallel circuit, the quantity common to all branches is:

ACurrent
BVoltage
CPower
DResistance
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Copper is classified as a:

AInsulator
BConductor
CSemiconductor
DDielectric
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

A non-linear circuit element is one that:

AObeys Ohm’s law strictly
BHas V directly proportional to I
CDoes not obey superposition
DIs always passive
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Three 9 Ω resistors connected in delta give an equivalent star resistance per arm of:

A27 Ω
B9 Ω
C3 Ω
D1 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

Electrical energy is billed commercially in units of:

AJoule
BWatt
CkWh
DCoulomb
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

A circuit element that conducts equally well in both directions is called:

AUnilateral
BBilateral
CActive
DNon-linear
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Concepts: Ohm’s Law, Circuits & Kirchhoff’s Laws

According to KVL, the algebraic sum of voltages around a closed loop is:

AMaximum
BZero
CEqual to source voltage
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Superposition theorem is applicable only to:

ALinear circuits
BNon-linear circuits
CCircuits with diodes only
DDC circuits only
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Thevenin’s equivalent circuit consists of a voltage source in series with a:

ACapacitor
BResistance
CInductor
DCurrent source
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Norton’s theorem represents a network as a current source in parallel with a:

AVoltage source
BResistance
CCapacitor
DDiode
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Maximum power is transferred to the load when the load resistance equals the:

AZero
BSource (Thevenin) resistance
CInfinite resistance
DHalf the source resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

In an R-L series circuit, the current:

ALeads voltage
BLags voltage
CIs in phase with voltage
DLeads by 90°
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

The phase angle of an R-C series circuit is given by:

Atan¹⁻(Xₗ/R)
Btan¹⁻(XC/R)
Ctan¹⁻(R/XC)
Dtan¹⁻(Xₗ·XC)
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

At series resonance, the circuit impedance is:

AMaximum
BMinimum, equal to R
CZero
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

At parallel resonance, the line current drawn from the source is:

AMaximum
BMinimum
CZero
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

The quality factor Q of a series RLC circuit is given by:

AR/ωL
BωL/R
CωRL
D1/(ωRL)
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 1042Ch 1 · Network Theorems, R-L-C Circuits & Resonance

Active (real) power in an AC circuit is measured in:

AVAR
BVA
CWatt
DOhm
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

AC voltage is generated based on:

AOhm’s law
BFaraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
CCoulomb’s law
DKirchhoff’s law
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The RMS value of a sinusoidal voltage with peak Vm is:

AVm
B0.707 Vm
C0.637 Vm
D1.414 Vm
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The average value of a full sine wave over one complete cycle is:

A0.637 Vm
B0.707 Vm
CVm
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The form factor of a sinusoidal waveform equals:

A1.11
B1.414
C0.707
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a balanced star-connected 3-phase system with phase voltage 230 V, the line voltage is approximately:

A230 V
B400 V
C115 V
D690 V
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta connection, the phase difference between line current and phase current is:

A0°
B30°
C90°
D120°
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The peak factor (crest factor) of a sine wave is defined as:

ARMS/Average
BPeak/RMS
CAverage/Peak
DPeak/Average
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

The standard power supply frequency used in Nepal is:

A60 Hz
B50 Hz
C25 Hz
D100 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

Star connection is preferred for long-distance power transmission mainly because it provides:

ALower phase voltage for a given line voltage
BHigher line current
CNo neutral wire needed
DHigher power factor
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 1042Ch 1 · Alternating Current Fundamentals

In a delta-connected system, the relationship between line and phase voltage is:

AVline = √3 × Vₚₕₐₛₑ
BVline = Vₚₕₐₛₑ
CVline = Vₚₕₐₛₑ/√3
DVline = 3 × Vₚₕₐₛₑ
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A semiconductor diode conducts significant current when forward biased beyond:

AThe breakdown voltage
BThe cut-in (knee) voltage
CZero volts exactly
DThe Zener voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

In reverse bias, a diode ideally allows:

AFull forward current
BOnly a small leakage/saturation current until breakdown
CInfinite current
DCurrent equal to forward bias current
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The Common Emitter (CE) BJT configuration is most widely used because it offers:

AVoltage gain of unity only
BHigh voltage and current gain suitable for amplification
CThe lowest possible input impedance
DNo phase inversion
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The Common Collector (CC) configuration, also called an emitter follower, has a voltage gain of approximately:

A100
B10
C1
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

Voltage-divider (self) bias is preferred in BJT circuits mainly because it provides:

AThe lowest cost only
BBest Q-point stability against β and temperature variation
CMaximum possible gain
DNo need for resistors
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A small-signal model of a transistor is used when:

ASignal swings are very large
BSignal excursions are small around the Q-point
CThe transistor is in cutoff only
DNo biasing is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

A MOSFET is fundamentally a:

ACurrent-controlled device
BVoltage-controlled device
CPurely resistive device
DDevice with no gate terminal
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

An enhancement-mode MOSFET has a conducting channel:

APresent at VGS = 0
BAbsent at VGS = 0, requiring VGS beyond threshold to form it
CPermanently present regardless of gate voltage
DOnly in reverse bias
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

CMOS technology is valued in digital ICs primarily for its:

AHigh static power dissipation
BNear-zero static power dissipation
CRequirement for only NMOS transistors
DInability to switch states
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 1042Ch 1 · Semiconductor Devices

The gate terminal of a MOSFET is characterized by:

AVery low input impedance
BVery high input impedance due to the insulated gate
CDirect ohmic contact with the channel
DCarrying the full drain current
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillation requires the loop gain magnitude to be:

ALess than 1
BEqual to 1
CGreater than 2
DEqual to 0
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

An oscillator generates a periodic output using:

AAn external AC input signal
BPositive feedback and a frequency-selective network
CNegative feedback only
DNo feedback at all
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

RC oscillators (e.g. Wien bridge, phase-shift) are typically used for generating frequencies in the:

ARadio-frequency (RF) range only
BAudio-frequency range
CGamma-ray range
DMicrowave range
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

LC oscillators such as Hartley and Colpitts are typically used for:

AAudio-frequency generation only
BRadio-frequency (RF) generation
CDC signal generation
DDigital logic operations
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Hartley oscillator uses which feedback network configuration?

AA tapped capacitor with a single inductor
BA tapped inductor (or two inductors) with a common capacitor
CA crystal resonator
DAn RC phase-shift network
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

The Colpitts oscillator uses which feedback network configuration?

AA tapped inductor with a common capacitor
BA tapped capacitor (two capacitors in series) with a single inductor
COnly resistors
DA crystal resonator exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

Crystal oscillators are preferred where high frequency stability is essential because:

AQuartz crystals have a very low quality factor
BQuartz crystals exhibit stable piezoelectric mechanical resonance with very high Q
CThey require no power supply
DThey only work at audio frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

A 555 timer IC configured as an astable multivibrator is commonly used to generate:

APure sine waves only
BSquare/pulse waveforms
CDC voltage only
DCrystal-controlled RF signals
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

A function generator, as a laboratory instrument, is capable of producing:

AOnly a fixed single frequency
BMultiple waveform shapes (sine, square, triangular) over adjustable frequencies
COnly DC signals
DOnly digital logic levels
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 1042Ch 1 · Signal Generator (Oscillators)

For sustained (steady-amplitude) oscillation, the total phase shift around the feedback loop must equal:

A90°
B45°
C0° (or a multiple of 360°)
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A Class A amplifier output stage conducts for:

AThe full 360° of the input cycle
BExactly 180° of the input cycle
CLess than 90° of the input cycle
DOnly during the negative half-cycle
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The main drawback of a Class B push-pull amplifier is:

AVery low efficiency
BCrossover distortion near the zero-crossing point
CInability to amplify at all
DExcessive heat dissipation at idle
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

Class AB biasing is used mainly to:

AMaximize distortion
BReduce crossover distortion while retaining good efficiency
CEliminate the need for any bias current
DReduce output power to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The theoretical maximum efficiency of a Class B amplifier is approximately:

A25%
B50%
C78.5%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A transformer-coupled push-pull output stage is valued because it:

AIncreases distortion
BEliminates the DC component in the output and offers good efficiency
CCannot handle AC signals
DRequires no heat-sinking for power devices
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

Power BJTs require careful heat-sinking primarily to avoid:

AReduced input impedance
BThermal runaway
CIncreased frequency response
DCrossover distortion
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A tuned amplifier achieves high gain over a narrow frequency band by using:

AA resistive load only
BAn LC resonant (tank) circuit as its load
CA capacitor-only load
DNo load at all
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

An ideal operational amplifier is characterized by:

AFinite gain and zero input impedance
BInfinite open-loop gain, infinite input impedance, and zero output impedance
CZero gain and infinite output impedance
DNegative input impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

The 'virtual short' concept in op-amp analysis applies when:

AThe op-amp has no feedback
BNegative feedback is applied, making both input terminals assume the same voltage
CThe op-amp is saturated
DPositive feedback is applied
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 1042Ch 1 · Amplifiers

A voltage follower (buffer) op-amp configuration provides:

AHigh voltage gain with phase inversion
BUnity voltage gain with high input and low output impedance
CInfinite voltage gain
DZero input impedance
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

At DC steady state, an inductor behaves as a(n):

AOpen circuit
BShort circuit
CResistor
DCapacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

At DC steady state, a capacitor behaves as a(n):

AShort circuit
BOpen circuit
CInductor
DBattery
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The time constant of a series R-L circuit is:

ARC
BL/R
CR/L
D1/RC
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The time constant of a series R-C circuit is:

AL/R
BRC
CR/C
D1/(RC)
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

A transient is considered practically complete after about:

A1τ
B2τ
C5τ
D10τ
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

In a series RLC circuit, the damping factor α is given by:

AR/2L
B1/√(LC)
C2L/R
D√(LC)
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

The undamped natural frequency of a series RLC circuit is:

AR/2L
B1/√(LC)
CL/C
DRC
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

If α > ω₀ in a series RLC circuit, the response is:

AUnderdamped
BCritically damped
COverdamped
DUndamped
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

A critically damped response occurs when:

Aα < ω₀
Bα = ω₀
Cα > ω₀
Dα = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 1042Ch 1 · Electric Circuit Response (Transient Analysis)

During capacitor charging through a resistor from DC source V, the current at t = 0⁺ is:

AZero
BV/R
CInfinite
DV × R
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The roots of the numerator polynomial of a network function are called:

APoles
BZeros
CRoots of unity
DResidues
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The roots of the denominator polynomial of a network function are called:

APoles
BZeros
CCoefficients
DNodes
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a stable network, all poles of the transfer function must lie in the:

ARight-half s-plane
BLeft-half s-plane
COn the jω axis only
DAt the origin
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Z-parameters are also known as:

AShort-circuit admittance parameters
BOpen-circuit impedance parameters
CHybrid parameters
DTransmission parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Y-parameters are obtained by:

AOpen-circuiting a port
BShort-circuiting a port
CMatching the load
DGrounding both ports
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a reciprocal two-port network, the Z-parameters satisfy:

AZ11 = Z22
BZ12 = Z21
CZ12 = −Z21
DZ11 = Z12
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

ABCD (transmission) parameters are most useful for analyzing networks connected in:

AParallel
BCascade
CSeries
DNeither
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

Hybrid (h) parameters are commonly used to model:

ATransformers
BTransistors
CTransmission lines
DFilters
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

When two two-port networks are connected in series, the overall parameters are found by adding:

AY-parameters
BZ-parameters
CABCD parameters
Dh-parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 1042Ch 1 · Analysis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A one-port network is fully characterized by its driving-point:

ATransfer function
BImpedance (or admittance)
CABCD matrix
Dh-parameters
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A polynomial is called Hurwitz if all its roots lie in the:

ARight half s-plane
BLeft half s-plane
CFirst quadrant
DUnit circle
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A necessary condition for a polynomial to be Hurwitz is that all its coefficients must be:

ANegative
BComplex
CReal, present and positive
DEqual
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The driving-point impedance of any passive RLC network must be a:

AHurwitz polynomial
BPositive real function
CEven function only
DOdd function only
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For a positive real function F(s), Re[F(jω)] must be:

ANegative
BAlways exactly zero
CGreater than or equal to zero
DUndefined
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Foster I form realizes the driving-point impedance as a:

ASeries connection of parallel LC tanks
BParallel connection of series LC branches
CSingle inductor
DSingle capacitor
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Foster II form realizes the driving-point admittance as a:

ASeries connection of LC tanks
BParallel connection of series LC branches
CPure resistance
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

The Cauer I form is obtained by a continued-fraction expansion that removes the pole at:

As = 0
Bs = ∞
Cs = 1
Ds = jω
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

In an LC driving-point impedance function, the poles and zeros:

ALie anywhere in the s-plane
BLie only on the negative real axis
CLie only on the jω-axis and alternate
DAlways coincide with each other
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

For an RC driving-point impedance, the critical frequency nearest the origin is always a:

AZero
BPole
CNeither pole nor zero
DBoth a pole and a zero
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1042Ch 1 · Synthesis of One-Port & Two-Port Networks

A network consisting of alternating series and shunt elements along the signal path is called a:

ABridge network
BLadder network
CLattice network
DStar network
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

When a cylinder is unrolled (opened in rope form), what shape is formed?

AInvolute
BHelix
CCycloid
DRectangle
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

How many transistors does a class B push-pull amplifier use?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In which region does a class B amplifier operate?

ASaturation
BCut-off
CActive
DLinear
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which quantity remains constant (same) throughout a series circuit?

AVoltage
BCurrent
CResistance
DPower
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

In a star (Y) connected three-phase system, what is the relationship between line voltage (Vₗ) and phase voltage (Vₚₕ)?

AVₗ = Vₚₕ
BVₗ = √3 × Vₚₕ
CVₗ = Vₚₕ / √3
DVₗ = 3 × Vₚₕ
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the primary advantage of CMOS logic technology?

AHighest switching speed
BMinimum power consumption
CHighest noise margin
DMaximum fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What type of feedback do oscillators use to sustain oscillations?

ANegative
BPositive
CZero
DMixed
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Which theorem gives the condition for maximum power transfer from a source to a load?

ANorton's Theorem
BThevenin's Theorem
CMaximum Power Transfer Theorem
DSuperposition Theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

According to Ohm's Law, which relationship is correct?

ACurrent = Voltage / Resistance
BResistance = Voltage × Current
CVoltage = Current / Resistance
DPower = Voltage + Current
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three equal resistors in series dissipate 10 W. How much power do they dissipate when connected in parallel (same supply voltage)?

A10 W
B30 W
C90 W
D270 W
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A semiconductor is primarily used for:

AStoring electrical energy
BConverting AC to DC
CControlling electrical current
DAmplifying magnetic fields
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Two copper wires of the same length have cross-sectional area ratio 1 : 4. What is the ratio of their resistances (small : large)?

A1 : 4
B1 : 2
C4 : 1
D2 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A wire has resistance 40 Ω. Another wire of the same length has 4× the cross-sectional area. What is the resistance of the second wire?

A160 Ω
B40 Ω
C20 Ω
D10 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The Superposition Theorem is NOT applicable to which type of circuit analysis?

APower calculations
BVoltage calculations
CCurrent calculations
DResistive circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

The current through a capacitor is known as:

AConduction current
BLeakage current
CDisplacement current
DEddy current
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A bridge rectifier operating at 50 Hz produces an output of:

A50 Hz pulsating DC
B100 Hz pulsating DC
C25 Hz pulsating DC
DPure DC
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

An inductor and resistor are connected in series and a DC voltage V is applied. At steady state, what is the current?

AV/R
BV/(R+XL)
CZero
DV/XL
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

Three resistors each of 2 Ω are connected in delta. What is the equivalent resistance between any two terminals?

A2 Ω
B1.333 Ω
C6 Ω
D3 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A 1 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 3 Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance?

A4 Ω
B0.75 Ω
C2 Ω
D1.5 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

What is the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) when the reflection coefficient is 0.8?

A1.8
B4.5
C0.8
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1042Ch 1 · Basic Electrical & Electronics

A transmission line has Z₀ = 50 Ω and termination impedance Za = 75 Ω. What is the SWR and reflection coefficient?

ASWR = 1.5, RC = 0.2
BSWR = 2.5, RC = 0.4
CSWR = 1.5, RC = 0.5
DSWR = 3, RC = 0.6
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The binary equivalent of decimal 13 is:

A1101
B1011
C1110
D1001
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The base (radix) of the hexadecimal number system is:

A8
B10
C16
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

Which gate is known as a “universal gate”?

AAND
BOR
CNAND
DXOR
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

The output of an XOR gate is HIGH when:

ABoth inputs are the same
BBoth inputs are different
CBoth inputs are LOW
DBoth inputs are HIGH
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

De Morgan’s theorem states that (A+B)’ equals:

AA’+B’
BA’·B’
CA·B
DA+B
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

SOP stands for:

ASum of Products
BSeries of Parallels
CSet of Points
DSequence of Pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

A Karnaugh map (K-map) is primarily used to:

AIncrease propagation delay
BSimplify Boolean expressions
CConvert AC to DC
DStore binary data
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

A standard Karnaugh map used for simplifying expressions of 4 variables has how many cells?

A4
B8
C16
D32
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

In a POS expression, individual sum terms are combined by:

AMultiplication (AND) of sums
BAddition (OR) of products
CXOR operation
DSubtraction
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Logic

NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates because:

AThey consume the least power
BAny logic function can be implemented using only NAND or only NOR gates
CThey are the fastest gates available
DThey require no truth table
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A multiplexer with 4 select lines can select among how many inputs?

A4
B8
C16
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A demultiplexer performs the opposite function of a:

ADecoder
BMultiplexer
CEncoder
DAdder
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A decoder with n input lines can produce up to how many output lines?

An
B2n
C2ⁿ
Dn²
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A priority encoder resolves the situation when:

AAll inputs are LOW
BMultiple inputs are active simultaneously
CThe clock signal fails
DThe output is undefined
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A half adder can add:

ATwo bits, producing sum and carry
BThree bits including a carry-in
COnly a single bit with no carry
DMultiple full bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

A full adder differs from a half adder because it additionally accepts a:

AClock input
BCarry-in input
CReset input
DSelect input
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

In 2’s complement arithmetic, subtraction is performed by:

ADirect binary subtraction only
BAdding the 2’s complement of the subtrahend
CUsing a completely separate subtractor circuit
DDividing by 2
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

The range of an 8-bit signed number in 2’s complement form is:

A0 to 255
B−128 to +127
C−127 to +127
D−255 to +255
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

In sign-magnitude representation, the MSB represents:

AThe value
BThe sign
CThe carry
DThe parity
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1042Ch 2 · Combinational & Arithmetic Circuits

The 1’s complement of the binary number 1010 is:

A0101
B1011
C0110
D1010
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An SR flip-flop has an invalid (undefined) state when:

AS=0, R=0
BS=1, R=1
CS=1, R=0
DS=0, R=1
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A gated (clocked) flip-flop responds to its inputs:

AOnly during the active clock level
BOnly at the clock edge
CContinuously regardless of clock
DNever
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

An edge-triggered flip-flop changes state:

ADuring the entire clock pulse
BOnly at the rising or falling edge of the clock
CWhen power is first applied
DRandomly
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

The master-slave flip-flop configuration is primarily used to:

AIncrease power consumption
BEliminate the race-around condition in JK flip-flops
CReduce the number of gates needed
DAdd a reset input
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A shift register that accepts data serially and outputs it in parallel is called:

ASISO
BSIPO
CPISO
DPIPO
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

In an asynchronous (ripple) counter, the flip-flops are triggered by:

AA common clock signal simultaneously
BThe output of the preceding flip-flop
CAn external reset only
DRandom pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Compared to asynchronous counters, synchronous counters are:

ASlower, due to cumulative delay
BFaster, since all flip-flops switch together
CUnable to count upward
DOnly usable for down-counting
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A JK flip-flop with J=K=1 at the active clock edge will:

AReset
BSet
CToggle its output
DRemain unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

A D flip-flop transfers its D input to the output:

AContinuously
BAt the active clock edge
CNever
DOnly when reset
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1042Ch 2 · Sequential Logic Circuits

Ring counters and Johnson counters are typical applications built from:

ADecoders
BShift registers
CMultiplexers
DAdders
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The part of a microprocessor that performs arithmetic and logic operations is the:

AControl unit
BALU
CProgram counter
DStack pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The register that holds the address of the next instruction to be executed is the:

AAccumulator
BProgram Counter (PC)
CStack Pointer
DInstruction Register
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

In assembly language, a mnemonic represents:

AA memory address
BA symbolic name for a machine instruction
CA data value only
DA hardware pin
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Question 145 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The three main buses in a microprocessor system are:

AData, Address, Control
BSerial, Parallel, USB
CInput, Output, Memory
DClock, Reset, Power
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

A program that converts assembly language into machine code is called a(n):

ACompiler
BAssembler
CInterpreter
DLinker
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Question 147 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The accumulator in a microprocessor is primarily used to:

AStore the next instruction’s address
BHold operands and results of ALU operations
CControl the clock frequency
DStore the stack base address
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The address bus in a microprocessor is:

ABidirectional, carries data
BUnidirectional, carries memory/IO addresses
CUsed only for control signals
DNot connected to memory
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

Branch (jump) instructions in assembly language are used to:

APerform arithmetic operations only
BAlter the normal sequential flow of program execution
CTransfer data between registers only
DPermanently halt the processor
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

The word length of a microprocessor refers to:

AThe number of instructions it executes per second
BThe number of bits it can process/transfer at once
CThe size of its cache memory
DThe number of registers only
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1042Ch 2 · Microprocessor Architecture & Assembly Programming

Data transfer instructions in assembly language typically move data between:

ARegisters and/or memory
BOnly two ALUs
CPower supply rails
DClock sources
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

RAM stands for:

ARead Access Memory
BRandom Access Memory
CRapid Address Memory
DRead-Ahead Memory
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

Which memory type retains its content even when power is switched off?

ASRAM
BDRAM
CROM
DCache
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In memory-mapped I/O, peripheral devices are:

AAccessed only with dedicated I/O instructions
BTreated as if they occupy part of the memory address space
CNever addressable by the CPU
DConnected directly to the ALU
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

The PPI (Programmable Peripheral Interface) is primarily used for:

ASerial communication only
BParallel I/O interfacing
CAnalog signal conversion
DClock generation
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In asynchronous serial transmission, each data character is framed with:

AA parity bit only
BStart and stop bits
CA checksum only
DNo framing bits
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

RS232 is a standard primarily used for:

AParallel data transmission
BSerial data communication
CPower distribution
DVideo signals
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

USART stands for:

AUniversal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
BUnified Serial Address Register Transfer
CUniversal System Address Read Transfer
DUniform Synchronous Analog Receiver Transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

DMA (Direct Memory Access) allows data transfer between memory and I/O:

AOnly through continuous CPU intervention
BWithout direct CPU intervention for each data word
COnly during interrupts
DOnly in serial form
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

Compared to RS232, USB offers:

ALower data rates and no plug-and-play
BHigher data rates and plug-and-play capability
COnly power transfer, no data
DParallel transmission only
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1042Ch 2 · Interfacing (Microprocessor System)

In synchronous serial transmission, timing is coordinated by:

AStart/stop bits on every character
BA shared clock signal
CRandom polling
DFixed delays only
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

An interrupt is best described as:

AA permanent halt of the processor
BA signal that temporarily suspends normal execution to service an event
CA type of memory device
DA logic gate
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Question 163 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A hardware interrupt is typically triggered by:

AA program instruction executed deliberately
BAn external device requiring attention
CThe compiler
DThe interrupt vector table itself
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A non-maskable interrupt (NMI) is characterized by:

ABeing easily disabled by software
BBeing reserved for critical events and unable to be disabled
CNever being serviced
DRequiring polling instead of a signal
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

An Interrupt Service Routine (ISR) is:

AThe main program itself
BA subroutine executed in response to a specific interrupt
CA type of memory chip
DA logic gate used for gating clocks
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

The interrupt vector table is used to:

AStore user data files
BStore the starting addresses of ISRs, indexed by interrupt type
CPerform arithmetic operations
DGenerate the system clock
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

When an interrupt occurs, before jumping to the ISR, the processor must first:

AErase all memory
BComplete the current instruction and save its context (state)
CImmediately power off
DIgnore the interrupt permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

At the end of an ISR, a return-from-interrupt instruction is used to:

APermanently halt the processor
BRestore saved context and resume the original program
CTrigger another interrupt
DErase the interrupt vector table
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Compared to polling, using interrupts is generally more efficient because:

AThe CPU must constantly check device status
BThe CPU can perform other work until an event actually occurs
CInterrupts require no processing at all
DPolling is always faster
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

A software interrupt is typically triggered by:

AAn external hardware device only
BAn instruction deliberately executed within a program
CA power failure
DA clock signal alone
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1042Ch 2 · Interrupt Operations

Interrupt priority schemes are needed primarily to:

APrevent any interrupts from ever occurring
BDetermine which interrupt is serviced first when multiple occur simultaneously
CIncrease memory capacity
DEliminate the need for an ISR
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The unit responsible for generating control signals to coordinate CPU operations is the:

AALU
BControl Unit
CCache memory
DData bus
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Question 173 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

In a microprogrammed control unit, control signals are generated from:

AA hardwired logic circuit only
BA control memory storing microinstructions
CAn external keyboard
DA random number generator
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Question 174 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

An instruction format typically consists of:

AOnly an opcode
BAn opcode and operand(s)/address field(s)
COnly a memory address
DOnly a clock signal
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Question 175 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The addressing mode in which the operand value is given directly in the instruction is called:

ADirect addressing
BImmediate addressing
CIndirect addressing
DIndexed addressing
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Question 176 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

In indirect addressing, the instruction specifies:

AThe operand itself
BThe address of a memory location that holds the operand’s address
CA register holding the operand directly
DNothing at all
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

RISC architecture is characterized by:

AA large, complex instruction set
BA small, simple, uniform-length instruction set optimized for pipelining
CThe complete absence of registers
DOnly microprogrammed control
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Question 178 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

CISC architecture is characterized by:

AA small number of simple instructions
BA large set of complex, variable-length instructions
CNo addressing modes at all
DExclusively single-cycle instructions
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

Pipelining in a CPU improves performance mainly by:

AExecuting multiple instruction stages concurrently
BIncreasing the clock period
CRemoving the need for registers
DReducing the instruction set to one instruction
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

A pipeline hazard that occurs when an instruction depends on the result of a previous, unfinished instruction is called a:

AStructural hazard
BData hazard
CControl hazard
DMemory hazard
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1042Ch 2 · Computer Organization

The arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) primarily performs:

AInstruction fetching only
BArithmetic and logical operations on data
CAddress decoding only
DClock generation
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Question 182 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many NOT gates are required to build a 2:1 Multiplexer?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many 2-input NAND gates are contained in a standard 7400 TTL IC?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In TTL logic, what is the input voltage range for a logic LOW (active LOW level)?

A0 V to 0.8 V
B0 V to 1.5 V
C2 V to 5 V
D0.8 V to 2 V
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

When an invalid BCD code (1010–1111) is detected and auto-corrected, what value is added?

A0110 (6)
B0001 (1)
C1010 (10)
D0100 (4)
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the terminal (reset) state of a MOD-10 (decade) counter?

A1010
B1001
C1000
D0111
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the minimum number of flip-flops (memory blocks) required to build a MOD-6 ripple counter?

A2
B3
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

An SR flip-flop is also called a:

AMonostable multivibrator
BBistable multivibrator
CAstable multivibrator
DSchmitt trigger
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

A JK flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 is clocked at 20 kHz. What is the output waveform and its frequency?

ASine wave at 20 kHz
BSquare wave at 20 kHz
CSine wave at 10 kHz
DSquare wave at 10 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the duty cycle of an ideal astable multivibrator?

A25%
B50%
C75%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which of the following is NOT a valid operation of flip-flops?

ASet
BReset
CToggle
DMultiply
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Question 192 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The TRAP interrupt in 8085 microprocessor is:

AEdge-triggered only
BLevel-triggered (high level)
CMaskable
DSoftware interrupt
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Question 193 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Small-Scale Integration (SSI) refers to ICs with how many transistors?

ALess than 10
B10–99
C100–999
D1000+
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Question 194 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, a signal that represents a bus (multi-bit connection) is declared as:

AVariable
BSignal
CConstant
DGeneric
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Question 195 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, the primary design unit that represents a hardware block's interface (ports and generics) is called:

AArchitecture
BPackage
CComponent
DEntity
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The shadow mask technique is used in:

ALCD panels
BCRT displays
COLED displays
DPlasma screens
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Left-shifting an unsigned binary number by 1 bit is equivalent to:

ADividing by 2
BMultiplying by 2
CAdding 1
DSubtracting 1
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Question 198 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The expression x << 3 is equivalent to:

Ax × 8
Bx × 3
Cx + 3
Dx / 8
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which logic gate is commonly used for parity checking and overflow detection?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

Doping silicon with phosphorus produces:

AP-type material
BN-type material
CIntrinsic material
DAn insulator
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Question 201 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

The majority charge carriers in a P-type material are:

AElectrons
BHoles
CProtons
DIons
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

The typical forward voltage drop of a germanium diode is about:

A0.7 V
B0.3 V
C1.2 V
D5 V
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

A bridge rectifier uses how many diodes?

A1
B2
C4
D6
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Question 204 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

The efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is approximately:

A40.6%
B81.2%
C100%
D50%
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Question 205 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

A Zener diode is normally operated in:

AForward bias
BReverse breakdown region
CCutoff
DSaturation
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Question 206 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

In a BJT, the relationship between emitter, base and collector currents is:

AIₑ = IC − IB
BIₑ = IB + IC
CIC = Iₑ + IB
DIB = Iₑ + IC
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

Which BJT configuration provides the highest power gain and is most commonly used?

ACommon Base
BCommon Emitter
CCommon Collector
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

The common collector configuration is also known as the:

AVoltage follower
BEmitter follower
CCurrent follower
DBase follower
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1042Ch 2 · Semiconductor Diodes & Transistors

Voltage-divider bias is preferred in BJT circuits mainly because it:

AProvides the best Q-point stability against β variation
BRequires no resistors
COnly works with PNP transistors
DEliminates the need for a collector resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

A FET is a:

ACurrent-controlled bipolar device
BVoltage-controlled unipolar device
CVoltage-controlled bipolar device
DCurrent-controlled unipolar device
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

The three terminals of a FET are:

AEmitter, Base, Collector
BAnode, Cathode, Gate
CGate, Drain, Source
DGate, Emitter, Collector
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

In a JFET, increasing the reverse gate bias VGS:

AWidens the channel
BNarrows the channel, reducing current
CHas no effect
DReverses current direction
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

The drain current at VGS = 0 in a JFET is called:

AID(sat)
BIDSS
CIG
DIₚ
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

An E-MOSFET (enhancement type) conducts only when:

AVGS = 0
BVGS exceeds the threshold voltage Vₜ
CVDS = 0
DThe gate is grounded
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

A D-MOSFET (depletion type) already has a conducting channel present at:

AVGS greater than Vₜ
BVGS = 0
CVDS = 0 only
DNo bias condition creates one
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

The MOSFET gate is separated from the channel by:

AA PN junction
BA thin oxide insulating layer
CA resistor
DA plain wire
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Question 217 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

Because of its insulated gate, a MOSFET has:

AVery low input impedance
BVery high input impedance
CZero output impedance
DNegative resistance
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Question 218 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

As a switch, a MOSFET operates between cutoff and the:

ASaturation (active) region
BOhmic (triode) region
CBreakdown region
DPinch-off point only
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1042Ch 2 · JFET, MOSFET & CMOS

CMOS logic consumes very low static power mainly because:

AIt uses only NMOS transistors
BOnly one of the complementary NMOS/PMOS networks conducts in steady state
CIt operates at zero supply voltage
DIt has no gate oxide
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

Voltage gain in decibels is calculated as:

A10 log(Av)
B20 log(Av)
Clog(Av)
DAv/10
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

In a CE amplifier stage, the output voltage is:

AIn phase with the input
BInverted (180° out of phase) with the input
CLeading the input by 90°
DIndependent of the input
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

Negative feedback in an amplifier:

AIncreases distortion
BReduces bandwidth
CImproves gain stability and reduces distortion
DHas no effect on gain
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

A Class B power amplifier conducts for:

A360°
B180° (half cycle)
CLess than 90°
D270°
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

Crossover distortion is a characteristic problem of which amplifier class?

AClass A
BClass B
CClass C
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

Class C amplifiers are mainly used in:

AAudio amplification
BRF (radio frequency) tuned power amplifiers
CDC power supplies
DOp-amp circuits
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

The Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillation requires the loop gain to be:

A0
B1
CInfinite
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

A Hartley oscillator uses a tapped:

ACapacitor
BInductor
CResistor
DDiode
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

Which oscillator provides the best frequency stability?

ARC oscillator
BLC oscillator
CCrystal oscillator
DWien bridge oscillator
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Question 229 of 1042Ch 2 · Amplifiers & Signal Generators

An oscillator essentially converts:

AAC to DC
BDC to AC
CVoltage to current
DLight to electricity
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Question 230 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

An op-amp is fundamentally a:

ASingle-ended power amplifier
BHigh-gain differential amplifier
CCurrent amplifier only
DPassive attenuator
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

An ideal op-amp has an open-loop gain that is:

AZero
BUnity
CInfinite
DNegative
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Question 232 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

An ideal op-amp has an input impedance that is:

AZero
BInfinite
CEqual to the load
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

The “virtual short” concept means that, with negative feedback:

AThe two inputs draw large current
BThe two input terminals are at the same voltage
CThe output is shorted to ground
DThe gain becomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

The voltage gain of an inverting amplifier is given by:

A1 + Rf/Rin
B−Rf/Rin
CRin/Rf
D1 − Rf/Rin
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

The voltage gain of a non-inverting amplifier is always:

ALess than 1
BNegative
CGreater than or equal to 1
DExactly zero
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

A voltage follower (buffer) has a voltage gain of:

A0
B1
C−1
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

An op-amp integrator produces an output proportional to the:

ADerivative of the input
BTime-integral of the input
CSquare of the input
DInput itself
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

An op-amp comparator output:

AFollows the input linearly
BSwitches between saturation levels depending on which input is larger
CIs always zero
DIntegrates the input
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1042Ch 2 · Operational Amplifier Characterization

CMRR of an op-amp indicates its ability to:

AAmplify common-mode signals
BReject common-mode signals while amplifying differential signals
CIncrease output impedance
DReduce open-loop gain
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A logarithmic amplifier produces an output proportional to the:

ASquare of the input
BLogarithm of the input
CInput directly
DDerivative of the input
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A log amplifier is typically built by placing a diode/BJT in the op-amp’s:

AInput path
BFeedback path
CPower supply
DOutput, disconnected
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A logarithmic multiplier works on the principle that:

Alog(A)+log(B)=log(A+B)
Blog(A)+log(B)=log(A×B)
Clog(A)×log(B)=log(A+B)
Dlog(A)−log(B)=log(A×B)
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

The three main blocks of a PLL are:

AAmplifier, filter, rectifier
BPhase detector, low-pass filter, VCO
COscillator, mixer, antenna
DADC, DAC, comparator
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A voltage-to-frequency converter produces:

AAn output voltage proportional to input frequency
BAn output pulse frequency proportional to input voltage
CA constant output regardless of input
DAn amplified voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

Compared with passive filters, active filters can additionally provide:

ASignal attenuation only
BSignal gain
CInfinite bandwidth
DZero power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

Active filters avoid the use of bulky:

AResistors
BCapacitors
CInductors
DOperational amplifiers
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

The cutoff frequency of a simple first-order active RC filter is given by:

A1/(2πRC)
B2πRC
CRC
D1/(RC²)
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A first-order active low-pass filter passes frequencies:

AAbove the cutoff frequency
BBelow the cutoff frequency
COnly at the cutoff frequency
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1042Ch 2 · Nonlinear Circuits & Active Filters

A first-order active high-pass filter passes frequencies:

ABelow the cutoff frequency
BAbove the cutoff frequency
COnly DC
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

The correct historical evolution of bipolar logic families is:

ATTL → DTL → RTL
BRTL → DTL → TTL
CECL → RTL → TTL
DCMOS → TTL → RTL
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

RTL stands for:

AResistor-Transistor Logic
BReactive-Transistor Logic
CResistor-Transformer Logic
DRelay-Transistor Logic
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

The maximum number of similar gate inputs that one gate output can drive is called:

AFan-in
BFan-out
CNoise margin
DPropagation delay
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

The time taken for a gate’s output to respond to a change at its input is called:

AFan-out
BPropagation delay
CNoise margin
DPower dissipation
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

Noise margin represents the maximum noise voltage that can be tolerated:

AWithout damaging the IC
BWithout causing a false logic output
CWithout increasing supply voltage
DWithout affecting fan-out
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

A lower speed-power product indicates:

AA slower, higher-power gate
BA better (more efficient) logic family
CA higher noise margin only
DNothing significant
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

In DTL (Diode-Transistor Logic), the logic (AND/OR) function is performed mainly by:

ATransistors
BDiodes
CCapacitors
DInductors
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

TTL logic gates typically use a distinctive:

ASingle-diode input
BMulti-emitter input transistor
CVacuum tube input
DPhotodiode input
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

Bipolar logic families include all of the following EXCEPT:

ARTL
BDTL
CTTL
DCMOS
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1042Ch 2 · Logic Families & ICs

Modern digital ICs predominantly use CMOS technology mainly because of its:

AHigh static power dissipation
BVery low static power dissipation and high packing density
CRequirement for external inductors
DPoor noise margin
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many NOT gates are required to build a 2:1 Multiplexer?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

How many 2-input NAND gates are contained in a standard 7400 TTL IC?

A2
B3
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In TTL logic, what is the input voltage range for a logic LOW (active LOW level)?

A0 V to 0.8 V
B0 V to 1.5 V
C2 V to 5 V
D0.8 V to 2 V
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

When an invalid BCD code (1010–1111) is detected and auto-corrected, what value is added?

A0110 (6)
B0001 (1)
C1010 (10)
D0100 (4)
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the terminal (reset) state of a MOD-10 (decade) counter?

A1010
B1001
C1000
D0111
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the minimum number of flip-flops (memory blocks) required to build a MOD-6 ripple counter?

A2
B3
C4
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

An SR flip-flop is also called a:

AMonostable multivibrator
BBistable multivibrator
CAstable multivibrator
DSchmitt trigger
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

A JK flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 is clocked at 20 kHz. What is the output waveform and its frequency?

ASine wave at 20 kHz
BSquare wave at 20 kHz
CSine wave at 10 kHz
DSquare wave at 10 kHz
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

What is the duty cycle of an ideal astable multivibrator?

A25%
B50%
C75%
D100%
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which of the following is NOT a valid operation of flip-flops?

ASet
BReset
CToggle
DMultiply
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The TRAP interrupt in 8085 microprocessor is:

AEdge-triggered only
BLevel-triggered (high level)
CMaskable
DSoftware interrupt
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Small-Scale Integration (SSI) refers to ICs with how many transistors?

ALess than 10
B10–99
C100–999
D1000+
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, a signal that represents a bus (multi-bit connection) is declared as:

AVariable
BSignal
CConstant
DGeneric
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

In VHDL, the primary design unit that represents a hardware block's interface (ports and generics) is called:

AArchitecture
BPackage
CComponent
DEntity
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The shadow mask technique is used in:

ALCD panels
BCRT displays
COLED displays
DPlasma screens
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Left-shifting an unsigned binary number by 1 bit is equivalent to:

ADividing by 2
BMultiplying by 2
CAdding 1
DSubtracting 1
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

The expression x << 3 is equivalent to:

Ax × 8
Bx × 3
Cx + 3
Dx / 8
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1042Ch 2 · Digital Electronics

Which logic gate is commonly used for parity checking and overflow detection?

AAND
BOR
CXOR
DNAND
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

Which of the following is NOT a token in a C program?

AKeyword
BIdentifier
CConstant
DComment block
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

The smallest individual unit of a program is called a:

AStatement
BToken
CFunction
DHeader file
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

Which data type is used to store decimal (floating-point) numbers?

Aint
Bchar
Cfloat
Dvoid
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

A named memory location used to store a value that can change is called a:

AConstant
BVariable
CKeyword
DOperator
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

In C, the format specifier used to print an integer with printf() is:

A%f
B%d
C%c
D%s
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

Which operator is used for logical AND in C?

A&
B&&
C|
D||
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

Structured programming primarily organizes a program around:

AObjects and classes
BFunctions/procedures operating on data
COnly global variables
DMachine code directly
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

In object-oriented programming, data and functions are bound together into a single unit called a(n):

AArray
BObject
CPointer
DLoop
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

In a flowchart, a diamond shape represents:

AStart/End
BProcess
CDecision
DInput/Output
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1042Ch 4 · Introduction to Programming

An algorithm is best described as:

AA programming language
BA step-by-step procedure to solve a problem
CA type of variable
DA compiler error
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

Which statement executes one of several blocks based on the value of a single variable?

Aif
Bswitch
Cwhile
Dfor
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

A for loop's three components, in order, are:

ACondition; Initialization; Increment
BInitialization; Condition; Increment
CIncrement; Condition; Initialization
DCondition only
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

Which loop is guaranteed to execute at least once, regardless of the condition?

Afor loop
Bwhile loop
Cdo-while loop
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

The while loop is best described as:

AExit-controlled
BEntry-controlled
CNever checking a condition
DAlways infinite
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

The break statement, when used inside a loop, causes:

AThe loop to restart
BImmediate exit from the loop
CThe next iteration to be skipped
DA compile error
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

The continue statement causes:

AThe loop to terminate completely
BThe current iteration to skip its remaining code and jump to the next iteration
CThe program to exit
DNothing
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

In a switch statement, the default case executes when:

AThe first case matches
BNo other case matches
CEvery case matches
DThe switch statement has an error
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

Nested if-else statements are used to:

ARepeat a block indefinitely
BTest multiple conditions in sequence
CDeclare multiple variables
DDefine a function
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

The goto statement performs:

AA conditional loop
BAn unconditional jump to a labeled statement
CA function call
DA memory allocation
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1042Ch 4 · Control Statements

Which loop structure is typically preferred when the number of iterations is known in advance?

Ado-while
Bfor
Cwhile
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

A function prototype specifies:

AThe complete function body
BThe function's return type, name, and parameter types (before its use)
COnly the function name
DThe value returned at runtime
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

In call by value, changes made to a parameter inside the function:

AAffect the original argument
BDo not affect the original argument
CCause a compile error
DAlways crash the program
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

In call by reference, the function receives:

AA copy of the value
BThe address of the argument
CNothing
DOnly the data type
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

A recursive function is one that:

ANever terminates
BCalls itself to solve smaller instances of the same problem
CCannot have parameters
DIs always faster than an iterative solution
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

Every recursive function must have a:

ALoop statement
BBase case to terminate recursion
CPointer argument
DReturn type of void
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

The main advantage of using functions in a program is:

AIncreased code duplication
BModularity and code reusability
CAlways slower execution
DRemoval of all variables
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

A function that does not return any value should have a return type of:

Aint
Bfloat
Cvoid
Dchar
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

Passing an array to a function in C effectively passes:

AA full copy of the array
BA pointer to the array's first element
CNothing
DOnly the array's size
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

Local variables declared inside a function are:

AAccessible from anywhere in the program
BAccessible only within that function
CAutomatically global
DStored permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1042Ch 4 · Functions

Recursive functions typically use more:

AGlobal variables
BStack memory, due to repeated function calls
CHeap memory only
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

A pointer is a variable that stores:

AA character value
BThe address of another variable
CA floating-point number only
DA function name only
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

The & operator, when applied to a variable, returns its:

AValue
BAddress
CData type
DSize
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

The * operator, when applied to a pointer, is used to:

AMultiply two pointers
BDereference the pointer (access the value at that address)
CDeclare an integer
DDelete the pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

Incrementing a pointer (ptr++) moves it forward by:

AExactly 1 byte always
Bsizeof(the pointed-to data type) bytes
CA random amount
D4 bytes always regardless of type
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

In C, an array name used in an expression generally decays to a:

AStructure
BPointer to its first element
CConstant integer
DFunction
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

Which function is used in C to dynamically allocate memory at runtime?

Afree()
Bmalloc()
Cprintf()
Dscanf()
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

The free() function in C is used to:

AAllocate new memory
BRelease previously allocated dynamic memory
CDeclare a pointer
DInitialize a variable
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

arr[i] in C is equivalent to which pointer expression?

A*(arr+i)
B&arr+i
Carr*i
D*arr+i
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

In C++, dynamic memory is typically allocated using the:

Amalloc keyword
Bnew keyword
Calloc keyword
Dcreate keyword
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1042Ch 4 · Pointers & Data Files

Subtracting two pointers of the same type gives:

AThe byte difference always
BThe number of elements between them
CAn error always
DA boolean value
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

An array is best described as:

AA collection of different data types in one variable
BA collection of elements of the same data type stored contiguously
CA pointer to a function
DA single variable only
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

When an array is passed to a function in C, it is passed:

ABy value, as a full copy
BEffectively by reference, via a pointer
CNot allowed at all
DOnly as a string
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

A two-dimensional array can be thought of as:

AAn array of pointers only
BAn array of arrays (rows and columns)
CA single scalar value
DA linked list
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

A structure (struct) in C is used to:

AStore only one data type
BGroup variables of different data types under one name
CReplace all arrays
DPerform arithmetic operations
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

To access a member of a structure through a pointer to that structure, which operator is used?

A. (dot)
B-> (arrow)
C&
D*
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

An array of structures is used to:

AStore multiple records, each with the same structure layout
BStore only integers
CReplace pointers
DDefine a new data type from scratch
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

Structure members can be initialized:

AOnly after the program has fully run
BAt the time of declaration, using an initializer list
CNever
DOnly inside a loop
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

Compared to an array, a structure can:

AOnly hold elements of the same type
BHold elements of different data types together
CNot be passed to a function
DNot have a pointer
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

In C, accessing structure members directly (not via a pointer) uses which operator?

A->
B. (dot)
C&
D*
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1042Ch 4 · Arrays & Structures

Multidimensional arrays are commonly used to represent:

ASingle scalar values
BMatrices and tables of data
COnly strings
DFunction prototypes
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

In object-oriented programming, a class is best described as:

AAn instance of an object
BA blueprint/template that defines data members and member functions
CA built-in data type
DA loop construct
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

An object is:

AA blueprint for a class
BAn instance of a class
CA function prototype
DA pointer only
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

An inline function is primarily used to:

AIncrease code size without benefit
BAvoid function-call overhead for small, frequently used functions
CEnable recursion only
DStore static data
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Function overloading allows:

AMultiple functions with the same name but different parameter lists
BOnly one function per class
CFunctions to call themselves
DGlobal variables to be redefined
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

A private member function of a class can be accessed:

AFrom anywhere in the program
BOnly from within the class's own member functions (by default)
COnly from derived classes
DOnly from the main() function
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Static data members of a class are:

AUnique to each object created
BShared among all objects of the class
CNever initialized
DAlways private
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

A static member function can be called:

AOnly through an object instance
BWithout creating an object of the class
COnly inside another static function
DNever
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Operator overloading allows a programmer to:

ACreate entirely new operators
BRedefine the behaviour of existing operators for user-defined types
CRemove operators from the language
DOnly overload the assignment operator
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Inheritance in OOP allows a derived class to:

ADelete the base class
BAcquire properties and behaviours of a base class, promoting code reuse
CNever access base class members
DReplace the base class entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1042Ch 4 · Features of Object-Oriented Programming

Polymorphism in OOP refers to the ability of:

AA variable to change its data type at will
BA function or object to take multiple forms (e.g., through overloading or overriding)
CA program to run without compiling
DArrays to resize dynamically
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

A static error in measurement is best described as an error that occurs when:

AThe measured quantity varies rapidly with time
BThe measured quantity is constant or slowly varying
COnly AC bridges are used
DThe instrument is disconnected
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Dynamic error arises mainly because:

AThe instrument cannot respond fast enough to a time-varying input
BThe battery is discharged
CThe instrument has zero resistance
DThe bridge is unbalanced
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Maxwell’s bridge is primarily used to measure:

AUnknown capacitance
BUnknown inductance
CFrequency only
DPower factor
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Schering bridge is widely used for measuring:

AUnknown inductance
BUnknown capacitance, especially for insulation testing
CResistance only
DCurrent
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Wien bridge is commonly used for:

AMeasuring very large resistances
BFrequency measurement and as a frequency-selective network in oscillators
CMeasuring DC voltage only
DMeasuring torque
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

The general AC bridge balance condition requires:

AZ1 = Z2 = Z3 = Z4
BZ1Z4 = Z2Z3 (product of opposite arms equal)
CZ1+Z4 = Z2+Z3
DAll arms must be resistive
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Systematic errors in measurement include all of the following EXCEPT:

AInstrumental errors
BEnvironmental errors
CObservational errors
DPurely random noise
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Gross errors in measurement are typically caused by:

AInstrument imperfections
BHuman mistakes (misreading, incorrect recording)
CEnvironmental factors only
DRandom electrical noise
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

A bridge circuit used to measure the dissipation factor of a capacitor is the:

AMaxwell bridge
BWien bridge
CSchering bridge
DWheatstone bridge
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1042Ch 5 · Measurement & Error

Which type of error can never be completely eliminated but only minimized statistically?

AGross error
BSystematic error
CRandom error
DInstrumental error
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A transducer that requires an external power source to operate is called a:

AActive transducer
BPassive transducer
CDigital transducer
DPrimary transducer
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A thermocouple is an example of a(n):

APassive transducer requiring external power
BActive/self-generating transducer (no external power needed)
CDigital transducer
DResistive transducer
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

An LVDT (Linear Variable Differential Transformer) is used to measure:

ATemperature
BLinear displacement/position
CLight intensity
DFluid flow only
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A strain gauge works on the principle that its:

ACapacitance changes with light
BResistance changes with mechanical strain/deformation
CVoltage output is generated by heat
DInductance changes with pressure only
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

An RTD (Resistance Temperature Detector) typically has a:

ANegative temperature coefficient
BPositive temperature coefficient (metallic element, e.g., platinum)
CZero temperature coefficient
DRandom temperature coefficient
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A thermocouple generates a voltage based on the:

ASeebeck effect
BPhotoelectric effect
CPiezoelectric effect
DHall effect
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A piezoelectric transducer generates an output voltage when:

AExposed to light
BMechanically stressed/deformed
CHeated uniformly
DPlaced in a magnetic field only
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

A photovoltaic cell (solar cell) is classified as a(n):

APassive transducer needing external bias
BActive/self-generating transducer (converts light directly to voltage)
CDigital-only sensor
DResistive transducer
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

In a binary-weighted resistor DAC, the resolution is determined mainly by the:

ANumber of binary input bits
BOp-amp gain only
CSupply voltage frequency
DType of comparator used
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1042Ch 5 · Transducers, Sensors & Signal Conditioning

Which ADC type offers the fastest conversion speed by using a bank of comparators?

ASuccessive approximation ADC
BDual slope ADC
CFlash (parallel) ADC
DSingle ramp ADC
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

In an indicating instrument, the damping system is primarily used to:

AGenerate the deflecting torque
BBring the pointer to rest quickly without excessive oscillation
CIncrease the deflecting torque
DAmplify the signal
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A PMMC (Permanent Magnet Moving Coil) instrument responds to:

AOnly the peak value of AC
BOnly the average (DC) value of current
COnly the RMS value directly, without rectification
DFrequency changes only
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A voltmeter is always connected in the circuit:

AIn series with the load
BIn parallel with the load
CNeither in series nor parallel
DOnly at the source terminals
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

An ideal ammeter should have:

AInfinite internal resistance
BZero (very low) internal resistance
CEqual resistance to the load
DNegative resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A clamp-meter measures current without breaking the circuit by using the principle of a:

AShunt resistor
BCurrent transformer
CPotential divider
DWheatstone bridge
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

In a wattmeter (electrodynamometer type), the current coil is connected:

AIn parallel with the load
BIn series with the load
CAcross the supply only
DNowhere in the circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A household energy meter (induction type) records energy based on:

AThe number of rotations of an aluminium disc, proportional to power
BA digital counter only
CThe peak current value
DThe instantaneous voltage only
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A Megger is primarily used to measure:

AVery low resistance
BVery high (insulation) resistance
CCurrent only
DFrequency
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

A tachometer is used to measure:

ATemperature
BRotational speed (RPM) of a shaft
CFluid pressure
DLight intensity
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1042Ch 5 · Electrical Measurements & Instruments

An instrument transformer (CT/PT) is primarily used to:

AAmplify power directly
BScale down high currents/voltages to safe levels for metering/protection instruments
CConvert AC to DC
DStore electrical energy
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

In an open-loop control system:

AThe output is fed back and compared with the input
BThe output has no effect on the control action
CErrors are automatically corrected
DFeedback improves accuracy
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

A closed-loop control system is characterized by:

AAbsence of feedback
BComparison of output with input via feedback, allowing self-correction
CNo sensors of any kind
DSimpler design than open-loop systems
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

The transfer function of a system is defined as:

AInput(s)/Output(s)
BOutput(s)/Input(s), with zero initial conditions
CThe system's physical weight
DThe DC gain only
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

In mechanical system modeling, the element analogous to electrical resistance (force-voltage analogy) is:

AMass
BDamping (friction)
CSpring stiffness
DDisplacement
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

In the force-voltage analogy, mechanical mass is analogous to electrical:

AResistance
BCapacitance
CInductance
DConductance
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

Liquid level systems are typically modeled using an analogy to which type of electrical circuit?

ARL circuit
BRC circuit
CLC circuit
DPure resistive circuit only
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

Thermal systems (temperature vs heat flow) are commonly modeled analogous to:

ARL circuits
BRC circuits (thermal resistance and thermal capacitance)
CPure inductive circuits
DNone of these
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

In modeling a DC motor as an electromechanical system, the electrical and mechanical sub- models are coupled through the:

AGear ratio only
BBack-EMF and torque constants
CCapacitance value
DDamping coefficient only
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

A gear system in mechanical modeling is analogous to which electrical device?

AA resistor
BA transformer (relating torque/speed on either side)
CA capacitor
DA diode
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1042Ch 5 · System Modeling

Sensors, encoders, and generators are typically modeled in a control system block diagram as a:

ANonlinear differential equation only
BSimple proportional (gain) transfer function
CPure integrator only
DInfinite-order transfer function
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

When two blocks are connected in series (cascade) in a block diagram, the overall transfer function is:

AThe sum of the two transfer functions
BThe product of the two transfer functions
CThe difference of the two transfer functions
DAlways unity
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

For a negative feedback control system with forward path G and feedback path H, the overall closed-loop transfer function is:

AG/(1−GH)
BG/(1+GH)
CGH
DG+H
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

A signal flow graph represents a system using:

AOnly rectangular blocks
BNodes (variables) connected by directed, weighted branches (gains)
COnly feedback loops
DPie charts
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

Mason’s Gain Formula is used to:

ASimplify circuit diagrams only
BCompute the overall transfer function of a signal flow graph directly, without step-by-step reduction
CCalculate power dissipation
DDesign PMMC instruments
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

Which of the following is NOT one of the standard test signals used in control system analysis?

AImpulse
BStep
CRamp
DSinusoidal noise
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

The response of a first-order system to a unit step input is characterized by:

AOscillatory overshoot
BAn exponential rise to the final value, with no overshoot
CA linear ramp only
DInstantaneous response
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

A second-order system with damping ratio ζ < 1 is classified as:

AOverdamped
BCritically damped
CUnderdamped (oscillatory)
DUndamped only
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

Moving a summing point or take-off point in a block diagram generally requires:

ANo changes at all
BInserting a compensating block to preserve the overall signal relationships
CRemoving all feedback loops
DConverting to a signal flow graph only
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

Block diagrams and signal flow graphs are:

ACompletely unrelated representations
BMathematically equivalent; each can be converted to the other
COnly used for AC circuits
DNever used for control systems
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1042Ch 5 · Block Diagram Representation

When two blocks are connected in parallel in a block diagram, the overall transfer function is found by:

AMultiplying the transfer functions
BAdding (or subtracting) the transfer functions
CTaking their ratio
DIgnoring one of them
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

A system is said to be BIBO stable if:

AIts output grows unbounded for any input
BIts output remains bounded for every bounded input
CIt has poles in the right-half plane
DIt has no poles at all
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

For a linear system to be stable, all closed-loop poles must lie in the:

ARight-half s-plane
BLeft-half s-plane
COn the jω-axis only
DAt the origin
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

The Routh-Hurwitz criterion determines system stability by:

ADirectly solving for all roots of the characteristic equation
BExamining sign changes in the first column of the Routh array, without solving for the roots
CPlotting the Nyquist diagram
DMeasuring the gain margin only
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

A necessary (but not sufficient) condition for a system to be stable, based on the characteristic equation, is that:

AAll coefficients must be present and of the same sign
BAll coefficients must be negative
CAt least one coefficient must be zero
DThe order must be even
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

The root locus plot shows how the closed-loop poles move as:

ATime increases
BA system parameter (usually gain K) varies from 0 to infinity
CFrequency increases only
DTemperature changes
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

A Bode plot consists of:

AA single polar curve
BMagnitude (dB) and phase (degrees) plotted separately against frequency on a log scale
COnly a time-domain step response
DA root locus diagram
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

For a stable system based on Bode plot criteria, the gain crossover frequency should occur:

AAfter the phase crossover frequency
BBefore the phase crossover frequency
CAt exactly the same frequency
DIt does not matter
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

The Nyquist stability criterion determines closed-loop stability by:

ACounting encirclements of the point (−1, 0) by the open-loop frequency response plot
BMeasuring the DC gain only
CSolving the characteristic equation directly
DUsing only the phase plot
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

Gain Margin (GM) is defined as:

AThe additional phase lag a system can tolerate before instability
BThe amount of gain increase (in dB) that can be tolerated before the system becomes unstable
CThe steady-state error
DThe natural frequency of the system
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1042Ch 5 · Stability Analysis

For a control system to be stable, both the Gain Margin and Phase Margin should be:

ANegative
BZero
CPositive
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

A transformer transfers energy between two circuits mainly through:

ADirect electrical conduction
BElectromagnetic induction
CMechanical coupling
DChemical reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

The EMF equation of a transformer is given by E =:

A4.44fNΦm
B2πfL
CVI
DI²R
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio a = N1/N2 equals:

AV2/V1 = I1/I2
BV1/V2 = I2/I1
CV1×V2
DI1×I2
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

The core of a power transformer is laminated primarily to reduce:

ACopper loss
BEddy current loss
CMechanical vibration only
DHysteresis loss to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

Maximum efficiency of a transformer occurs when:

ACopper loss = Iron loss
BCopper loss = 0
CIron loss = 0
DLoad is always at full rating
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

The open-circuit (OC) test on a transformer is primarily used to determine:

ACopper loss and equivalent resistance
BIron loss and no-load current/shunt branch parameters
CVoltage regulation directly
DStarting current
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

The short-circuit (SC) test on a transformer is primarily used to determine:

AIron loss
BCopper loss and equivalent series impedance
CNo-load current
DMagnetizing current
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

Voltage regulation of a transformer is defined as the change in:

APrimary current from no-load to full-load
BSecondary terminal voltage from no-load to full-load, as a percentage of rated voltage
CFrequency under load
DCore flux with temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

An autotransformer differs from a two-winding transformer because it:

AHas completely isolated primary and secondary windings
BUses a single winding shared between primary and secondary (no full isolation)
CCannot step up or down voltage
DHas no core
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1042Ch 6 · Transformers Fundamentals

A pulse transformer is specifically designed to:

AOperate only at 50/60 Hz
BTransfer fast rise-time pulses with minimal distortion
CEliminate all core losses
DFunction without a magnetic core
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

The EMF induced in a DC generator armature is classified as:

AStatically induced EMF
BDynamically induced EMF
CSelf-induced EMF only
DMutually induced EMF only
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

The function of a commutator in a DC generator is to:

AIncrease the armature resistance
BConvert the AC generated in the armature into DC at the terminals
CReduce the number of poles
DStore electrical energy
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

The EMF equation of a DC generator is E =:

APΦZN/60A
B4.44fNΦm
CBIL
DVIcosφ
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Which type of DC generator has its field winding connected in parallel with the armature?

ASeries generator
BShunt generator
CSeparately excited generator only
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Armature reaction in a DC machine refers to:

AThe effect of load current on the commutator only
BThe distortion/weakening of the main field flux due to the armature's own MMF
CThe mechanical friction in bearings
DThe core lamination effect
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Poor commutation in a DC generator typically results in:

AImproved efficiency
BSparking at the brushes
CIncreased flux linkage only
DNo noticeable effect
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Interpoles (commutating poles) are used in DC machines primarily to:

AIncrease speed
BImprove commutation and reduce sparking
CReduce the number of brushes needed
DEliminate the need for a commutator
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Losses in a DC generator include copper losses, iron losses, and:

AChemical losses
BMechanical losses (friction and windage)
CRadiation losses only
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

Before connecting two DC generators in parallel, it is essential that they have:

ADifferent voltages
BEqual voltage and matched polarity
CDifferent speeds
DNo excitation
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Generators

The magnetization (no-load) characteristic of a DC generator plots:

ATerminal voltage vs load current
BGenerated EMF vs field current, at constant speed
CTorque vs speed
DPower vs time
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

The working principle of a DC motor is based on the:

AForce experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field
BSeebeck effect
CFaraday's law of electromagnetic induction only
DPiezoelectric effect
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

The back EMF (Eb) in a DC motor:

AAids the applied voltage
BOpposes the applied voltage and increases with speed
CIs always zero
DHas no effect on armature current
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Which DC motor type provides high starting torque but has speed that varies greatly with load (and can “run away” at no load)?

AShunt motor
BSeries motor
CCompound motor only
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Which DC motor type provides an almost constant speed regardless of load?

ASeries motor
BShunt motor
CCumulative compound only
DNone
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

A starter is used when starting a DC motor mainly to:

AIncrease the back EMF instantly
BLimit the high starting armature current (since Eb=0 at start)
CReduce the supply voltage permanently
DDisconnect the field winding
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Speed of a DC motor is directly related to back EMF and flux by:

AN ∝ Eb × Φ
BN ∝ Eb/Φ
CN ∝ Φ/Eb
DN is independent of both
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

A Brushless DC (BLDC) motor achieves commutation using:

AMechanical brushes and a commutator
BElectronic commutation via power electronics and rotor position sensors
CA slip-ring assembly
DNo commutation at all
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Swinburne’s test on a DC machine is used to determine:

AStarting torque directly
BLosses and efficiency using a no-load test
CArmature resistance under full load only
DRotor speed only
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Regenerative braking of a DC motor works by:

ADissipating kinetic energy entirely as heat in a resistor
BFeeding the motor's kinetic energy back into the electrical supply
CReversing the supply polarity abruptly
DDisconnecting the motor completely
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1042Ch 6 · DC Motors

Reversing the direction of rotation of a DC motor is achieved by:

AReversing both armature and field connections simultaneously
BReversing either the armature or the field current connections (not both)
CIncreasing the supply voltage
DRemoving the starter
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

The rotor of a squirrel cage induction motor:

AHas windings brought out via slip rings
BConsists of bars short-circuited by end rings
CRequires a separate DC excitation source
DIs connected directly to the supply
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

The synchronous speed of an induction motor is given by:

ANs = 120f/P
BNs = P/120f
CNs = 60f/P
DNs = f/P
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

Slip of an induction motor is defined as:

A(Ns+Nr)/Ns
B(Ns−Nr)/Ns
CNr/Ns
DNs/Nr
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

The frequency of the rotor-induced EMF in an induction motor equals:

AThe supply frequency always
BSlip × supply frequency
CSynchronous speed × supply frequency
DZero always
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

At standstill, the slip of an induction motor is:

A0
B1
C0.5 always
DInfinite
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

The Direct-On-Line (DOL) starting method for induction motors is simple but results in:

AVery low starting current
BHigh starting current
CNo starting torque
DReverse rotation
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

Speed control of an induction motor by varying the supply frequency is achieved using a:

ARotor resistance starter
BVariable Frequency Drive (VFD)
CStar-delta starter
DCapacitor bank only
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

An induction machine can act as an induction generator when driven by a prime mover:

ABelow synchronous speed
BAbove synchronous speed
CExactly at synchronous speed
DIn reverse direction only
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

Which single-phase induction motor type uses two different capacitor values — one for starting, one for running?

ASplit-phase motor
BShaded-pole motor
CTwo-value capacitor motor
DPermanent split-capacitor motor
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1042Ch 6 · Induction Motors

A shaded-pole single-phase induction motor is characterized by:

AVery high starting torque
BVery low starting torque and simple, low-cost construction
CThe need for an external capacitor
DHigh efficiency at all loads
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

A synchronous generator (alternator) produces AC output at a frequency related to speed by:

Af = 120P/N
Bf = PN/120
Cf = N/P
Df = 120/PN
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

The rotor of a synchronous generator used in high-speed steam/gas turbine plants is typically:

ASalient-pole type
BCylindrical (non-salient pole) type
CA squirrel cage
DA wound rotor with slip rings only
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

In a synchronous generator's equivalent circuit, the generated EMF is in series with the:

ALoad resistance only
BSynchronous impedance (Zs = Ra + jXs)
CMagnetizing branch only
DCapacitive reactance only
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

The power developed by a synchronous generator is primarily a function of:

AThe load (torque) angle δ between E and V
BThe core lamination thickness
CThe number of slip rings
DThe brush material
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

Before paralleling (synchronizing) an alternator with the grid, which condition is NOT required?

AEqual voltage magnitude
BEqual frequency
CSame phase sequence and matching phase angle
DEqual armature resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

A synchroscope is used to:

AMeasure insulation resistance
BIndicate the correct instant for synchronizing an alternator with the bus/grid
CMeasure rotor speed only
DTest transformer losses
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

A Permanent Magnet Synchronous Generator (PMSG) differs from a conventional synchronous generator mainly because it:

ARequires slip rings for excitation
BUses permanent magnets on the rotor instead of a DC field winding
CCannot generate AC power
DHas no rotor at all
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

PMSGs are particularly popular in which application?

AHousehold refrigerators
BWind turbine power generation
CElevator motors
DElectric shavers
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

Voltage regulation of a synchronous generator is defined as the percentage change in terminal voltage when:

AThe field current is reduced to zero
BFull load is removed, with field current and speed held constant
CThe frequency is doubled
DThe generator is short-circuited
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Generators

The armature/stator winding of a synchronous generator is typically:

ARotating, while the field is stationary
BStationary, while the DC field winding rotates
CAbsent entirely
DMade of aluminium only, never copper
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

A synchronous motor runs at:

AA speed that varies with load, always less than synchronous speed
BExactly synchronous speed, regardless of load (within its capability)
CTwice the synchronous speed
DZero speed continuously
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

A synchronous motor is NOT inherently self-starting because:

AIt has no rotor
BAt standstill, the rotor cannot instantly follow the rapidly rotating stator field due to inertia
CIt has no stator winding
DDC supply is unavailable
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

The torque developed by a synchronous motor is proportional to:

Acosδ
Bsinδ, where δ is the torque (load) angle
Cδ²
D1/δ
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

The maximum (pull-out) torque of a synchronous motor typically occurs at a torque angle δ of:

A0°
B45°
C90°
D180°
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

Damper (amortisseur) windings on a synchronous motor rotor are mainly used to:

AIncrease the DC excitation voltage
BProvide asynchronous (induction-motor-like) starting torque
CEliminate the need for a stator winding
DImprove insulation only
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

An under-excited synchronous motor draws current from the supply that is:

ALeading (behaves capacitively)
BLagging (behaves inductively)
CExactly at unity power factor always
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

An over-excited synchronous motor draws current from the supply that is:

ALagging (behaves inductively)
BLeading (behaves capacitively)
CAlways zero
DIn phase with back EMF only
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

Because of its variable-excitation behaviour, an over-excited synchronous motor running with no mechanical load is often used as a:

ASynchronous condenser for power factor correction
BSimple resistive heater
CDC generator
DStep-up transformer
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

Speed control of a synchronous motor (while remaining synchronized) can only be achieved by varying the:

AArmature resistance
BSupply frequency
CField excitation only
DLoad torque only
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1042Ch 6 · Synchronous Motors

The counter EMF (CEMF) of a synchronous motor is best described as the:

AVoltage drop across the starting resistor
BInternally generated EMF (due to rotor excitation) that opposes the applied stator voltage
CVoltage induced in the damper winding only
DVoltage across the exciter brushes only
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

A signal defined only at discrete instants of time is called a:

AContinuous-time signal
BDiscrete-time signal
CPeriodic signal only
DEnergy signal only
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

A signal x(t) is periodic if:

Ax(t) = x(t+T) for some T > 0
Bx(t) is always zero
Cx(t) has finite energy only
Dx(t) is causal
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

An energy signal is characterized by:

AFinite energy and zero average power
BInfinite energy and finite average power
CBoth infinite energy and infinite power
DZero energy always
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

A signal x(t) is even if:

Ax(−t) = −x(t)
Bx(−t) = x(t)
Cx(t) = 0 for t<0
Dx(t) is periodic
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

A causal system's output at any time depends on:

AFuture inputs only
BPresent and past inputs only
CPast outputs only
DNothing
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

The unit impulse function δ(t) has:

AInfinite width and zero area
BZero width (ideally) and unit area
CUnit width and unit area
DNegative area
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

Time-scaling a signal as x(2t) compared to x(t) results in:

ACompression in time
BExpansion in time
CNo change
DTime reversal only
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

An LTI system is fully characterized by its:

AInput signal alone
BImpulse response
COutput signal alone
DSampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

The output of a continuous-time LTI system is obtained by:

AMultiplying the input and impulse response
BConvolving the input with the impulse response
CAdding the input and impulse response
DDifferentiating the input
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1042Ch 7 · Fundamentals of Signals & Systems

Two signals are said to be orthogonal over an interval if:

ATheir sum is zero
BThe integral of their product over that interval is zero
CThey have the same amplitude
DThey are both periodic
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The Laplace transform of the unit step function u(t) is:

A1/s
B1/s²
Cs
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The Laplace transform of the unit impulse function δ(t) is:

A0
B1
C1/s
Ds
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The Laplace transform of e^(−at)u(t) is:

A1/(s−a)
B1/(s+a)
Ca/s
Ds/a
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

Differentiation in the time domain corresponds, in the Laplace domain, to:

ADividing X(s) by s
BMultiplying by s (and subtracting the initial condition)
CSquaring X(s)
DNo change
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

Heaviside's expansion theorem is primarily used to:

ASolve nonlinear equations
BFind the coefficients of a partial fraction expansion
CCompute the Fourier transform
DDesign digital filters
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The transfer function H(s) of a system is defined as:

AY(s) × X(s)
BY(s)/X(s), assuming zero initial conditions
CX(s)/Y(s)
DThe system's physical mass
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The frequency response of a system is obtained from its transfer function H(s) by substituting:

As = 0
Bs = jω
Cs = −1
Ds = ∞
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

One major advantage of using the Laplace transform to solve differential equations is that it converts them into:

APartial differential equations
BAlgebraic equations
CNonlinear equations
DIntegral equations only
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The final value theorem allows determination of:

AThe initial value of x(t) from X(s)
BThe steady-state (final) value of x(t) as t→∞, from X(s)
CThe Fourier transform of x(t)
DThe z-transform of x(t)
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1042Ch 7 · Laplace Transforms

The Laplace transform of a ramp function t·u(t) is:

A1/s
B1/s²
C1/s³
Ds
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

The Fourier series represents a periodic signal as a sum of:

ARandom noise components
BHarmonically related complex exponentials (or sines/cosines)
COnly a single sinusoid
DImpulse functions only
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

The Fourier transform is primarily used to analyze:

AOnly periodic signals
BAperiodic (and, with impulses, periodic) signals in the frequency domain
COnly discrete-time signals
DOnly DC signals
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

Parseval's theorem relates:

ATime-domain energy to frequency-domain energy of a signal
BTwo completely unrelated systems
COnly discrete-time signals
DStability margins
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

The Discrete-Time Fourier Transform (DTFT) of an aperiodic discrete-time signal is:

ADiscrete and aperiodic in frequency
BContinuous and periodic in frequency (with period 2π)
CAlways zero
DIdentical to the z-transform for all z
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

The Discrete-Time Fourier Series (DTFS) applies to:

AAperiodic discrete-time signals
BPeriodic discrete-time signals, using a FINITE number of harmonics
COnly continuous-time signals
DOnly energy signals
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

In exponential Fourier series notation, x(t) = Σcₖ e^(jkω0t), the coefficients cₖ are called the:

AImpulse responses
BFourier series coefficients
CPoles of the system
DSampling instants
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

The fundamental frequency ω0 of a periodic signal with period T is given by:

A2πT
B2π/T
CT/2π
D1/T²
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

Convolution in the time domain corresponds, in the Fourier frequency domain, to:

AConvolution again
BMultiplication
CDivision
DDifferentiation
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

Which of the following signal properties must generally be satisfied (Dirichlet conditions) for a periodic signal to have a valid Fourier series?

AIt must be a pure sinusoid
BIt must satisfy conditions such as absolute integrability over one period
CIt must be discrete-time only
DIt must be causal
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1042Ch 7 · Fourier Series & Transforms

Multiplication in the time domain corresponds, in the frequency domain, to:

AMultiplication
BConvolution
CAddition
DSubtraction
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

According to the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, a bandlimited signal can be perfectly reconstructed if the sampling frequency is:

AEqual to the maximum signal frequency
BGreater than twice the maximum signal frequency
CLess than the maximum signal frequency
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

Aliasing occurs when a signal is sampled:

AAbove the Nyquist rate
BBelow the Nyquist rate
CAt exactly the Nyquist rate only
DUsing an ideal reconstruction filter
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

A Zero-Order Hold (ZOH) reconstructs a continuous signal from samples by:

AInterpolating with a sine function
BHolding each sample value constant until the next sample arrives
CDifferentiating between samples
DDiscarding every other sample
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

The z-transform is defined as:

AX(z) = Σx[n]zⁿ
BX(z) = Σx[n]z⁻ᴸ
CX(z) = ∫x(t)e⁻ᴸᴹdt
DX(z) = x[n]/z
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

The z-transform reduces to the discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT) when evaluated:

AOn the real axis
BOn the unit circle, z = e^(jω)
CAt z = 0
DAt z = ∞
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

For a discrete-time LTI system to be BIBO stable, all poles of its transfer function H(z) must lie:

AOutside the unit circle
BStrictly inside the unit circle (|z|<1)
CExactly on the unit circle
DAt the origin only
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

The Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) is significant because it:

AComputes the DFT with much lower computational complexity than direct calculation
BReplaces the need for sampling
COnly works for continuous-time signals
DIncreases the required computation to O(N²)
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

The DFT (Discrete Fourier Transform) operates on:

AA continuous, infinite-duration signal
BA finite-length discrete-time signal
COnly analog voltages
DOnly impulse functions
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

Converting a continuous-time signal into a discrete-time signal by taking values at regular intervals is called:

AQuantization
BSampling
CModulation
DFiltering
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1042Ch 7 · Z-Transform & Digital Systems

The computational complexity of the FFT algorithm, compared to direct DFT computation, is reduced from O(N²) to approximately:

AO(N)
BO(N log N)
CO(N³)
DO(1)
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Frequency-domain techniques such as Bode and Nyquist plots are primarily used for:

ATime-domain simulation only
BStability analysis of systems
CPhysical construction of circuits
DManufacturing cost estimation
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Spectral analysis is primarily concerned with examining a signal's:

APhysical weight
BFrequency content/spectrum
CColor
DManufacturing origin
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Spectrum sensing (e.g., in cognitive radio) is used to:

ADetect which parts of the frequency spectrum are occupied or free
BIncrease transmitted power indefinitely
CEliminate the need for antennas
DConvert analog signals to digital only
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Autocorrelation measures the similarity between:

ATwo completely different, unrelated signals
BA signal and a time-shifted version of itself
CTwo different systems' transfer functions
DA signal and random noise only
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Cross-correlation is primarily used to measure:

AThe similarity between two different signals
BThe stability margin of a system
CThe sampling rate required
DThe DC gain of a filter
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Frequency-domain system design typically specifies desired behaviour in terms of:

AOnly time-domain overshoot
BBandwidth, gain, phase margin, or cutoff frequency
CPhysical size of components only
DManufacturing tolerances only
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Correlation techniques are especially useful for:

ADetecting signals buried in noise
BIncreasing a system's physical size
CEliminating the need for filters entirely
DRemoving all frequency content
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

In frequency-domain stability analysis, gain margin and phase margin are used to indicate:

AHow close a system is to becoming unstable
BThe exact time-domain response
CThe sampling frequency
DThe DC resistance of the circuit
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Spectral analysis using the DFT/FFT helps identify:

ADominant frequency components and harmonics in a signal
BOnly the DC component
CThe physical temperature of a circuit
DNothing useful
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1042Ch 7 · Applications of Frequency Domain Analysis

Compared to pure time-domain design, frequency-domain design is often preferred because it:

AIs always less accurate
BProvides a more intuitive way to specify bandwidth, gain and phase requirements
CCannot be used for filter design
DIgnores stability considerations
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

An ideal filter is characterized by:

AA gradual roll-off between passband and stopband
BA perfectly sharp (brick-wall) transition between passband and stopband
CInfinite passband ripple
DZero passband gain
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

A Butterworth filter is known for having a:

AMaximally flat magnitude response in the passband
BRipple in both passband and stopband
CThe sharpest possible roll-off of all filter types
DNo frequency response at all
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

A Chebyshev Type I filter, compared to a Butterworth filter of the same order, typically offers:

AA flatter passband but slower roll-off
BA sharper roll-off but with passband ripple
CNo roll-off at all
DOnly a stopband response
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

Passive filters are built using:

AOnly active amplifying elements
BOnly R, L, C components, with no external power
COnly digital logic gates
DOnly operational amplifiers
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

An FIR (Finite Impulse Response) digital filter is characterized by:

AAn impulse response of infinite duration
BAn impulse response of finite duration, and inherent stability
CThe need for feedback always
DGuaranteed instability
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

An IIR (Infinite Impulse Response) digital filter uses:

ANo feedback at all
BFeedback, giving an impulse response of infinite duration
COnly finite-duration responses
DOnly analog components
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

Compared to an IIR filter of similar specification, an FIR filter generally:

ARequires a lower filter order
BRequires a higher filter order, but can have exactly linear phase
CIs always unstable
DCannot be implemented digitally
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

A band-stop (notch) filter is designed to:

APass a specific band of frequencies
BReject a specific band of frequencies, passing the rest
CPass only DC
DAmplify all frequencies equally
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

The transfer function of a digital filter is typically expressed as a function of:

As, the Laplace variable
Bz, the z-transform variable
COnly time t
DOnly frequency f in Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1042Ch 7 · Filters

Active filters, compared to passive filters, have the key advantage of being able to:

AProvide signal gain
BOperate without any power supply
CEliminate all frequency-selective behavior
DFunction only at DC
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

In a bandpass (passband) communication system, the signal is:

ATransmitted at its original baseband frequency
BModulated onto a high-frequency carrier
CNever modulated
DAlways digital
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Thermal noise in a communication system is caused by:

ADiscrete arrival of charge carriers
BRandom motion of electrons due to temperature
CSwitching transients
DMultipath fading
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

An AWGN channel model assumes the noise is:

ACorrelated with the signal and narrowband
BAdditive, white, and Gaussian-distributed
CMultiplicative and deterministic
DZero at all times
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Bit Error Rate (BER) is defined as:

ATotal bits transmitted per second
BFraction of received bits that are in error
CSignal power divided by noise power
DThe carrier frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) in dB is calculated as:

A10log₁₀(Psignal/Pnoise)
BPsignal/Pnoise
C20log₁₀(Pnoise/Psignal)
DPsignal × Pnoise
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Compared to analog systems, digital communication systems are generally:

ALess robust to noise
BMore robust to noise and support error correction
CUnable to be multiplexed
DAlways narrowband
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Flicker (1/f) noise is most significant at:

AHigh frequencies only
BLow frequencies
CMicrowave frequencies only
DIt is frequency-independent
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Equivalent noise bandwidth refers to:

AThe bandwidth of the message signal only
BThe bandwidth of an ideal rectangular filter passing the same noise power as the real system
CThe carrier bandwidth
DThe Nyquist rate
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

A baseband communication system transmits the signal:

AAfter shifting it to a high-frequency carrier
BAt its original, unshifted frequency range
COnly over satellite links
DOnly in digital form
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1042Ch 8 · Basic Elements of Communication Systems

Figure of Merit of a demodulator is defined as the ratio of:

AInput SNR to output SNR
BOutput SNR to input SNR
CBandwidth to bit rate
DCarrier power to noise power
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

DSB-SC modulation differs from standard AM in that DSB-SC:

ATransmits only one sideband
BSuppresses the carrier while transmitting both sidebands
CTransmits the carrier only
DIs a digital scheme
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

SSB-SC modulation is primarily used to save:

ATransmitter cost only
BBandwidth (and power)
CReceiver complexity
DCarrier frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

Vestigial sideband (VSB) modulation is a compromise between:

AAM and FM
BSSB simplicity and DSB bandwidth
CPM and PCM
DDigital and analog systems
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

Synchronous (coherent) demodulation is required for:

AStandard AM only
BDSB-SC and SSB-SC signals
CFM signals only
DPCM signals
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

A Costas loop is used at the receiver to:

ARecover a phase-coherent carrier
BGenerate the transmitted message
CPerform quantization
DFilter thermal noise only
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

In Frequency Modulation (FM), the message signal varies the carrier's:

AAmplitude
BInstantaneous frequency
CBandwidth only
DDC offset only
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

Carson's rule estimates the bandwidth of an FM signal as:

ABW ≈ fₘ
BBW ≈ 2(Δf + fₘ)
CBW = Δf only
DBW = carrier frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

Narrowband FM is characterized by a modulation index β that is:

AMuch greater than 1
BMuch less than 1
CExactly equal to 1
DNegative
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

Pre-emphasis in an FM transmitter is used to:

AAttenuate high-frequency components before modulation
BBoost high-frequency components before modulation
CRemove the carrier
DConvert the signal to digital form
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1042Ch 8 · Analog Modulation & Demodulation

The spectrum of an angle-modulated (FM/PM) signal contains sideband amplitudes described by:

ASinc functions
BBessel functions of the first kind
CGaussian functions
DRectangular pulses
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

In BPSK, a binary bit is represented by:

ATwo amplitude levels
BTwo frequency values
CA 180° phase shift between the two states
DPulse width variation
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

Among BASK, BFSK and BPSK, the best noise performance (lowest error probability) is given by:

ABASK
BBFSK
CBPSK
DAll are identical
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

QPSK modulation carries how many bits per symbol?

A1
B2
C4
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) achieves high bandwidth efficiency by varying:

AFrequency only
BPhase only
CBoth amplitude and phase
DPulse duration only
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

A matched filter is designed to:

AMinimize the transmitted power
BMaximize output SNR for a known pulse shape in noise
CRemove all frequency components below cutoff
DConvert analog signals to digital
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

The impulse response of a matched filter is:

AIdentical to the transmitted pulse
BA time-reversed, delayed version of the transmitted pulse
CA random noise waveform
DAlways a rectangular pulse
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

The Shannon–Hartley theorem gives channel capacity as:

AC = B log₂(1 + S/N)
BC = B/N
CC = S × N
DC = 2B
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

Increasing M in an M-ary modulation scheme generally:

AReduces bandwidth efficiency
BIncreases bandwidth efficiency but requires higher SNR
CHas no effect on performance
DEliminates the need for a carrier
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

Source coding is applied primarily to:

AAdd redundancy for error correction
BRemove redundancy and reduce the number of bits needed
CModulate the carrier
DFilter out noise
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1042Ch 8 · Digital Communication & Modulation

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) allows multiple signals to share a channel by dividing it in:

AFrequency
BTime
CWavelength
DPhase
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

In Pulse Amplitude Modulation, narrower pulses require:

ALess transmission bandwidth
BGreater transmission bandwidth
CNo change in bandwidth
DZero bandwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

The correct order of stages in PCM encoding is:

AEncoding, Sampling, Quantization
BSampling, Quantization, Encoding
CQuantization, Encoding, Sampling
DEncoding, Quantization, Sampling
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

For a uniform quantizer, the maximum quantization error is:

AEqual to the step size
BHalf the step size
CTwice the step size
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Companding is used primarily to:

AIncrease bandwidth
BImprove SNR for low-amplitude signals by compressing/expanding dynamic range
CRemove the carrier
DEliminate sampling
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Differential PCM (DPCM) reduces the required bit rate by encoding:

AThe absolute sample value
BThe difference between consecutive samples
CThe carrier frequency
DThe noise power
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Delta Modulation (DM) uses a quantizer with:

A256 levels
B16 levels
C1 bit (2 levels)
DContinuous levels
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Slope overload distortion in DM occurs when:

AThe signal is constant
BThe signal changes faster than the fixed step size can follow
CThe sampling rate is too high
DThe quantizer has too many levels
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Granular noise in Delta Modulation occurs when the input signal is:

AChanging very rapidly
BNearly constant
CZero
DBeing companded
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Adaptive Delta Modulation (ADM) improves on standard DM by:

AIncreasing the sampling rate only
BVarying the step size according to the signal's rate of change
CRemoving quantization entirely
DUsing two-bit quantization
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1042Ch 8 · Pulse Modulation & Coding

Sigma-delta modulation achieves high resolution primarily through:

AVery high amplitude levels
BOversampling and noise shaping
CAnalog filtering only
DReducing the sampling rate
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

The Hamming distance between two codewords is:

ATheir sum
BThe number of bit positions in which they differ
CThe number of bits in each codeword
DAlways zero for valid codes
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

A single parity bit can:

ACorrect any single-bit error
BDetect (but not correct) a single-bit error
CCorrect all multi-bit errors
DDetect nothing
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

In a systematic linear block code, the codeword:

AHides the original message bits
BDirectly contains the message bits plus parity/check bits
CIs always shorter than the message
DHas no redundancy
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

A defining property of a cyclic code is that:

AEvery cyclic shift of a codeword is also a valid codeword
BIt cannot detect any errors
CIt requires no encoder
DCodewords must all be identical
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

Syndrome decoding of a linear block code is performed using the:

AGenerator matrix
BParity-check matrix
CFourier transform
DSampling theorem
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

A convolutional encoder's output at any time depends on:

AOnly the current input bit
BThe current and several previous input bits
COnly previous output bits
DNothing — it is fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

A trellis diagram in convolutional coding represents:

AThe source message directly
BThe coder's states and transitions over time in a compact repeating structure
CThe channel noise spectrum
DThe quantization levels
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

The standard maximum-likelihood decoding algorithm for convolutional codes is:

AThe Viterbi algorithm
BThe Fourier transform
CHuffman coding
DCompanding
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1042Ch 8 · Error Control Coding Techniques

Channel coding is applied primarily to:

ACompress the source data
BAdd redundancy for error detection/correction over a noisy channel
CModulate the carrier frequency
DRemove the need for a receiver
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

Serial communication, compared to parallel, is generally preferred for long distances because it:

ARequires more wires
BScales better and avoids wire-skew issues
CIs always faster per bit
DCannot be used digitally
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) separates signals by assigning each a distinct:

ATime slot
BFrequency band
CWavelength
DAmplitude level
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) is most associated with:

AAnalog radio broadcasting
BDigital systems such as PCM telephony
COptical fiber wavelength sharing
DAntenna design
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) is primarily used in:

ACopper twisted-pair cables
BHigh-capacity fiber-optic links
CAM radio
DParallel bus interfaces
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

In the OSI model, routing of packets between networks is handled by the:

APhysical layer
BData Link layer
CNetwork layer
DSession layer
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

The OSI Transport layer is primarily responsible for:

ARaw bit transmission
BEnd-to-end reliable delivery and flow control
CPhysical addressing (MAC)
DEncryption and compression
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

The Data Link layer of the OSI model is responsible for:

ALogical (IP) addressing
BFraming and physical (MAC) addressing on a single link
CSession management
DApplication-level services
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

The TCP/IP model condenses network functions into how many layers?

A3
B4
C7
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

A network topology in which every node connects to a central hub is called a:

ABus topology
BStar topology
CMesh topology
DRing topology
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1042Ch 8 · Data Communication

Layered network architecture is beneficial mainly because it:

AEliminates the need for protocols
BSimplifies design by letting each layer use services from the layer below independently
CRequires all data to travel in parallel
DRemoves the need for error checking
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

The correct order of stages in a power system is:

ADistribution → Transmission → Generation
BGeneration → Transmission → Distribution
CTransmission → Generation → Distribution
DGeneration → Distribution → Transmission
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

A thermal power plant primarily converts which form of energy to drive its turbine?

AWind kinetic energy
BHeat energy from burning fuel, via steam
CSolar radiation directly
DTidal potential energy
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Which turbine type is commonly used in hydro power plants with high head?

APelton wheel
BWind turbine blade
CGas turbine
DSteam reheater
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

A solar photovoltaic (PV) system generates electricity by:

ABurning solar-collected fuel
BDirectly converting sunlight to DC electricity via the photovoltaic effect
CDriving a steam turbine
DChemical combustion of hydrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

A fuel cell generates electricity through:

AMechanical rotation of a turbine
BAn electrochemical reaction converting chemical energy directly to DC electricity
CNuclear fission
DWind kinetic energy
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Geothermal power plants generate electricity using:

AHeat from the Earth's interior
BTidal currents
CNuclear fission
DWind kinetic energy
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Tidal power generation is most similar in operating principle to:

ASolar PV generation
BHydro power generation
CFuel cell generation
DNuclear generation
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Energy storage systems in a power grid are primarily used to:

AIncrease transmission voltage
BBalance supply and demand, especially with intermittent renewables
CReplace the need for transmission lines
DGenerate reactive power only
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Nuclear power plants generate steam using heat produced by:

AChemical combustion
BControlled nuclear fission
CSolar concentration
DGeothermal reservoirs
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Plant

Generating stations are typically located far from load centers mainly because of:

AFuel/resource availability and environmental considerations
BLower construction cost near the load only
CLegal requirements to be underground
DAvoiding the need for transmission lines
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

AC is preferred over DC for most power transmission mainly because:

AAC has lower resistance
BAC voltage can easily be stepped up/down using transformers
CDC cannot be generated economically
DAC requires no insulation
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

Kelvin's Law for economical conductor size states that the most economical size is where:

AConductor cost is minimum regardless of losses
BAnnual cost of energy loss equals annual interest and depreciation on capital cost
CCurrent density is maximum
DInsulation cost is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

ACSR conductors combine aluminium with a steel core primarily to provide:

ABetter insulation
BMechanical strength while keeping good conductivity
CLower cost only
DCorona reduction
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

Corona discharge on a transmission line occurs when:

AThe conductor is too thick
BThe surface voltage gradient of the conductor exceeds the breakdown value of surrounding air
CThe line is underground
DThe load factor is high
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

A radial distribution system is characterized by:

AHighest reliability of all schemes
BPower flowing in only one direction from a single source, least reliable
CMultiple interconnected sources
DNo feeders required
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

The load factor of a power system is defined as:

AMaximum demand / connected load
BAverage load / maximum load
CConnected load / average load
DPeak load / installed capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

Demand factor is defined as:

AAverage load / maximum load
BMaximum demand / connected load
CConnected load / maximum demand
DEnergy consumed / time
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

A load duration curve differs from a load curve in that it:

AShows load vs time chronologically
BShows the same load data rearranged in descending order of magnitude
COnly applies to renewable sources
DCannot be used to estimate energy consumed
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

Interference between power lines and nearby communication lines is primarily mitigated using:

AHigher transmission voltage
BAdequate separation/shielding and careful routing
CRemoving all insulators
DIncreasing the demand factor
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1042Ch 9 · Transmission & Distribution of Electrical Power

Power Line Carrier Communication (PLCC) uses:

AA separate fibre-optic cable
BThe power transmission line itself to carry high-frequency signals
CSatellite links only
DUnderground telephone cables exclusively
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

The primary goal of power system protection is to:

AMaximize fault current
BDetect faults quickly and isolate only the faulted section
CIncrease transmission voltage
DEliminate the need for relays
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

A fuse protects a circuit by:

AAutomatically resetting after tripping
BMelting and breaking the circuit when current exceeds a rated value
CMeasuring impedance to the fault
DSensing earth faults only
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

SF₆ circuit breakers are valued for their:

APoor dielectric strength
BExcellent arc-quenching and dielectric properties of sulphur hexafluoride gas
CUse of transformer oil
DVery low switching capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

A differential relay operates based on:

AAbsolute current magnitude only
BThe difference between currents entering and leaving a protected zone
CVoltage magnitude only
DFrequency deviation
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

A distance (impedance) relay is typically used to protect:

ATransformers
BTransmission lines
CFuses
DCapacitor banks only
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

The main purpose of earthing (grounding) equipment is to:

AIncrease system voltage
BLimit touch/step potential and provide a fault-current path
CReduce transmission losses
DEliminate the need for circuit breakers
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

Surge protection devices are designed to:

AIncrease transient overvoltages
BDivert transient overvoltages safely to ground
CReplace circuit breakers
DOperate only during normal load conditions
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

Load shedding differs from a blackout in that load shedding is:

AUncontrolled and total
BA deliberate, controlled disconnection to prevent wider collapse
COnly used during faults
DIllegal in most countries
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

SCADA systems are primarily used for:

APhysical construction of transmission towers
BRemote real-time monitoring and control of substations/field equipment
CGenerating electrical power directly
DBilling customers
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1042Ch 9 · Protection & Control of Electrical Power System

A Smart Grid is distinguished from a conventional grid mainly by its use of:

AOne-way analog communication only
BTwo-way digital communication, automation, and distributed intelligence
CManual switching only
DExclusively DC transmission
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Service mains refer to the connection between:

ATwo consumer premises
BThe utility's distribution line and the consumer's premises/meter
CGeneration and transmission
DTransmission and sub-transmission
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

The most common wiring method in modern residential buildings is:

ACleat wiring
BCasing-capping wiring
CConcealed conduit wiring
DBare open wiring
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

An electrical layout drawing for a building primarily shows:

AOnly the structural beams
BPositions of points, wiring runs, and the distribution board on the floor plan
CLoad flow analysis results
DThe generation mix of the utility
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Load estimation for a distribution board applies:

ANo correction factors
BDiversity/demand factors to the total connected load
COnly the maximum-demand tariff
DCorona correction
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Industrial motor loads typically require which type of supply for larger ratings?

ASingle-phase only
BThree-phase supply
CDC supply only
DNo electrical supply, only mechanical
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Motor starting current is typically:

ALower than full-load current
BSeveral times the full-load current
CZero
DEqual to no-load current
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

A maximum-demand tariff bills the consumer based on:

AOnly energy consumed (kWh)
BThe highest demand (kW/kVA) recorded during the billing period, plus energy used
CTime of day only
DNumber of appliances installed
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Poor power factor in an industrial load typically results in:

ALower electricity bills
BTariff penalties and increased line losses
CNo effect on the utility
DAutomatic power factor correction
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

Which of the following is an energy conservation measure in buildings?

AIncreasing incandescent lighting use
BPower factor correction and use of efficient (LED) lighting
CRemoving all protective devices
DIgnoring load scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1042Ch 9 · Residential & Industrial Electrification

A ring distribution circuit within a building is chosen mainly for:

ALower cost than radial only
BBetter load sharing and improved reliability
CSimplicity in small residential wiring
DEliminating the need for a distribution board
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

A Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR) conducts current in:

ABoth directions equally
BOne direction only, once triggered
CNeither direction
DOnly during reverse bias
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

An SCR is turned OFF (commutated) when:

AA negative gate pulse is applied
BIts current falls below the holding current
CThe supply voltage is doubled
DIt is forward-biased further
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

A diac is best described as a:

AUnidirectional, 3-terminal gated device
BBidirectional, 2-terminal, gateless breakover device
CPurely resistive element
DVoltage regulator IC
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

A triac is functionally equivalent to:

AA single SCR
BTwo SCRs connected in antiparallel with a common gate
CA diode bridge
DA simple resistor
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

Forced commutation of a thyristor is typically required in:

AAC circuits, where current naturally crosses zero
BDC circuits, where current does not naturally fall to zero
CCircuits with no load
DCircuits using only diacs
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

An SMPS achieves higher efficiency than a linear regulator mainly because:

AIt uses larger transformers
BIts switching device operates mostly in cutoff/saturation, minimizing power dissipation
CIt avoids using any semiconductor devices
DIt operates only at very low voltages
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

A buck converter is a type of DC-DC converter that:

ASteps up the output voltage
BSteps down the output voltage
CConverts DC to AC
DConverts AC to DC
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

An inverter is a power electronic device that converts:

AAC to DC
BDC to AC
CAC to AC at a different frequency only
DOne DC voltage to another DC voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

An Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) provides continuous power to a load primarily using:

AA diesel generator only
BA battery and inverter
CA step-down transformer only
DA capacitor bank alone
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1042Ch 9 · Power Electronics

Which device is commonly used to trigger a triac into conduction?

AA diac
BAn SCR
CAn op-amp
DA Zener diode alone
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

Which fault type produces the highest fault current, used to rate circuit breakers?

ALine-to-ground fault
BLine-to-line fault
CSymmetrical three-phase fault
DDouble line-to-ground fault
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

The most common type of fault occurring on a power system is:

AThree-phase fault
BLine-to-ground fault
CLine-to-line fault
DDouble line-to-ground fault
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

Unsymmetrical (unbalanced) faults are analyzed using:

APer-unit system alone
BSymmetrical component (sequence network) analysis
CLoad flow analysis only
DEqual area criterion
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

In load flow analysis, the slack (swing) bus is characterized by:

AKnown P and Q, unknown |V| and angle
BKnown |V| and angle, unknown P and Q
CKnown P and |V| only
DNo physical meaning
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

A PV bus in load flow analysis has known:

AReal power P and reactive power Q
BReal power P and voltage magnitude |V|
CVoltage angle only
DNothing is known
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

Compared to the Gauss-Seidel method, the Newton-Raphson method for load flow offers:

ASlower, linear convergence
BFaster, quadratic convergence, preferred for large systems
CNo convergence at all
DConvergence only for small systems
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

Transient stability of a power system refers to its ability to:

ARemain synchronized under slow, small load changes
BRemain synchronized following a large, sudden disturbance
COperate at unity power factor always
DAvoid all faults permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

The equal area criterion is used to assess:

ALoad flow convergence
BTransient stability of a single-machine system graphically
CFault current magnitude
DTariff structures
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

The swing equation describes:

AVoltage regulation of a transformer
BThe rotor angle dynamics of a synchronous machine following a disturbance
CThe load duration curve
DThe economic choice of conductor size
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1042Ch 9 · Power System Analysis

Dynamic stability studies specifically account for the effect of:

AConductor material
BControl systems such as governors and AVRs over a longer time period
CCorona discharge
DTariff rate structures
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Fourier Transform is used to:

AConvert a signal from the time domain to the frequency domain
BConvert a signal from the frequency domain to the time domain
CCompress digital signals
DEncrypt data transmissions
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

When a square wave is applied to an integrator op-amp circuit, the output is:

ASquare wave
BSine wave
CTriangle wave
DSawtooth wave
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

The Z-transform is primarily used for:

AAnalysing continuous-time signals
BAnalysing discrete-time signals and systems
CImage compression
DFrequency modulation
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Interleaving in digital communications provides what type of diversity?

ATime diversity
BFrequency diversity
CSpace diversity
DPolarization diversity
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In FDM, increasing the modulation index results in:

ADecreased bandwidth requirements
BIncreased bandwidth requirements
CNo change in bandwidth
DIncreased signal-to-noise ratio without bandwidth change
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

Adding zeros to the end of a discrete signal before taking its DFT is called:

AZero Padding
BWindowing
CDecimation
DInterpolation
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In TDM (Time Division Multiplexing), the component essential for recovering individual channels at the receiver is:

AEqualizer
BFrame synchronization
CBandwidth filter
DDemodulator
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1042Ch 9 · Information Theory & Signals

In a common-collector (emitter follower) BJT amplifier, the phase relationship between input and output is:

A180 degrees (inverted)
B90 degrees
C0 degrees (in phase)
D45 degrees
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1042Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1042Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1042Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden