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Chemical Engineering

10 Chapters·1100 Total MCQs
Question 1 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

The order of a reaction:

AIs determined experimentally and may be fractional or negative
BCan be deduced from the stoichiometric equation alone
CIs always equal to the molecularity
DMust be a positive integer
Answer is hidden
Question 2 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

Molecularity of a reaction step:

AMay be zero or fractional
BIs the number of molecules taking part in a single elementary step and is a small positive integer
CIs determined from the rate law
DApplies to the overall non-elementary reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 3 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

The rate constant of a reaction has units of s to the minus one. The reaction is:

AZero order
BSecond order
CThird order
DFirst order
Answer is hidden
Question 4 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

The half-life of a first-order reaction:

AIs inversely proportional to the initial concentration
BIs independent of the initial concentration
CDepends on the reactor volume
DIs proportional to the initial concentration
Answer is hidden
Question 5 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

A plot of the natural logarithm of concentration against time gives a straight line. The reaction is:

AFirst order
BOf fractional order
CZero order
DSecond order
Answer is hidden
Question 6 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

In the Arrhenius equation, a plot of ln k against the reciprocal of absolute temperature has a slope of:

AMinus R divided by the activation energy
BThe pre-exponential factor
CPlus the activation energy divided by R
DMinus the activation energy divided by R
Answer is hidden
Question 7 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

A reaction with a high activation energy will be:

AAlways first order
BAlways exothermic
CStrongly sensitive to temperature
DInsensitive to temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 8 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

The difference between the activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions equals the:

AGibbs free energy change
BEquilibrium constant
CEnthalpy change of the reaction
DEntropy change
Answer is hidden
Question 9 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

A catalyst increases the rate of a reversible reaction by:

AShifting the equilibrium towards the products
BIncreasing the equilibrium constant
CRaising the temperature of the mixture
DProviding an alternative pathway of lower activation energy
Answer is hidden
Question 10 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

For the reaction 2A + B gives 3C, the relationship between the rates is:

ARates cannot be related
BThe rate of A equals twice the rate of C
CThe rate of consumption of A divided by 2 equals the rate of consumption of B divided by 1
DAll species react at the same rate
Answer is hidden
Question 11 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

Raising the pressure on a gas-phase equilibrium shifts it towards:

AThe endothermic side
BThe side with more moles of gas
CThe side with fewer moles of gas
DNeither side
Answer is hidden
Question 12 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

For an exothermic reversible reaction, raising the temperature will:

AMake the reaction irreversible
BLeave K unchanged
CDecrease the equilibrium constant
DIncrease the equilibrium constant
Answer is hidden
Question 13 of 1100Ch 1 · Overview of Chemical Engineering and Reaction Kinetics

Adding an inert gas to a gas-phase equilibrium at constant volume will:

AShift it towards the products
BDouble the rate
CHave no effect on the equilibrium position
DShift it towards the reactants
Answer is hidden
Question 14 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

The volume occupied by one kilomole of an ideal gas at 0 degrees Celsius and 1 atmosphere is:

A22.414 cubic metres
B24.45 cubic metres
C1 cubic metre
D22.414 litres
Answer is hidden
Question 15 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

A compressibility factor of 0.7 for a gas indicates that:

AIntermolecular attractive forces dominate, so the gas is more compressible than ideal
BThe gas behaves ideally
CThe gas has condensed
DMolecular volume dominates
Answer is hidden
Question 16 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

The generalised compressibility chart is useful because Z is approximately the same for all gases at the same:

AAbsolute temperature and pressure
BMolecular weight
CCritical volume
DReduced temperature and reduced pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 17 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

In the van der Waals equation, the constant b corrects for:

AIntermolecular attraction
BThe temperature dependence of pressure
CDeviations at the critical point only
DThe finite volume occupied by the molecules
Answer is hidden
Question 18 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

For a system of one component existing as two phases in equilibrium, the number of degrees of freedom is:

A1
B2
C0
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 19 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

At the triple point of a pure substance, the number of degrees of freedom is:

A2
B0
C3
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 20 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

Above its critical temperature, a gas:

AHas zero compressibility
BLiquefies more easily
CBecomes an ideal gas
DCannot be liquefied by the application of pressure alone
Answer is hidden
Question 21 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

Raoult's law states that the partial pressure of a component above an ideal solution equals:

AHenry's constant times its mole fraction
BThe total pressure divided by the number of components
CIts mole fraction in the vapour times the total pressure
DIts mole fraction in the liquid times its pure-component vapour pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 22 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

Relative volatility of two components in a mixture equals one. This means that:

AThey separate very easily
BThe mixture is ideal
COne component is non-volatile
DThey cannot be separated by ordinary distillation
Answer is hidden
Question 23 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

An azeotropic mixture is one in which:

AOne component is present in trace amount
BThe components are completely immiscible
CThe vapour and the liquid have the same composition
DThe boiling point is always the highest of the components
Answer is hidden
Question 24 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

Henry's law is most applicable to:

AA concentrated solution of two similar liquids
BA pure component
CA sparingly soluble gas dissolved in a liquid at low concentration
DA solid-solid mixture
Answer is hidden
Question 25 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

On a temperature-composition diagram at constant pressure, the upper curve represents the:

ACritical locus
BBubble point line
CTie line
DDew point (saturated vapour) line
Answer is hidden
Question 26 of 1100Ch 1 · Ideal and Real Gases and Multiphase Equilibrium

The Clausius-Clapeyron equation shows that a plot of the logarithm of vapour pressure against the reciprocal of absolute temperature is:

AIndependent of latent heat
BA parabola
CA straight line with slope proportional to minus the latent heat of vaporisation
DA horizontal line
Answer is hidden
Question 27 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

The general material balance equation is:

AInput minus output plus generation minus consumption equals accumulation
BGeneration equals consumption always
CInput plus output equals accumulation
DInput equals output under all circumstances
Answer is hidden
Question 28 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

Which balance is always valid even when a chemical reaction occurs?

AVolume balance
BTotal mole balance
CBalance on a single reacting species without a generation term
DTotal mass balance
Answer is hidden
Question 29 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

Element balances are often preferred for combustion calculations because:

AThey require fewer measurements
BElements are easier to measure than compounds
CAtoms are neither generated nor consumed, so no generation term is needed
DThey apply only at steady state
Answer is hidden
Question 30 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

The limiting reactant in a reaction is the one that:

AIs present in the largest amount
BHas the highest molecular weight
CIs fed last
DWould be completely consumed first and so fixes the maximum extent of reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 31 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

Percentage excess air in a combustion calculation is based on:

AThe air remaining in the flue gas
BThe actual air supplied
CThe oxygen consumed
DThe theoretical air required for complete combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 32 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

In combustion calculations, the number of moles of nitrogen accompanying each mole of oxygen from air is:

A0.79
B4.76
C3.76
D0.21
Answer is hidden
Question 33 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

An Orsat analysis of flue gas reports the composition on:

AA dry basis, with water removed
BA wet basis
CA volume basis including water vapour
DA mass basis
Answer is hidden
Question 34 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

Nitrogen is commonly used as a tie component in combustion balances because it:

ACondenses out with the water
BHas the lowest molecular weight
CReacts completely with the fuel
DPasses through the process unchanged and appears in only one input stream
Answer is hidden
Question 35 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

In a process with recycle, the overall conversion is:

AIndependent of the recycle ratio
BEqual to the single-pass conversion
CAlways less than the single-pass conversion
DAlways greater than the single-pass conversion
Answer is hidden
Question 36 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

When writing an overall balance around a process containing a recycle loop:

ANo balance can be written
BThe recycle stream must be counted twice
CThe recycle stream is treated as an output
DThe recycle stream does not appear at all
Answer is hidden
Question 37 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

A purge stream is required in a recycle loop in order to:

AIncrease the recycle ratio
BPrevent the accumulation of inerts or impurities
CImprove the single-pass conversion
DCool the reactor
Answer is hidden
Question 38 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

At steady state in a recycle loop with a purge, the rate at which inert enters in the fresh feed equals the rate at which it:

ACondenses in the separator
BLeaves in the purge stream
CIs consumed in the reactor
DAccumulates in the recycle
Answer is hidden
Question 39 of 1100Ch 1 · Material Balances

A degrees of freedom analysis gives a value of plus two for a flowsheet. This means the problem is:

AUnderspecified, and two more independent pieces of information are needed
BImpossible
COverspecified
DExactly determined
Answer is hidden
Question 40 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

For a steady-flow process with no shaft work and negligible kinetic and potential energy changes, the energy balance reduces to:

AQ equals the change in enthalpy
BW equals the change in enthalpy
CQ equals the change in internal energy
DQ equals zero
Answer is hidden
Question 41 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

Which of the following is a path function rather than a state function?

AInternal energy
BWork
CEntropy
DEnthalpy
Answer is hidden
Question 42 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

The standard heat of formation of oxygen gas at 25 degrees Celsius is:

AEqual to its heat of combustion
BAlways negative
CZero by definition
DEqual to 285.8 kJ per mole
Answer is hidden
Question 43 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

The standard heat of reaction is calculated from formation enthalpies as:

AThe average of products and reactants
BProducts minus reactants
CThe sum of all species
DReactants minus products
Answer is hidden
Question 44 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

An exothermic reaction is characterised by:

AZero enthalpy change
BA positive enthalpy change
CA positive entropy change only
DA negative enthalpy change
Answer is hidden
Question 45 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

The gross calorific value of a fuel differs from the net value by:

AThe excess air requirement
BThe latent heat of the water formed in combustion
CThe sensible heat of the flue gas
DThe heat lost to the surroundings
Answer is hidden
Question 46 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

Hess's law allows the heat of a reaction to be calculated because enthalpy change is:

AProportional to the activation energy
BAlways measured directly
CIndependent of the path taken
DDependent on the reaction rate
Answer is hidden
Question 47 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

Kirchhoff's equation is used to:

AConvert between gross and net calorific value
BCorrect a heat of reaction from one temperature to another
CCalculate the activation energy
DDetermine the equilibrium constant
Answer is hidden
Question 48 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

The adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is reduced by:

AComplete combustion
BUsing the stoichiometric quantity of air
CPerfect insulation of the furnace
DSupplying excess air
Answer is hidden
Question 49 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

In a reactor energy balance using the heat of reaction method, the hypothetical path taken is:

AAssume all streams are at the same temperature
BCool reactants to 25 C, react at 25 C, then heat products to the outlet temperature
CReact at the inlet temperature only
DHeat the reactants to the flame temperature first
Answer is hidden
Question 50 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

For an ideal gas, the relationship between the two heat capacities is:

ACp minus Cv equals R
BCp divided by Cv equals R
CCp plus Cv equals R
DCp equals Cv
Answer is hidden
Question 51 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

The latent heat of vaporisation of water at 100 degrees Celsius is approximately:

A2,257 kJ/kg
B334 kJ/kg
C100 kJ/kg
D4.18 kJ/kg
Answer is hidden
Question 52 of 1100Ch 1 · Energy Balances

In solving a combined material and energy balance problem, the correct order is to:

AComplete the material balance first, then the energy balance
BIgnore the material balance if temperatures are known
CSolve both simultaneously in all cases
DComplete the energy balance first
Answer is hidden
Question 53 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

The distinction between a unit operation and a unit process is that a unit process involves:

AOnly a physical change
BNo change in composition
CA chemical change in the material
DOnly heat transfer
Answer is hidden
Question 54 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

In industrial nitration using mixed acid, the function of the sulphuric acid is to:

AProvide the nitro group
BAct as a solvent only
CReduce the reaction temperature
DGenerate the nitronium ion and absorb the water formed
Answer is hidden
Question 55 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

The greatest hazard associated with industrial nitration is:

AFormation of inert by-products
BCorrosion of the vessel only
CSlow reaction rate
DThermal runaway leading to explosion
Answer is hidden
Question 56 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

The catalyst used in the contact process for the vapour-phase oxidation of sulphur dioxide is:

ARaney nickel
BVanadium pentoxide
CPlatinum-rhodium gauze
DFerric chloride
Answer is hidden
Question 57 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

Ethylene dichloride is an important industrial chemical chiefly because it is the route to:

AEthanol
BAcetic acid
CAmmonia
DVinyl chloride monomer for PVC
Answer is hidden
Question 58 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

Industrial hydrogenation of vegetable oils is carried out principally in order to:

ARemove all fatty acids
BReduce the calorific value
CConvert the oil into glycerol
DRaise the melting point and increase resistance to oxidative rancidity
Answer is hidden
Question 59 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

The catalyst normally used in the hydrogenation of edible oils is:

AFinely divided nickel
BVanadium pentoxide
CAluminium chloride
DSulphuric acid
Answer is hidden
Question 60 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

The progress of oil hydrogenation is commonly monitored by measuring the:

AIodine value
BSaponification number only
CAsh content
DAcid value
Answer is hidden
Question 61 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

A recognised health concern arising from the partial hydrogenation of oils is the formation of:

ATrans fatty acids
BNickel carbonyl in the product
CFree glycerol
DExcess vitamin A
Answer is hidden
Question 62 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

Saponification is the:

AOxidation of fatty acids
BHydrogenation of oils
CPolymerisation of glycerol
DAlkaline hydrolysis of fats to give soap and glycerol
Answer is hidden
Question 63 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

In the enzymatic hydrolysis of starch to dextrose, the enzyme used for the initial liquefaction step is:

ALipase
BGlucoamylase
CGlucose isomerase
DAlpha-amylase
Answer is hidden
Question 64 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

Which type of polymerization eliminates a small molecule such as water during the reaction?

AFree-radical polymerization of ethylene
BCondensation (step-growth)
CAddition (chain-growth)
DCoordination polymerization
Answer is hidden
Question 65 of 1100Ch 1 · Unit Processes

Which method of polymerization gives excellent heat control and a granular product that is easily separated, and is the standard route for PVC?

ASolution polymerization
BSuspension polymerization
CEmulsion polymerization
DBulk polymerization
Answer is hidden
Question 66 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

Unsteady-state behaviour of a well-mixed stirred tank is described mathematically by:

AAn algebraic equation
BAn integral equation
CA partial differential equation in two space dimensions
DAn ordinary differential equation in time
Answer is hidden
Question 67 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

Partial differential equations arise in process modelling when:

AThe system is linear
BOnly algebraic relations are involved
CThe process is at steady state and well mixed
DA property varies with more than one independent variable
Answer is hidden
Question 68 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

An empirical or black box model is characterised by the fact that it:

ARequires no data
BAlways gives exact answers
CIs fitted to data with no physical basis and is unsafe to extrapolate
DIs derived from conservation laws
Answer is hidden
Question 69 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

A lumped parameter model assumes that:

AProperties vary continuously with position
BProperties are uniform throughout the system
CNo reaction occurs
DThe system is always at steady state
Answer is hidden
Question 70 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

Which numerical method is the standard workhorse for solving initial value ordinary differential equations?

AGaussian elimination
BFinite element analysis
CThe shooting method
DFourth-order Runge-Kutta
Answer is hidden
Question 71 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

The Newton-Raphson method is used to solve:

AOptimisation problems only
BPartial differential equations
CLinear simultaneous equations
DNon-linear algebraic equations
Answer is hidden
Question 72 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

A stiff system of differential equations is one in which:

AThe equations are linear
BAll variables change at the same rate
CThere are no derivatives
DThe time constants differ by orders of magnitude
Answer is hidden
Question 73 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

Verification of a process model asks whether:

AThe plant data are accurate
BThe economics are favourable
CThe equations are being solved correctly
DThe right equations have been chosen
Answer is hidden
Question 74 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

In the sequential modular approach to flowsheet simulation:

ANo iteration is ever needed
BEach unit is solved in turn and recycle loops are converged by iterating on tear streams
COnly steady-state problems can be handled
DAll equations of the flowsheet are solved simultaneously
Answer is hidden
Question 75 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

The equation-oriented approach to simulation is particularly advantageous for:

AVery small single-unit problems
BAvoiding the need for physical property data
CEliminating the need for initial guesses
DOptimisation and flowsheets with many recycle loops
Answer is hidden
Question 76 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

A steady-state material balance on a flowsheet without reaction gives rise to:

AA stiff differential system
BA partial differential equation
CAn integral equation
DA set of linear algebraic equations
Answer is hidden
Question 77 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

The principal reason for using simulation rather than experimenting on the plant is that simulation:

AAllows alternatives to be evaluated at far lower cost and risk
BRemoves the need for validation
CIs always more accurate than measurement
DRequires no physical property data
Answer is hidden
Question 78 of 1100Ch 1 · Introduction to Modeling and Simulation

A model in which random variation is deliberately included, as in residence time distribution analysis, is described as:

ALumped parameter
BDeterministic
CStochastic
DSteady state
Answer is hidden
Question 79 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

A reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous at a given temperature and pressure when:

AThe activation energy is zero
BThe entropy change is negative
CThe enthalpy change is negative only
DThe Gibbs free energy change is negative
Answer is hidden
Question 80 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

A reaction that is exothermic and accompanied by an increase in entropy is:

ASpontaneous only at high temperature
BSpontaneous at all temperatures
CNever spontaneous
DSpontaneous only at low temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 81 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

The relationship between the standard Gibbs energy change and the equilibrium constant is:

ADelta G standard equals minus RT ln K
BDelta G standard equals K divided by RT
CDelta G standard equals RT ln K
DDelta G standard equals minus RT K
Answer is hidden
Question 82 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

In the equilibrium expression for the decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide, K equals:

AThe ratio of the amounts of the two solids
BThe partial pressure of carbon dioxide alone
CThe product of all three activities
DThe total pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 83 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

The equilibrium constant of a reaction depends on:

ATemperature and pressure
BThe catalyst used
CTemperature only
DPressure and the amount of inert present
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

According to the van 't Hoff equation, raising the temperature of an exothermic reversible reaction will:

AIncrease the equilibrium constant
BMake the reaction irreversible
CLeave it unchanged
DDecrease the equilibrium constant
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

Increasing the total pressure on the gas-phase reaction N2 + 3H2 giving 2NH3 will:

AIncrease the equilibrium conversion because there are fewer moles on the product side
BHave no effect
CChange the equilibrium constant
DDecrease the conversion
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

Adding an inert gas at constant total pressure to a gas-phase equilibrium with delta n positive will:

AHave no effect at all
BShift it towards the reactants
CIncrease the equilibrium constant
DShift the equilibrium towards the products
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

A catalyst added to a reversible reaction at equilibrium will:

AIncrease the equilibrium constant
BIncrease the yield of products
CHave no effect on the equilibrium composition
DMake an infeasible reaction feasible
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

The criterion for phase equilibrium of a species distributed between two phases is equality of its:

AChemical potential, or equivalently its fugacity, in both phases
BMole fraction in both phases
CMass in both phases
DPartial pressure and total pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

Absolute entropies of substances can be tabulated because:

AEntropy is a path function
BEntropy is measured relative to water
CEntropy changes are always positive
DThe third law fixes the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero as zero
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

The fact that diamond does not convert to graphite at room temperature despite a negative Gibbs energy change illustrates that:

AThermodynamic feasibility does not guarantee an observable rate
BDiamond is more stable thermodynamically
CEntropy always decreases
DThe Gibbs energy calculation is wrong
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1100Ch 2 · Chemical Reaction Equilibria and Kinetics

Continuously removing a product from a reacting mixture, as in reactive distillation, allows:

AConversion beyond the normal equilibrium limit
BThe reaction to become exothermic
CThe catalyst to be regenerated
DThe equilibrium constant to be increased
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

For a throttling process through a valve, the property that remains constant is:

AEnthalpy
BEntropy
CTemperature
DInternal energy
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

The first law of thermodynamics establishes:

AThe direction of spontaneous change
BThat entropy always increases
CInternal energy as a property and the conservation of energy
DThe impossibility of a perpetual motion machine of the second kind
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

For a reversible adiabatic process in an ideal gas:

APV is constant
BP over V is constant
CPV to the power gamma is constant
DT is constant
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

The Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law asserts that no cyclic device can:

AOperate reversibly
BTransfer heat from a cold body to a hot body
CConvert all the heat received from a single reservoir entirely into work
DHave an efficiency above 50 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

A Carnot engine operates between 600 K and 300 K. Its maximum possible efficiency is:

A100 %
B75 %
C50 %
D25 %
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

According to the Carnot principles, the efficiency of a reversible engine depends on:

AThe working fluid used
BThe rate of heat transfer
CThe size of the engine
DThe temperatures of the two reservoirs only
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

Entropy generation in a process is:

AEqual to the heat transferred
BAlways zero
CZero for a reversible process and positive for any real process
DNegative for a spontaneous process
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

Wet steam at a given pressure has a dryness fraction of 0.8. Its enthalpy is found from:

Ahf plus 0.8 times hfg
B0.8 times hg
C0.8 times hf
Dhg minus 0.8 hf
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

The isentropic efficiency of a compressor is defined as:

AHeat rejected divided by work input
BIsentropic work divided by actual work
CWork output divided by heat input
DActual work divided by isentropic work
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

The work required to compress a gas is least when the compression is:

AIsothermal
BIsochoric
CAdiabatic
DPolytropic with n greater than gamma
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

For minimum total work in a two-stage compressor with perfect intercooling, the intermediate pressure should equal:

AThe geometric mean of the suction and delivery pressures
BHalf the delivery pressure
CThe suction pressure
DThe arithmetic mean of the two pressures
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

Intercooling between the stages of an air compressor is used chiefly to:

AIncrease the pressure ratio per stage
BIncrease the clearance volume
CRaise the air temperature for downstream use
DReduce the work of compression and limit the discharge temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1100Ch 2 · Laws of Thermodynamics

The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor decreases when:

AThe intercooler is improved
BThe suction temperature falls
CThe compressor runs more slowly
DThe clearance ratio or the pressure ratio increases
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

Maxwell relations are useful in thermodynamics because they:

AApply only to ideal gases
BEliminate the need for equations of state
CGive the equilibrium constant directly
DExpress entropy derivatives in terms of measurable PVT derivatives
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

A residual property is defined as the difference between the real value and the:

AValue at absolute zero
BSaturated liquid value
CIdeal gas value at the same temperature and pressure
DValue at the critical point
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

The Joule-Thomson coefficient of an ideal gas is:

AEqual to the heat capacity
BAlways positive
CZero
DAlways negative
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

Hydrogen and helium warm rather than cool when throttled at room temperature because:

AThey are monatomic
BThey are ideal gases
CTheir inversion temperatures are below ambient
DThey have very high critical pressures
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

At the critical point of a pure substance, the critical isotherm on a P-V diagram has:

AA point of inflection with both first and second derivatives of P with respect to V equal to zero
BA vertical tangent
CA sharp maximum
DA discontinuity
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

The chemical potential of a species is identical to its:

AMolar entropy
BPartial molar volume
CPartial molar Gibbs free energy
DPartial molar enthalpy
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

The Gibbs-Duhem equation is used in practice to:

ATest the thermodynamic consistency of experimental vapour-liquid equilibrium data
BDetermine the heat of reaction
CCalculate the critical temperature
DSize a distillation column
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

For an ideal solution, the enthalpy change on mixing is:

AAlways negative
BEqual to the entropy of mixing
CZero
DAlways positive
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

The fugacity coefficient of a gas approaches unity as:

AThe volume approaches zero
BThe pressure approaches the critical pressure
CThe temperature approaches zero
DThe pressure approaches zero
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

Which activity coefficient model is used to predict behaviour from group contributions when no experimental data are available?

Avan Laar
BMargules
CUNIFAC
DRedlich-Kwong
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

Superheating the steam entering a turbine in a Rankine cycle:

AHas no thermodynamic effect
BLowers the efficiency
CIncreases the condenser pressure
DRaises the efficiency and reduces erosion of the blades by wet steam
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

A combined cycle power plant achieves high efficiency by:

AUsing a Carnot cycle directly
BUsing the exhaust heat of a gas turbine to raise steam for a bottoming Rankine cycle
COperating the gas turbine at very low pressure
DEliminating the condenser
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1100Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Properties of Fluids

Trouton's rule states that for many liquids the ratio of the latent heat of vaporisation to the normal boiling point is about:

A2257 kJ per kg
B4.18 kJ per kg per kelvin
C8.314 J per mol per kelvin
D88 J per mol per kelvin
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

For a reaction of positive order, the reactor volume required for a given conversion is:

AThe same for both
BSmaller for a CSTR than for a plug flow reactor
CSmaller for a plug flow reactor than for a CSTR
DIndependent of the reactor type
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

The design equation for a continuous stirred tank reactor is:

AV equals FA0 times the integral of dX over the rate
BV equals the feed rate times the rate
CV equals FA0 X divided by the rate evaluated at exit conditions
Dt equals NA0 times the integral of dX over rV
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

A series of equal-sized CSTRs behaves increasingly like a plug flow reactor as:

AThe number of tanks decreases
BThe temperature falls
CThe feed rate increases
DThe number of tanks increases
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

In a series reaction A giving B giving C where B is the desired product:

AThere is an optimum reaction time beyond which the yield of B falls
BA CSTR always gives the highest yield of B
CTemperature has no effect
DYield of B increases indefinitely with time
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

For two parallel reactions in which the desired product is formed by the higher-order reaction, selectivity is improved by:

AUsing a CSTR with a dilute feed
BKeeping the reactant concentration low
CKeeping the reactant concentration high
DAdding the reactant slowly
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

The residence time distribution of a reactor is measured experimentally by:

AWeighing the catalyst
BMeasuring the pressure drop
CInjecting a tracer as a pulse or a step and monitoring the outlet
DMeasuring the reaction rate constant
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

The variance of the residence time distribution of an ideal plug flow reactor is:

AInfinite
BZero
CEqual to the mean residence time
DEqual to the square of the mean residence time
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

Multiple steady states can occur in a CSTR carrying out an exothermic reaction because:

AThe reaction order changes with temperature
BThe S-shaped heat generation curve can intersect the straight heat removal line at three points
CEntropy is not conserved
DThe feed rate fluctuates
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

In a heterogeneous catalytic reaction, which sequence of steps is correct? out

ASurface reaction, adsorption, desorption, diffusion
BPore diffusion, desorption, surface reaction, adsorption
CFilm diffusion, pore diffusion, adsorption, surface reaction, desorption, pore diffusion out, film diffusion
DAdsorption, film diffusion, surface reaction, desorption
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

Chemisorption differs from physisorption in that chemisorption:

AHas a very small heat of adsorption
BInvolves a chemical bond, is monolayer and has a large heat of adsorption
CInvolves only van der Waals forces
DIs multilayer and easily reversible
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

An effectiveness factor close to unity for a catalyst pellet indicates that:

AThe pellet is too large
BPore diffusion is not limiting and the whole interior is being used
CThe catalyst is deactivated
DThe reaction is strongly diffusion limited
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

Under strong pore diffusion control, the apparent activation energy of a catalytic reaction is:

AEqual to the true activation energy
BAbout twice the true value
CAbout half the true activation energy
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1100Ch 2 · Theories of Reaction Rates and Reactor Design

Loss of catalyst activity caused by the thermal growth of crystallites and loss of surface area is called:

ASintering
BAttrition
CCoking
DPoisoning
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

For an ideal gas, the difference between the heat capacities at constant pressure and constant volume is:

AThe gas constant R
BEqual to the molecular weight
CZero
DEqual to gamma
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

The ratio of heat capacities for a diatomic ideal gas is approximately:

A2.00
B1.00
C1.40
D1.67
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

A mean heat capacity quoted for the range 25 to 200 degrees Celsius:

AIs the same as the value at 25 degrees
BApplies only to liquids
CMay be used only over that same temperature interval
DMay be used for any temperature range
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Hess's law of constant heat summation follows directly from the fact that enthalpy is:

AIndependent of temperature
BA path function
CA state function
DAlways negative
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Kirchhoff's law relates the heat of reaction at two temperatures through the:

AActivation energy
BDifference in entropy
CEquilibrium constant
DDifference between the heat capacities of products and reactants
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

The heat of solution of a substance must always be quoted together with:

AThe quantity of solvent, or the final concentration
BThe rate of stirring
CThe molecular weight
DThe pressure only
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water produces a marked cooling effect because the dissolution is:

AAdiabatic
BEndothermic
CExothermic
DIsothermal by definition
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Concentrated sulphuric acid should always be added to water rather than water to acid because:

AWater is denser than acid
BThe acid would be neutralised
CThe reaction is endothermic
DThe heat of dilution is very large and can cause violent local boiling
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

The heat of mixing of two liquids forming an ideal solution is:

AAlways negative
BAlways positive
CZero
DEqual to the latent heat
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Pressure has only a small effect on the heat of reaction for gas-phase reactions because:

APressure changes cancel out
BEnthalpy is not a state function
CThe enthalpy of an ideal gas is independent of pressure
DReactions are always carried out at one atmosphere
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

A bomb calorimeter measures the heat of combustion at constant:

AVolume, giving the change in internal energy
BTemperature and pressure
CEntropy
DPressure, giving the change in enthalpy
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

If a combustion reaction produces a decrease of two moles of gas, the relationship between the enthalpy and internal energy changes is:

ADelta H equals delta U plus 2RT
BDelta H equals delta U minus 2RT
CDelta H equals 2 delta U
DDelta H equals delta U
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1100Ch 2 · Heat of Reaction and Thermochemistry

Kopp's rule is used to estimate the:

AHeat of reaction from formation enthalpies
BLatent heat of vaporisation
CEquilibrium constant
DHeat capacity of a solid compound from atomic contributions
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

The coefficient of performance of a heat pump exceeds that of a refrigerator operating between the same temperatures by:

AExactly one
BA factor of two
CThe Carnot efficiency
DNothing; they are equal
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

The Carnot coefficient of performance of a refrigerator operating between 250 K and 300 K is:

A5
B1.2
C6
D0.2
Answer is hidden
Question 146 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the expansion device is:

AA turbine operating isentropically
BA throttling valve operating at constant enthalpy
CA second compressor
DA pump
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

The pressure-enthalpy diagram is preferred for analysing refrigeration cycles because:

AIt eliminates the need for property tables
BThree of the four processes appear as straight lines
CIt shows entropy directly
DIt applies only to ideal gases
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

Subcooling the liquid refrigerant leaving the condenser:

AIncreases the compressor work
BHas no effect on the COP
CDecreases the refrigerating effect
DIncreases the refrigerating effect without increasing the compressor work
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

One tonne of refrigeration is equal to:

A1 kW
B100 kW
C12 kW
D3.517 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

Chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants were phased out under the Montreal Protocol because they:

AAre flammable
BHave a low latent heat
CRelease chlorine that depletes stratospheric ozone
DHave a high global warming potential only
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

Ammonia remains the preferred refrigerant in large industrial plants despite its toxicity because it has:

ANo toxicity at any concentration
BCompatibility with copper piping
CA very high latent heat of vaporisation with zero ozone depletion and global warming potential
DA very low latent heat
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

In an absorption refrigeration system, the component that replaces the compressor of a vapour compression system is the:

ACondenser
BExpansion valve
CEvaporator
DAbsorber and generator combination with a solution pump
Answer is hidden
Question 153 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

A lithium bromide-water absorption system cannot produce temperatures below 0 degrees Celsius because:

AWater is the refrigerant and would freeze
BThe pump cannot develop sufficient pressure
CThe generator temperature is too low
DLithium bromide decomposes
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

The coefficient of performance of a single-effect absorption chiller is typically about:

A0.5 to 0.8
B3 to 5
C10
D0.05
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

Adsorption refrigeration systems require two adsorbent beds because:

AOne bed acts as a condenser
BIt doubles the coefficient of performance
CThe refrigerant must be purified
DAdsorption and regeneration cannot occur simultaneously in one bed
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1100Ch 2 · Refrigeration and Liquefaction

In the Claude liquefaction process, the improvement over the Linde process is that:

ANo heat exchanger is needed
BThe compressor is eliminated
CThrottling is avoided entirely
DPart of the gas is expanded in an engine producing external work, giving greater cooling
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

A fluid is defined as a substance that

Ahas a definite shape and volume at all temperatures
Boffers no resistance whatsoever to deformation
Ccannot be compressed under any circumstances
Ddeforms continuously under the action of any shear stress, however small
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

An ideal fluid is one which is

Ahighly viscous but incompressible
Bcompressible but frictionless in pipes only
Cinviscid and incompressible
DNewtonian at all shear rates but viscous
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

The SI unit of dynamic viscosity is

Asquare metre per second
Bnewton per metre
Cpascal second
Dkilogram per cubic metre
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

One poise is equal to

A10 pascal second
B0.1 pascal second
C0.001 pascal second
D1 pascal second
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of a liquid and that of a gas respectively

Aincreases and increases
Bincreases and decreases
Cdecreases and increases
Ddecreases and decreases
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

A fluid whose apparent viscosity decreases with increasing shear rate is called

Apseudoplastic
Brheopectic
Cdilatant
DBingham plastic
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

Toothpaste and drilling mud, which do not flow until a certain minimum shear stress is exceeded, are examples of

ABingham plastics
Bthixotropic fluids only
Cdilatant fluids
Dideal fluids
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

A fluid whose apparent viscosity decreases with time at a constant rate of shear is

Apseudoplastic
Brheopectic
Cdilatant
Dthixotropic
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

Kinematic viscosity is defined as

Adynamic viscosity multiplied by density
Bdynamic viscosity divided by density
Cdensity divided by dynamic viscosity
Dshear stress divided by shear rate
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of radius R and surface tension sigma is

A2σ/R
B4σ/R
Cσ/R
Dσ/2R
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

Capillary rise in a small vertical tube is

Aindependent of the tube radius
Bproportional to the square of the tube radius
Cinversely proportional to the tube radius
Ddirectly proportional to the tube radius
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

Pascal's law states that the pressure at a point in a fluid at rest

Ais the same in all directions
Bdepends on the shape of the containing vessel
Cincreases in the direction of flow
Dis greatest in the horizontal direction
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1100Ch 3 · Classification of Fluids and Fluid Properties

For a U-tube manometer with manometric fluid of density rho-m, process fluid of density rho and reading R, the pressure difference is

ARg(ρm + ρ)
BRgρm
CRgρ
DRg(ρm − ρ)
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The centre of pressure on a plane surface submerged in a liquid always lies

Aabove the centroid of the surface
Bexactly at the centroid of the surface
Cbelow the centroid of the surface
Dat the top edge of the surface
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

A floating body is in stable equilibrium when

Athe metacentre lies above the centre of gravity
Bthe metacentre lies below the centre of gravity
Cthe centre of buoyancy coincides with the centre of gravity
Dthe metacentric height is zero
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In steady flow, streamlines, pathlines and streaklines are

Aidentical only in turbulent flow
Bdifferent in every case
Cidentical to one another
Dalways mutually perpendicular
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

For laminar flow in a circular pipe, the ratio of maximum to average velocity is

A1.5
B2.0
C1.22
D1.0
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

According to the Hagen-Poiseuille equation, for a fixed pressure drop the volumetric flow rate through a pipe varies as

Athe square of the diameter
Bthe square root of the diameter
Cthe diameter
Dthe fourth power of the diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The velocity potential function exists only when the flow is

Arotational
Bturbulent
Ccompressible
Dirrotational
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The stream function is defined for

Athree-dimensional flow only
Btwo-dimensional incompressible flow, rotational or irrotational
Cirrotational flow only
Dcompressible flow only
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Boundary layer separation occurs because of

Aa favourable pressure gradient
Ban increase in fluid viscosity downstream
Can adverse pressure gradient along the flow direction
Dthe no-slip condition alone
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Bernoulli's equation in its classical form is NOT applicable when

Athe flow is along a single streamline
Bthe flow is steady and incompressible
Cthe fluid is viscous and friction losses are significant
Dthe fluid density is constant
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

The kinetic energy correction factor for fully developed laminar flow in a pipe is

A0.5
B2.0
C1.0
D1.06
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

Compressibility effects may normally be neglected when the Mach number is below about

A0.3
B1.0
C0.8
D0.05
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

In a converging-diverging nozzle operating with supersonic exit flow, sonic velocity is reached

Aat the nozzle exit
Bat the throat
Cin the converging section before the throat
Dat the nozzle inlet
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 1100Ch 3 · Fluid Statics and Kinematics of Fluid Flow

According to the Buckingham pi theorem, a problem involving 7 variables and 3 fundamental dimensions can be described by

A10 dimensionless groups
B4 dimensionless groups
C3 dimensionless groups
D7 dimensionless groups
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

The Darcy friction factor is related to the Fanning friction factor by

AfDarcy = 0.25 fFanning
BfDarcy = fFanning
CfDarcy = 2 fFanning
DfDarcy = 4 fFanning
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

For laminar flow in a pipe, the friction factor depends on

Aboth Reynolds number and relative roughness
Bneither of these
CReynolds number only
Drelative roughness only
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

In fully developed rough-pipe turbulent flow, the friction factor is

Aconstant for all pipes
Bproportional to Reynolds number
Ca function of relative roughness alone and independent of Reynolds number
Da function of Reynolds number alone
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

The equivalent diameter for flow through an annulus of outer diameter Do and inner diameter Di is

ADo + Di
B(Do − Di)/2
CDo − Di
DDoDi/(Do + Di)
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

The loss coefficient K for a pipe discharging into a large reservoir is approximately

A0.0
B0.5
C2.0
D1.0
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

Which valve, when fully open, offers the least resistance to flow?

ADiaphragm valve
BGlobe valve
CCheck valve
DGate valve
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

In a venturi meter compared with an orifice meter of the same throat ratio, the permanent pressure loss is

Athe same, since both are head meters
Bzero in both cases
Cmuch higher, because the throat is longer
Dmuch lower, because of the gradual divergent section
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

In a head-type flow meter, the flow rate is proportional to

Athe logarithm of the differential pressure
Bthe square root of the differential pressure
Cthe differential pressure
Dthe square of the differential pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

A rotameter is classified as a

Apositive displacement meter
Bvelocity-probe meter
Cconstant-area meter operating at variable pressure drop
Dvariable-area meter operating at constant pressure drop
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

A Pitot tube is used to measure

Athe mass flow rate directly
Bthe viscosity of the fluid
Cthe total volumetric flow rate directly
Dthe velocity of flow at a point
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the power required changes by a factor of

A16
B4
C2
D8
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

Cavitation in a centrifugal pump can be avoided by ensuring that

Athe available NPSH exceeds the required NPSH
Bthe discharge head is as high as possible
Cthe suction line is made as long and narrow as possible
Dthe pump is placed well above the liquid level
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 1100Ch 3 · Internal and External Fluid Flow, Flow Measurement, Pumping and Agitation

In a fully baffled agitated vessel operating in the turbulent regime, the power number is

Ainversely proportional to Reynolds number
Bessentially constant and independent of Reynolds number
Cproportional to the Froude number
Dproportional to Reynolds number
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

The sphericity of a cube is approximately

A1.0
B0.81
C1.24
D0.64
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

In the Tyler standard screen series, successive screen apertures are in the ratio of

A10
Bthe square root of 2
Cthe fourth root of 2 always
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

A material described as minus 14 plus 20 mesh is one which

Apassed through a 20-mesh screen and was retained on a 14-mesh screen
Bpassed through a 14-mesh screen and was retained on a 20-mesh screen
Cpassed through both screens
Dwas retained on both screens
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

Rittinger's law of crushing states that the energy required is proportional to

Athe new crack length produced
Bthe size reduction ratio
Cthe square of the feed diameter
Dthe new surface area created
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

Kick's law is most applicable to

Aclassification of fines
Bultrafine grinding
Ccoarse crushing of large feed
Dintermediate grinding
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

The Bond work index is defined as the energy required to reduce a very large feed to a product in which 80 per cent passes

A1 millimetre
B74 micrometres
C100 micrometres
D10 micrometres
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

If a ball mill is operated at or above its critical speed

Agrinding efficiency reaches its maximum
Bthe balls centrifuge against the shell and grinding effectively ceases
Cthe product becomes extremely fine
Dthe power consumption falls to zero
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

The angle of nip in a roll crusher must not exceed

Ahalf the angle of friction
Bfour times the angle of friction
Ctwice the angle of friction
Dthe angle of friction
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

Which of the following mills produces an ultrafine product with essentially no moving parts in the grinding zone?

AFluid energy (jet) mill
BJaw crusher
CBall mill
DHammer mill
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

Compared with dry grinding, wet grinding generally

Arequires less power per tonne and produces no dust
Brequires more power per tonne and produces more dust
Ccauses less wear on the grinding media
Dcannot produce a fine product
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

Closed-circuit grinding is preferred to open-circuit grinding because it

Aalways produces a coarser product
Brequires no recycle stream
Celiminates the need for a classifier
Dreturns oversize to the mill and avoids over-grinding of acceptable material
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

A bucket elevator is used primarily for

Asize reduction of friable solids
Bvertical lifting of free-flowing bulk solids
Cpneumatic transport of fine powders
Dlong horizontal transport of large tonnages
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1100Ch 3 · Solids Characterization, Size Reduction and Conveying

In dilute-phase pneumatic conveying, the solids are

Acarried as a dense moving bed
Btransported entirely by gravity
Cmoved as plugs at low velocity and high loading
Dfully suspended in a high-velocity gas stream at low solids loading
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Screening separates particles on the basis of

Asize alone
Bsurface wettability
Cdensity alone
Delectrical conductivity
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

The effectiveness of a screen based on the undersize is given by

AB xB/(F xF)
BB xB/(D xD)
CF xF/(B xB)
DD xD/(F xF)
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

As the feed rate to a screen is increased, its capacity and effectiveness respectively

Adecrease and decrease
Bdecrease and increase
Cincrease and increase
Dincrease and decrease
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Blinding of a screen refers to

Awear of the screen wires by abrasion
Bexcessive vibration of the deck
Coverflow of the feed at the discharge end
Dplugging of the apertures by near-mesh or sticky particles
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

In a differential screen analysis, the number of particles per unit mass in a size interval varies as

A1/D
BD
C1/D³
DD³
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

The volume-surface or Sauter mean diameter is calculated as

AΣ(xi/Dpi)
B1/Σ(xiDpi)
C1/Σ(xi/Dpi)
DΣ(xiDpi)
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Elutriation separates particles on the basis of

Aparticle shape only
Bterminal settling velocity in an upward fluid stream
Csurface wettability
Dmagnetic susceptibility
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Froth flotation separates minerals principally by differences in

Asurface wettability
Belectrical conductivity
Cparticle size
Dspecific gravity
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

In froth flotation, the reagent whose function is to make the mineral surface hydrophobic is the

Adepressant
BpH regulator
Ccollector
Dfrother
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Copper sulphate added to a flotation circuit to make sphalerite respond to a xanthate collector acts as

Aan activator
Ba depressant
Ca collector
Da frother
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Jigging separates particles principally on the basis of

Asurface charge
Bdensity difference under a pulsating fluid current
Caperture size
Dmagnetic properties
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Electrostatic separation of beach sands exploits differences in

Aelectrical conductivity of the minerals
Bsurface tension
Cmelting point
Dmagnetic susceptibility
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1100Ch 3 · Screening and Other Separation Methods

Compared with free settling, hindered settling gives

Alower velocities and less sensitivity to density
Bhigher settling velocities and no change in sensitivity
Cidentical velocities in all cases
Dlower settling velocities but greater sensitivity to density differences
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

According to Stokes' law, the terminal settling velocity of a small spherical particle is proportional to

Athe square of the particle diameter
Bthe cube of the particle diameter
Cthe particle diameter
Dthe square root of the particle diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

Stokes' law for settling is valid when the particle Reynolds number is

Aless than about 1
Bgreater than 200 000
Cgreater than 1000
Dbetween 1 and 1000
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

In the Newton's law region of settling, the drag coefficient is approximately

A24/Re
B18.5/Re⁰.6
Cproportional to Reynolds number
D0.44 and nearly independent of Reynolds number
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

The purpose of adding alum to a dilute suspension before sedimentation is to

Aincrease the viscosity of the liquid
Bdissolve the suspended solids completely
Cdestabilise the fine particles so that they aggregate into faster-settling flocs
Draise the density of the liquid above that of the solids
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

In a continuous thickener, the required cross-sectional area is determined by

Athe diameter of the feed pipe
Bthe density of the overflow liquid
Cthe compression time of the sediment
Dthe settling rate of the most difficult concentration layer
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

At the minimum fluidization velocity, the pressure drop across the bed equals

Azero
Btwice the weight of the bed per unit area
Cthe buoyed weight of the bed per unit cross-sectional area
Dthe dynamic pressure of the fluid
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

As the fluid velocity is increased beyond the minimum fluidization velocity, the pressure drop across the bed

Aincreases linearly with velocity
Bfalls rapidly to zero
Cincreases with the square of the velocity
Dremains essentially constant while the bed expands
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

The Ergun equation for flow through a packed bed contains

Aa single term proportional to velocity
Ba term proportional to the cube of velocity
Ca single term proportional to velocity squared
Da viscous term proportional to velocity and an inertial term proportional to velocity squared
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

Gas-solid fluidization in which the gas passes through the bed as bubbles within a dense emulsion phase is called

Aparticulate fluidization
Bspouting
Caggregative or bubbling fluidization
Dhomogeneous fluidization
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

The upper limit of the operating velocity range for a fluidized bed is set by

Athe speed of sound in the gas
Bthe bubble rise velocity
Cthe terminal settling velocity of the particles
Dthe minimum fluidization velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

In constant-pressure filtration, a plot of t/V against V yields a straight line whose slope is proportional to

Athe reciprocal of the filter area
Bthe filter medium resistance
Cthe filtrate viscosity only
Dthe specific cake resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

For a compressible filter cake, doubling the applied pressure difference

Aexactly doubles the filtration rate
Bquadruples the filtration rate
Calways stops filtration completely
Dincreases the filtration rate by less than a factor of two
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1100Ch 3 · Sedimentation, Fluidization and Filtration

The correct sequence of zones encountered by a point on the surface of a rotary drum vacuum filter during one revolution is

Adischarge, drying, washing, cake formation
Bwashing, cake formation, discharge, drying
Cdrying, cake formation, washing, discharge
Dcake formation, washing, drying, discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

The design equation for an ideal CSTR is

AV = FA0X/(−rA) with the rate evaluated at inlet conditions
BV = FA0X/(−rA) with the rate evaluated at exit conditions
CV = FA0∫dX/(−rA)
DV = NA0∫dX/(−rAV)
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

For a reaction of positive order, the volume of a PFR compared with that of a CSTR achieving the same conversion is

Asmaller, and the difference increases with conversion
Bsmaller only at very low conversion
Clarger, and the difference increases with conversion
Dexactly equal at all conversions
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

A CSTR is preferred over a PFR at low conversion for

Aa second-order irreversible reaction
Ba first-order irreversible reaction
Can autocatalytic reaction
Da zero-order reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

Space time is defined as

Athe time taken for the reaction to reach equilibrium
Breactor volume multiplied by the inlet volumetric flow rate
Cthe reciprocal of the reaction rate constant
Dreactor volume divided by the volumetric flow rate at the inlet
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

Space time equals the mean residence time only when

Athe reactor is a CSTR
Bthe reaction is first order
Cthe volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the reactor
Dthe conversion is complete
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

For a gas-phase reaction A gives 2B carried out at constant temperature and pressure with pure A fed, the value of epsilon is

A−0.5
B2
C1
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

For N equal-sized CSTRs in series carrying out a first-order reaction, the exit concentration ratio is

A1/(1 + Nkτi)
Bexp(−Nkτi)
C1/(1 + kτi)N
D(1 + kτi)N
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

As the number of equal CSTRs in series is increased at a fixed total volume, the conversion

Aincreases and approaches that of a PFR of the same total volume
Bdecreases steadily
Cfirst increases and then decreases
Dremains unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

In a series of reactors, the conversion used in the design equation for the second reactor is measured

Aas the average of inlet and outlet
Bfrom the feed to the second reactor only
Cfrom the feed to the first reactor
Das zero at the inlet of each reactor
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

The rate of reaction for a fluid-solid catalytic reaction is most commonly expressed per unit

Amole of feed
Bvolume of fluid
Cvolume of reactor
Dmass of catalyst
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

A plug flow reactor is conceptually equivalent to

Atwo CSTRs in parallel
Ban infinite number of infinitesimally small CSTRs in series
Ca batch reactor operated at steady state
Da single very large CSTR
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

A fluidized bed reactor is preferred over a fixed bed reactor mainly when

Aplug flow behaviour is required
Ba very narrow residence time distribution is essential
Cattrition of the catalyst must be avoided
Dthe catalyst deactivates rapidly and requires continuous regeneration
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1100Ch 4 · Mole Balances

For a batch reactor operating at constant volume, the design equation reduces to

At = CA0X/(−rA)
Bt = CA0∫dX/(−rA)
Ct = V/v0
Dt = FA0∫dX/(−rA)
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

The order of a reaction

Ais always a positive integer
Bmust be determined experimentally and may be fractional or negative
Cis always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients
Dequals the molecularity in every case
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

For which reaction order is the half-life independent of the initial concentration?

AFirst order
BThird order
CSecond order
DZero order
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

A plot of 1/Cₐ against time gives a straight line. The reaction is

Asecond order
Bzero order
Cfirst order
Dhalf order
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

The rate constant of a reaction has units of s^-1. The reaction is

Azero order
Bsecond order
Cfirst order
Dthird order
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

In the Arrhenius equation, a plot of ln k against 1/T gives a straight line whose slope equals

A−Ea
B−Ea/R
CEa/R
D−R/Ea
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

A reaction with a high activation energy is

Anecessarily zero order
Bstrongly sensitive to temperature changes
Cinsensitive to temperature changes
Dalways very fast at room temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

For a gas-phase reaction with epsilon greater than zero carried out at constant temperature and pressure, the concentration of reactant A

Afalls less steeply than in a constant-volume system
Bfalls more steeply with conversion than in a constant-volume system
Cis unaffected by the expansion
Dincreases with conversion
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

For a first-order liquid-phase reaction in a CSTR, the conversion is given by

Akτ/(1 + kτ)
B1 − exp(−kτ)
Cexp(−kτ)
Dkτ
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

If the space time of a first-order PFR is doubled, the conversion

Aincreases but by less than a factor of two
Bexactly doubles
Cremains unchanged
Dmore than doubles
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

The correct order of steps in the isothermal reactor design algorithm is

Astoichiometry, combine, mole balance, rate law
Bmole balance, rate law, stoichiometry, combine, evaluate
Crate law, mole balance, evaluate, stoichiometry
Dcombine, evaluate, mole balance, rate law
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

Pressure drop in a reactor is an important design consideration for

Agas-phase reactions in packed beds
Ball liquid-phase reactions
Creactions with epsilon equal to zero only
Dbatch reactors of any kind
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

Increasing the catalyst particle size in a packed bed reactor will

Ahave no effect on either
Breduce the pressure drop but may lower the effectiveness factor
Cincrease the pressure drop and the effectiveness factor
Dreduce both the pressure drop and internal diffusion resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1100Ch 4 · Rate Laws, Stoichiometry and Isothermal Reactor Design

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by

Aincreasing the activation energy of the reverse reaction only
Bincreasing the enthalpy of reaction
Clowering the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions equally
Draising the equilibrium constant
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

In the integral method of analysing rate data, one

Adifferentiates the concentration data to obtain rates
Bmeasures only the initial rate at several concentrations
Cassumes a reaction order, integrates the rate law and tests the data for linearity
Dmeasures the half-life at a single concentration
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

The differential method of rate-data analysis determines the reaction order from

Athe slope of a plot of ln k against 1/T
Bthe value of the half-life alone
Cthe intercept of a plot of CA against t
Dthe slope of a plot of ln(−rA) against ln CA
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

The main disadvantage of the differential method compared with the integral method is that it

Aneeds data at several temperatures
Bamplifies experimental scatter through the differentiation step
Crequires the reaction to be first order
Dcannot handle fractional orders
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

When reactant B is present in very large excess, the observed kinetics are described as

Azero order in A
Bpseudo-order, with a pseudo-rate constant absorbing the constant concentration of B
Cindependent of the concentration of A
Dtrue second order
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

In a differential reactor, the conversion across the catalyst bed is deliberately kept

Avery small, so the rate can be treated as constant throughout the bed
Bat the equilibrium value
Cvery large, to maximise the measured signal
Dexactly 50 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

Which laboratory reactor allows the reaction rate to be obtained directly at steady state without any integration?

AA batch reactor
BAn integral packed-bed reactor
CA plug flow reactor
DA well-mixed recycle or Berty CSTR
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

Selectivity in a multiple-reaction system is defined as

Athe ratio of reactor volume to feed rate
Bthe fraction of reactant converted
Cthe ratio of desired product formed to reactant consumed
Dthe ratio of the desired product formed to the undesired product formed
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

For the parallel reactions A to D (desired, second order in A) and A to U (undesired, first order in A), the desired product is favoured by

Aoperating at very high conversion
Bmaintaining a low concentration of A in a CSTR
Cadding a large quantity of inert diluent
Dmaintaining a high concentration of A, for example in a PFR or batch reactor
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

A semi-batch reactor in which one reactant is added slowly to the other is particularly useful for

Aachieving perfect plug flow
Breaching equilibrium more rapidly
Ckeeping one reactant concentration low and the other high to improve selectivity
Deliminating all temperature gradients
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

If the desired reaction has a higher activation energy than the undesired reaction, selectivity is improved by operating at

Athe equilibrium temperature
Ba temperature that has no effect on selectivity
Ca low temperature
Da high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

For the series reaction A to B to C with first-order steps, the concentration of B

Aincreases monotonically with time
Bremains constant throughout
Cdecreases monotonically from the start
Dpasses through a maximum at a definite optimum time
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

For maximising the yield of the intermediate B in the series reaction A to B to C

Athe reactor type is irrelevant
Ba PFR gives a higher maximum yield than a CSTR
Cboth give identical maximum yields
Da CSTR gives a higher maximum yield than a PFR
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1100Ch 4 · Collection and Analysis of Rate Data

When several reactions occur simultaneously, the mole balances are most conveniently written in terms of

Athe overall yield alone
Bthe total pressure only
Cthe molar flow rate or concentration of each species
Dthe conversion of the limiting reactant only
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

The pseudo-steady-state hypothesis assumes that

Athe total pressure remains constant
Bthe net rate of formation of each active intermediate is zero
Call reactions are elementary
Dthe reaction rate is independent of temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

In the Michaelis-Menten equation, the constant Kₘ represents

Athe maximum reaction rate
Bthe total enzyme concentration
Cthe substrate concentration at which the rate is half of Vmax
Dthe equilibrium constant of the overall reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

At substrate concentrations far above Kₘ, an enzyme-catalysed reaction is

Azero order in substrate
Bof fractional order
Csecond order in substrate
Dfirst order in substrate
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

A Lineweaver-Burk plot is a plot of

A1/rate against 1/substrate concentration
Brate against substrate concentration
Cln rate against ln substrate concentration
Drate against 1/temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

Competitive inhibition of an enzyme is characterised by

Aa decreased Vmax with KM unchanged
Ban increased apparent KM with Vmax unchanged
Cno change in either parameter
Da decrease in both Vmax and KM
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

In a chemostat operating at steady state, the specific growth rate of the cells equals

Athe dilution rate
Bthe maximum specific growth rate
Cthe substrate consumption rate
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

Washout occurs in a chemostat when

Athe temperature falls below the optimum
Bthe dilution rate exceeds the maximum specific growth rate
Cthe dilution rate is reduced to zero
Dthe substrate concentration is too high
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

For an adiabatic reactor, the relation between temperature and conversion is

Alogarithmic
Bindependent of conversion
Cexponential
Dlinear
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

For an exothermic reversible reaction, the equilibrium conversion

Ais independent of temperature
Bincreases as the temperature increases
Cdecreases as the temperature increases
Dincreases with pressure only
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

Interstage cooling between catalyst beds in an exothermic reversible reaction is used to

Areduce the pressure drop through the system
Bprevent the catalyst from being reduced
Crestore a favourable equilibrium by lowering the temperature before the next bed
Dincrease the reaction rate in the bed just completed
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

When the heat generation curve and heat removal line for a CSTR intersect at three points, the middle steady state is

Astable
Bthe point of maximum conversion
Cthe most efficient operating point
Dunstable
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

Parametric sensitivity in an exothermic packed-bed reactor means that temperature

Athe conversion is independent of the catalyst weight
Ba very small change in an operating variable produces a disproportionately large change in the peak
Cthe reaction rate is insensitive to temperature
Dthe pressure drop controls the conversion
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1100Ch 4 · Reaction Mechanisms, Enzyme Kinetics and Non-isothermal Reactors

The step in a chain reaction in which a radical reacts to give a product molecule and another radical is called

Atermination
Binhibition
Cpropagation
Dinitiation
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

The correct sequence of steps in a heterogeneous catalytic reaction begins with

Asurface reaction
Bexternal diffusion of reactant from the bulk fluid to the catalyst surface
Cdesorption of product
Dadsorption of reactant on the active site
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

Chemisorption differs from physisorption in that it

Aoccurs only at very low temperatures
Binvolves chemical bond formation, is monolayer and highly specific
Cis multilayer and non-specific
Dhas a very low heat of adsorption
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

The BET method is used to determine

Athe effectiveness factor of a pellet
Bthe total surface area of a porous catalyst
Cthe activation energy of a reaction
Dthe residence time distribution
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

In a Langmuir-Hinshelwood mechanism

Aneither reactant is adsorbed
Bthe reaction occurs entirely in the gas phase
Cone reactant reacts directly from the gas phase with an adsorbed species
Dboth reactants are adsorbed on the surface before reacting
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

If a reaction product appears in the denominator of a heterogeneous catalytic rate law, it indicates that the product

Ais adsorbed on the catalyst and inhibits the reaction
Bis formed in the gas phase only
Caccelerates the reaction
Ddecomposes on the catalyst surface
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

Which observation indicates that a catalytic reaction is controlled by external mass transfer?

AThe apparent activation energy is very high
BThe rate increases markedly when the fluid velocity past the particle is increased
CThe rate is proportional to the square of the concentration
DThe rate is unaffected by fluid velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

For a catalyst pellet with a very large Thiele modulus, the effectiveness factor is approximately

Aφ²
B1.0
C1/φ
Dφ
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

When a reaction is strongly limited by internal pore diffusion, the apparent activation energy is approximately

Ahalf the true activation energy
Btwice the true activation energy
Cequal to the true activation energy
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

Loss of catalyst activity by the growth of metal crystallites at high temperature is called

Acoking
Bpoisoning
Csintering
Dfouling
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

In a pulse tracer experiment, the normalised concentration response directly gives

Athe exit age distribution E(t)
Bthe reaction rate constant
Cthe cumulative distribution F(t)
Dthe effectiveness factor
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

The variance of the residence time distribution for an ideal plug flow reactor is

Ainfinite
Bzero
Cequal to τ
Dequal to τ²
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

In the tanks-in-series model, the number of equivalent tanks is calculated as

AN = σ²/τ²
BN = σ/τ
CN = τ²/σ²
DN = τ/σ
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1100Ch 4 · Catalysis, Diffusion Effects and Residence Time Distribution

The residence time distribution alone is sufficient to predict conversion for

Afirst-order reactions
Bzero-order reactions
Call reactions regardless of order
Dsecond-order reactions
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Which of the following is a prokaryotic organism?

ABacteria
BYeast
CFilamentous fungi
DAlgae
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Sucrose on hydrolysis yields

Aglucose and galactose
Btwo molecules of glucose
Cfructose and galactose
Dglucose and fructose
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Starch and cellulose are both polymers of glucose but differ in

Athe presence of nitrogen in cellulose
Btheir molecular weight alone
Cthe type of glycosidic linkage, alpha in starch and beta in cellulose
Dthe monomer, which is fructose in cellulose
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The structural component of all cell membranes, being amphipathic, is

Aphospholipid
Bcellulose
Ctriglyceride
Dglycogen
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Amino acids are joined together in a protein by

Apeptide bonds formed with the elimination of water
Bphosphodiester bonds
Cglycosidic bonds
Dhydrogen bonds only
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The secondary structure of a protein, such as the alpha helix, is stabilised mainly by

Apeptide bonds
Bhydrogen bonds
Cdisulphide bridges only
Dionic bonds only
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

AGuanine
BUracil
CCytosine
DThymine
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

In DNA, guanine pairs with cytosine through

Athree hydrogen bonds
Btwo hydrogen bonds
Can ionic bond
Da covalent bond
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The net ATP yield from the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose is approximately

A30 to 32
B2
C100
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The theoretical yield of ethanol from glucose by fermentation is about

A100 per cent by mass
B75 per cent by mass
C51 per cent by mass
D25 per cent by mass
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The Pasteur effect refers to

Ainhibition of growth by the product
Bthe suppression of fermentation by the presence of oxygen
Cfermentation occurring despite the presence of oxygen
Ddenaturation of enzymes at high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

The lac operon of E. coli is an example of

Aa repressible system, normally switched on
Ba system unaffected by the presence of lactose
Ca eukaryotic regulatory system
Dan inducible system, normally switched off and turned on by its substrate
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1100Ch 4 · Biochemical Engineering

Immobilisation of an enzyme on a solid support typically results in

Acomplete loss of catalytic activity
Ba decreased apparent KM and no diffusional effects
Cconversion of the enzyme into a non-specific catalyst
Deasier reuse and separation but an increased apparent KM because of diffusion resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

Which of the following is a renewable but conventional source of energy?

AWind energy
BSolar photovoltaic
CBiogas
DLarge hydropower
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

Hydrogen is best described as

Aa fossil fuel
Ban energy carrier rather than a primary energy source
Ca non-renewable primary source
Da primary renewable energy source
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

Which rank of coal has the highest carbon content and calorific value?

AAnthracite
BBituminous coal
CPeat
DLignite
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

The proximate analysis of a coal reports

Amoisture, volatile matter, ash and fixed carbon
Bthe ash fusion temperature only
Ccarbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur
Dgross and net calorific value
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

The gross calorific value of a fuel is always greater than its net calorific value because

Ait includes the latent heat of the water vapour formed, assumed condensed
Bit assumes incomplete combustion
Cit is measured at a higher temperature
Dit excludes the ash content
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

The mass of oxygen theoretically required to burn 1 kg of carbon completely to carbon dioxide is

A2.67 kg
B1.33 kg
C3.67 kg
D8 kg
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

In the Orsat apparatus, the gases are absorbed in the order

Acarbon monoxide, then oxygen, then carbon dioxide
Bnitrogen, then carbon dioxide, then oxygen
Ccarbon dioxide, then oxygen, then carbon monoxide
Doxygen, then carbon dioxide, then carbon monoxide
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

Supplying a large excess of air to a furnace

Alowers the flame temperature and the thermal efficiency
Bhas no effect on efficiency
Celiminates all heat losses
Draises the flame temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

For a high-head, low-flow hydropower site, the most suitable turbine is

Aa Kaplan turbine
Ba Pelton wheel
Ca bulb turbine
Da Francis turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

Gasification differs from combustion in that gasification

Auses a large excess of air
Brequires no heat input at all
Cproduces only carbon dioxide and water
Dis carried out with a sub-stoichiometric supply of oxidant to produce a combustible gas
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

The chief constituent of biogas produced by anaerobic digestion is

Anitrogen
Bcarbon monoxide
Chydrogen
Dmethane
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

A fuel cell is more efficient than a conventional thermal power plant principally because

Ait operates at a much higher temperature
Bit converts chemical energy directly to electricity and is not limited by the Carnot efficiency
Cit uses no fuel at all
Dit has no electrodes
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1100Ch 5 · Energy Sources, Fuels and Combustion

In the electrolysis of water, the gases liberated at the cathode and anode respectively are

Ahydrogen at both electrodes
Bhydrogen and oxygen, in a volume ratio of 2 to 1
Coxygen and hydrogen, in a volume ratio of 2 to 1
Dhydrogen and oxygen, in a volume ratio of 1 to 2
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

The negative sign in Fourier's law of heat conduction indicates that

Athermal conductivity is a negative quantity
Bthe area is measured normal to the flow
Cthe heat flow is always unsteady
Dheat flows in the direction of decreasing temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

The thermal resistance of a hollow cylinder of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 is

A(r₂ − r₁)/(2πkL)
Bln(r₂/r₁)/(2πkL)
CL/(kA)
D(r₂ − r₁)/(4πk r₁r₂)
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

In a composite wall, the largest temperature drop occurs across the layer with

Athe smallest thickness
Bthe greatest thermal conductivity
Cthe largest surface area
Dthe greatest thermal resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

Thermal diffusivity is defined as

Aρcp/k
Bk/h
Ck/(ρcp)
Dkρcp
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

The critical radius of insulation for a cylindrical pipe is given by

Ah/k
B2k/h
Ck/h
Dk/2h
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

Adding insulation to a small-diameter electrical wire whose radius is below the critical radius will

Aleave the heat loss unchanged
Bincrease the rate of heat loss from the wire
Cdecrease the rate of heat loss immediately
Dcause the wire temperature to rise
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

For a plane wall, the critical thickness of insulation

Adoes not exist, because the surface area does not change with thickness
Bequals 2k/h as for a sphere
Cequals the wall thickness itself
Dequals k/h as for a cylinder
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

Fin efficiency is defined as the ratio of the actual heat transferred by the fin to the heat that would be transferred if

Athe fin were at the ambient temperature
Bthe entire fin were at the base temperature
Cthe fin had infinite conductivity and zero area
Dthe fin were absent
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

Fins are most effective when added to a surface in contact with

Aa high-velocity liquid
Ba boiling liquid, where the coefficient is very high
Ca gas, where the convective coefficient is low
Da condensing vapour
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

The Biot number represents the ratio of

Ainertial force to viscous force
Bmomentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
Cbuoyancy force to viscous force
Dinternal conduction resistance to external convection resistance
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

The lumped capacitance method for unsteady conduction may be applied when the Biot number is

Aless than 0.1
Bgreater than 100
Cexactly equal to 1
Dgreater than 1.0
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

In the lumped capacitance model, the temperature of a body approaches that of its surroundings

Alinearly with time
Bexponentially with time
Cas the square root of time
Din a stepwise manner
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1100Ch 5 · Conduction

Most common insulating materials owe their low thermal conductivity to

Atheir high density
Bthe still air trapped in their porous structure
Ctheir ability to reflect radiation only
Dthe high conductivity of the solid matrix
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

The convective heat transfer coefficient h is

Aa constant for a given fluid at all velocities
Bnot a property of the fluid, but depends on geometry, flow conditions and fluid properties together
Cindependent of the flow regime
Da thermodynamic property of the fluid alone
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

The Nusselt number represents the ratio of

Ainertial to viscous forces
Bmomentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
Cbuoyancy to viscous forces
Dconvective to conductive heat transfer across the fluid boundary
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

The Prandtl number of a fluid is

Aalways greater than one
Ba property of the fluid alone, independent of geometry and flow
Cdependent on the pipe diameter
Ddependent on the flow velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

For fully developed laminar flow in a tube with constant wall temperature, the Nusselt number is

A0.023Re⁰.8
B3.66
C48/11
D4.36
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

In the Dittus-Boelter equation, the exponent on the Prandtl number is

A0.3 when heating and 0.4 when cooling
B0.33 in all cases
C0.8 in all cases
D0.4 when the fluid is being heated and 0.3 when it is being cooled
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

According to the Dittus-Boelter equation, doubling the velocity in a tube increases the heat transfer coefficient by a factor of about

A4.0
B2.0
C1.41
D1.74
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

In natural convection, the Reynolds number is replaced by the

APrandtl number
BNusselt number
CStanton number
DGrashof number
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

For turbulent natural convection, where the Nusselt number varies as the Rayleigh number to the power one third, the heat transfer coefficient is

Aproportional to the square of the length
Bindependent of the characteristic length of the surface
Cproportional to the characteristic length
Dinversely proportional to the characteristic length
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

The critical heat flux in pool boiling corresponds to

Athe minimum of the boiling curve
Bthe fully developed film boiling condition
Cthe onset of free convection boiling
Dthe peak of the boiling curve, at the end of the nucleate boiling regime
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

In the transition boiling regime, as the excess temperature is increased the heat flux

Aincreases steadily
Bremains constant
Cincreases to a second maximum
Ddecreases
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

Dropwise condensation gives a higher heat transfer coefficient than filmwise condensation because

Athe condensate film conducts heat better
Bthe vapour temperature is higher
Cthe latent heat released is greater
Dthe droplets roll off and repeatedly expose bare surface to the vapour
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

The presence of a small amount of non-condensable gas in a condenser

Aincreases the coefficient slightly
Bsubstantially reduces the condensing heat transfer coefficient
Chas no measurable effect
Draises the saturation temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1100Ch 5 · Convection

Condenser tubes are usually arranged horizontally rather than vertically because

Athe vapour velocity is lower
Bfouling is impossible in that orientation
Cthe condensate film is shorter and thinner, giving a higher coefficient
Dthe condensate drains away more slowly
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

According to the Stefan-Boltzmann law, the emissive power of a black body is proportional to

Aits absolute temperature
Bthe fourth power of its Celsius temperature
Cthe fourth power of its absolute temperature
Dthe square of its absolute temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

The value of the Stefan-Boltzmann constant is approximately

A8.314 W/(m²·K⁴)
B5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W/(m²·K⁴)
C1.38 × 10⁻²³ W/(m²·K⁴)
D5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W/(m²·K)
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

Wien's displacement law states that as the temperature of a body increases, the wavelength of maximum emission

Adecreases, with λmaxT = 2898 μm·K
Bremains constant
Cincreases proportionally to T⁴
Dincreases, with λmaxT = 2898 μm·K
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

Kirchhoff's law of radiation states that at thermal equilibrium

Athe emissivity is always unity
Bthe absorptivity equals the transmissivity
Cthe emissivity of a surface equals its absorptivity
Dthe emissivity equals the reflectivity
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

For an opaque surface, the sum of absorptivity and reflectivity is

Aequal to the emissivity
B0
Cless than 1 always
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

A grey body is one whose

Aemissivity varies strongly with wavelength
Bemissivity is constant with wavelength but less than unity
Cemissivity is unity at all wavelengths
Dreflectivity is unity
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

Which of the following surfaces has the lowest emissivity?

ALamp black
BOxidised steel
COrdinary brickwork
DHighly polished aluminium
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

The view factor between two surfaces depends on

Athe medium between them
Btheir geometry and relative orientation only
Ctheir emissivities
Dtheir temperatures
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

For a flat or convex surface, the view factor with respect to itself, F11, is

Aalways greater than zero
Bequal to the emissivity
Cone
Dzero
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

For a small grey body of emissivity e1 completely enclosed by a much larger surface, the net radiant exchange depends on

Athe emissivity of the large enclosure only
Bthe product of the two emissivities
Cthe emissivity of the small body only
Dneither emissivity
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

For radiation exchange between two large parallel grey plates, the denominator of the exchange expression is

A1/ε₁ + 1/ε₂
Bε₁ + ε₂ − 1
C1/ε₁ + 1/ε₂ − 1
D1/(ε₁ε₂)
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

Inserting a single radiation shield of the same emissivity between two large parallel plates reduces the radiant heat transfer to

Athe same value as before
Bone quarter of its original value
Cone half of its original value
Done third of its original value
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1100Ch 5 · Radiation

Which pair of gases is essentially transparent to thermal radiation?

ACarbon dioxide and methane
BCarbon dioxide and water vapour
COxygen and nitrogen
DWater vapour and sulphur dioxide
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The logarithmic mean temperature difference is

Aequal to the arithmetic mean in all cases
Balways greater than the arithmetic mean
Cindependent of the terminal differences
Dalways less than the arithmetic mean of the two terminal temperature differences
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

For the same four terminal temperatures, the LMTD for counter-current flow compared with co-current flow is

Aidentical
Bgreater, but more area is required
Csmaller, so more area is required
Dgreater, so less area is required
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

A temperature cross, in which the hot fluid leaves colder than the cold fluid outlet, is possible only in

Aneither arrangement
Bcounter-current flow
Cboth arrangements equally
Dco-current flow
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

In the expression q = UAF(ΔT)lm, the correction factor F is

Aindependent of the flow arrangement
Balways less than one and should not fall below about 0.75
Cequal to one for all multi-pass exchangers
Dalways greater than one
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The primary function of baffles in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is to

Aseparate the tube-side and shell-side fluids
Baccommodate thermal expansion of the tubes
Creduce the pressure drop on the shell side
Ddirect the shell-side fluid across the tubes to increase turbulence and support the tubes
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

A floating-head design is used in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger in order to

Areduce the cost of construction
Beliminate fouling entirely
Cincrease the shell-side heat transfer coefficient
Dallow differential thermal expansion between the tubes and the shell
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

A square tube pitch is preferred over a triangular pitch when

Athe fluid is entirely clean
Bthe highest possible shell-side coefficient is wanted
Cmechanical cleaning of the outside of the tubes is required
Dthe maximum number of tubes must fit in a given shell
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

In a heat exchanger, the overall heat transfer coefficient is governed principally by

Athe smallest of the individual film coefficients
Bthe largest of the individual film coefficients
Cthe arithmetic mean of the film coefficients
Dthe tube wall conductivity alone
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The effectiveness of a heat exchanger is defined as the ratio of the actual heat transfer to

Athe heat transfer at the design point
Bthe product of U and A
Cthe maximum possible heat transfer in an infinitely long counter-current exchanger
Dthe heat lost to the surroundings
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The effectiveness-NTU method is preferred over the LMTD method when

Aall four terminal temperatures are known
Bthe fluid undergoes a phase change
Cthe outlet temperatures are unknown and would otherwise require trial and error
Dthe exchanger is purely counter-current
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

When one fluid in a heat exchanger is condensing at constant temperature, the capacity ratio Cr is

Ainfinite
Bequal to the effectiveness
Cone, and the temperature difference is constant
Dzero, and the effectiveness equals 1 − exp(−NTU) for any configuration
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The fouling factor in a heat exchanger calculation represents

Aa correction to the logarithmic mean temperature difference
Ban additional thermal resistance placed in series with the others
Can increase in the overall heat transfer coefficient
Dthe pressure drop through the exchanger
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1100Ch 5 · Heat Exchangers

The commonest operational cause of fouling in a heat exchanger is

Atoo low a fluid velocity through the exchanger
Btoo high a fluid velocity
Cuse of counter-current flow
Dexcessive tube wall thickness
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

The economy of an evaporator is defined as

Athe mass of water evaporated per hour
Bthe steam consumed per hour
Cthe ratio of heat supplied to heat lost
Dthe mass of water evaporated per unit mass of steam supplied
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

Increasing the number of effects in a multiple-effect evaporator

Adecreases both
Bincreases the steam economy but does not increase the capacity
Cincreases the capacity but not the economy
Dincreases both the economy and the capacity
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

The approximate steam economy of a triple-effect evaporator is

A1.0
B0.9
C3.0
D2.4
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

In backward-feed operation of a multiple-effect evaporator

Athe feed enters the hottest effect and flows with the steam
Bno pumps are required between effects
Cthe feed enters the coldest effect and the most concentrated liquor meets the hottest steam
Dfeed enters every effect separately
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

Parallel feeding of a multiple-effect evaporator is used principally when

Athe product is highly heat sensitive
Bonly one effect is available
Cthe feed is extremely dilute
Da crystallising solid product is being produced
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

Boiling point elevation in an evaporator has the effect of

Aincreasing the available temperature difference
Beliminating the need for a condenser
Creducing the useful temperature difference available for heat transfer
Dincreasing the economy
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

A forced-circulation evaporator is most suitable for

Agases
Bviscous, scaling or crystallising liquids
Cvery heat-sensitive dilute solutions only
Dclean, non-viscous liquids at low duty
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

A falling-film evaporator is particularly suitable for heat-sensitive materials because

Ait operates at very high temperature
Bit requires no vacuum
Cthe residence time is short and it operates with a small temperature difference
Dthe liquid is held in the tubes for a long time
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

In the batch heating of an agitated vessel by condensing steam in the jacket, the contents approach the steam temperature

Alinearly with time
Bexponentially, never quite reaching it
Cas the square root of time
Dinstantaneously
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

In batch heating of an agitated vessel, doubling the heat transfer area will

Ahalve the time required for a given temperature change
Bleave the time unchanged
Cquadruple the time required
Ddouble the time required
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

Compared with a jacket, an internal helical coil in a reactor generally provides

Aa larger heat transfer area and a higher coefficient
Ba smaller area and a lower coefficient
Cthe same area but easier cleaning
Dno advantage at all
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

The vessel-side heat transfer coefficient in an agitated jacketed reactor is correlated against

Athe Biot number
Bthe Fourier number
Cthe pipe Reynolds number based on the jacket
Dthe impeller Reynolds number
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1100Ch 5 · Evaporators and Reactor Heating and Cooling Systems

Temperature control becomes more difficult as a batch reactor is scaled up because

Aagitation becomes unnecessary at large scale
Bvolume increases as the cube of linear dimension while jacket area increases only as the square
Cthe heat of reaction per unit mass increases with scale
Dthe specific heat of the contents decreases
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

Fick's first law of diffusion states that the diffusive flux is proportional to

Athe temperature gradient
Bthe square of the concentration gradient
Cthe concentration gradient, with a negative sign
Dthe concentration itself
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The order of magnitude of the diffusion coefficient for a gas at ordinary temperature and pressure is

A10⁻² m²/s
B10⁻¹² m²/s
C10⁻⁹ m²/s
D10⁻⁵ m²/s
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The diffusivity of a gas varies with absolute temperature and total pressure approximately as

AT²P
BT/P
CT1.75P
DT1.75/P
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

For diffusion of A through stagnant non-diffusing B, compared with equimolar counter-diffusion under the same conditions, the flux of A is

Asmaller, because B obstructs the diffusion
Bidentical in the two cases
Czero
Dgreater, because of the bulk flow (drift) contribution
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

In equimolar counter-diffusion of A and B through a gas film, the partial pressure profile of A is

Aexponential with distance
Bparabolic with distance
Clinear with distance
Dlogarithmic with distance
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The Wilke-Chang correlation is used to estimate the diffusivity of

Aa solute in a crystalline solid
Ba solute in a liquid solvent
Ca gas through a porous solid
Da gas in a gas mixture
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The effective diffusivity in a porous solid is related to the free-fluid diffusivity by

ADeff = Dε/τ, and is therefore always smaller
BDeff = Dετ
CDeff = Dτ/ε, and is therefore always larger
DDeff = D, since the pores do not matter
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

Knudsen diffusion becomes important when

Athe solid is non-porous
Bthe pore diameter is smaller than the mean free path of the molecules
Cthe pressure is very high
Dthe pore diameter is much larger than the mean free path
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The Knudsen diffusion coefficient is

Aindependent of total pressure and proportional to pore radius
Bproportional to the square of the pressure
Cindependent of pore radius
Dinversely proportional to total pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

Fick's second law of diffusion is mathematically identical in form to

Athe Bernoulli equation
Bthe unsteady state heat conduction equation
Cthe Ergun equation
Dthe Stefan-Boltzmann law
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The Stefan tube or Arnold diffusion cell is used to measure

Athe thermal conductivity of a gas
Bthe diffusivity of a vapour in a gas
Cthe solubility of a gas in a liquid
Dthe viscosity of a liquid
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

The relation between the total flux Nₐ and the diffusive flux Jₐ is

ANA = JA − yA(NA + NB)
BNA = JA/yA
CNA = JA always
DNA = JA + yA(NA + NB)
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1100Ch 6 · Diffusion

For a binary gas mixture, the relation between the two diffusivities is

ADAB = 1/DBA
BDAB = DBA
CDAB = 2DBA
DThere is no fixed relation
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The Schmidt number is the mass transfer analogue of the

ANusselt number
BReynolds number
CGrashof number
DPrandtl number
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The Sherwood number is defined as

AkcL/DAB
Bkc/v
Cα/DAB
Dμ/(ρDAB)
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The Schmidt number for most gases is of the order of

A1000
B0.01
C100 000
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

According to the penetration and surface renewal theories, the mass transfer coefficient is proportional to

AD0.5
BD²
CD
D1/D
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The Chilton-Colburn analogy states that

AjH = f/jD
BjH = 2jD = f
CjH = jD = f/2
DjH = jD = f
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The Reynolds analogy is most nearly valid when

Athe Schmidt number is very large
Bthe Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are both close to unity
Cthe flow is laminar
Dthe Prandtl number is very large
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The analogies between momentum, heat and mass transfer fail when

Athe flow is turbulent in a smooth pipe
Bthe Schmidt number equals the Prandtl number
Cform drag rather than skin friction dominates
Dmass transfer rates are low
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

For the air-water system, the wet bulb temperature and the adiabatic saturation temperature are nearly equal because

Athe Schmidt number is very large
Bair is a poor conductor of heat
Cwater has a high latent heat
Dthe Lewis number is approximately unity
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

Interphase mass transfer ceases when

Athe interfacial area falls to zero
Bthe temperature becomes uniform
Cthe concentrations in the two phases become numerically equal
Dthe two phases reach equilibrium with each other
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

According to two-film theory, the overall gas-phase resistance is given by

AKG = kG + kL
B1/KG = 1/kG + 1/(m kL)
C1/KG = 1/kG − m/kL
D1/KG = 1/kG + m/kL
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The absorption of a highly soluble gas such as ammonia in water is

Acontrolled equally by both films
Bindependent of both film resistances
Cliquid-film controlled
Dgas-film controlled
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

The absorption of a sparingly soluble gas such as oxygen in water is

Acontrolled by neither film
Bgas-film controlled
Climited only by the interfacial area
Dliquid-film controlled
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer by Convection and Interphase Transfer

An ideal or theoretical stage is defined as one in which

Ano mass transfer occurs
Bthe efficiency is 50 per cent
Cthe two entering streams are in equilibrium
Dthe two streams leaving are in equilibrium with each other
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

Separation of a binary mixture by ordinary distillation is impossible when the relative volatility is

Aless than 1
Bgreater than 10
Cequal to 1
Dgreater than 1
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

An azeotrope is a mixture in which

Athe relative volatility is very large
Bno vaporisation occurs at any temperature
Cthe vapour and liquid have the same composition at equilibrium
Dthe components are completely immiscible
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

In the McCabe-Thiele method, the assumption of constant molal overflow requires that

Athe feed be a saturated vapour
Bthe column operate at total reflux
Cthe two components have equal molecular weights
Dthe molar latent heats of the two components be approximately equal
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

The slope of the rectifying section operating line is

AR + 1
BR/(R + 1)
C1/(R + 1)
D(R + 1)/R
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

For a feed entering a distillation column as a saturated liquid at its bubble point, the q-line is

Aof slope 1
Bof negative slope
Cvertical
Dhorizontal
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

Operating a distillation column at total reflux gives

Azero separation
Bthe minimum number of theoretical stages
Cthe minimum reflux ratio
Dthe maximum number of stages
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

At the minimum reflux ratio, the number of theoretical stages required is

Aequal to the number at total reflux
Bzero
Ca minimum
Dinfinite, because a pinch point of zero driving force occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

Increasing the reflux ratio in a distillation column

Areduces both the number of stages and the operating cost
Breduces the number of stages required but increases the operating cost
Chas no effect on the column diameter
Dincreases the number of stages required
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

The Fenske equation is used to calculate

Athe optimum feed plate location
Bthe minimum number of theoretical stages at total reflux
Cthe minimum reflux ratio
Dthe column diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

Steam distillation is particularly useful for separating

Aclose-boiling miscible liquids
Bsolids from liquids
Chigh-boiling, heat-sensitive materials that are immiscible with water
Dgases from liquids
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

In extractive distillation, the added solvent

Areacts chemically with one of the components
Bis more volatile than both components
Cforms a new low-boiling azeotrope and leaves overhead
Dis relatively non-volatile and leaves with the bottoms product
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

In liquid-liquid extraction, the solvent-rich product stream is called the

Aextract
Bunderflow
Craffinate
Dreflux
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1100Ch 6 · Distillation and Extraction

On a ternary phase diagram for liquid-liquid extraction, the point at which the tie line length reduces to zero is the

Acritical point of the solvent
Bbubble point
Cazeotropic point
Dplait point
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

The solubility of a gas in a liquid

Adecreases with pressure and increases with temperature
Bincreases with both pressure and temperature
Cis independent of both
Dincreases with pressure and decreases with temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

A large value of the Henry's law constant for a gas indicates that the gas is

Aat its critical point
Bchemically reactive with the solvent
Chighly soluble in the liquid
Dsparingly soluble in the liquid
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

Flooding in a packed absorption column occurs when

Athe packing becomes completely dry
Bthe liquid rate is too low to wet the packing
Cthe gas rate falls below the loading point
Dthe upward gas velocity prevents the liquid from flowing down, causing liquid to accumulate
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

In a packed column, liquid redistributors are installed at intervals in order to

Acool the descending liquid
Bsupport the weight of the packing
Cincrease the pressure drop
Dcounteract channelling of the liquid towards the column wall
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

For an absorption operation, the operating line lies

Aparallel to the x-axis
Babove the equilibrium curve
Cbelow the equilibrium curve
Dexactly on the equilibrium curve
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

At the minimum liquid-to-gas ratio in an absorber

Aflooding occurs immediately
Bthe operating line touches the equilibrium curve and infinite column height is required
Cthe column height required is a minimum
Dno absorption occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

The number of transfer units (NTU) in a packed absorption column depends on

Athe type and size of packing
Bthe required separation and the equilibrium relationship
Cthe physical properties of the fluids only
Dthe column diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

In packed column design, the mass transfer coefficient and the interfacial area are combined as a single quantity Ka because

Athe interfacial area per unit volume cannot be measured independently
Bthe coefficient is always equal to the area
Cthe coefficient has no physical meaning
Dthe area is always unity
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

The absorption factor A is defined as

AL/(mG)
BG/(mL)
CmL/G
DmG/L
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

The Langmuir adsorption isotherm assumes

Athat adsorption is always irreversible
Bmonolayer coverage on a uniform surface with no interaction between adsorbed molecules
Cthat adsorption capacity increases without limit
Dmultilayer adsorption on a heterogeneous surface
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

A favourable adsorption isotherm is one which is

Alinear over the whole range
Bhorizontal at all concentrations
Cconvex upward, giving a sharp self-sharpening mass transfer zone
Dconcave upward, giving a spreading front
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

Breakthrough in a fixed-bed adsorber occurs when

Athe adsorbent is first loaded into the column
Bthe mass transfer zone reaches the outlet end of the bed
Cthe bed becomes completely saturated throughout
Dthe pressure drop reaches its maximum
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1100Ch 6 · Absorption and Adsorption

The distinguishing feature of a molecular sieve compared with other adsorbents is its

Ainability to be regenerated
Buniform, crystallographically determined pore size
Cnon-polar hydrophobic surface
Dvery low cost
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

The driving force for crystallization is

Athe viscosity of the mother liquor
Bthe temperature of the solution alone
Csupersaturation
Dthe agitation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

To produce large crystals, a crystallizer should be operated

Ain the metastable zone with seeding and low supersaturation
Bin the labile zone with very high supersaturation
Cwith the most rapid possible cooling
Dwith no agitation at all
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

Crystallization by evaporation rather than by cooling is used when the solute's solubility

Aincreases sharply with temperature
Bdecreases sharply with temperature
Cchanges very little with temperature
Dis extremely low at all temperatures
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

Secondary nucleation in an industrial crystallizer is caused principally by

Aa rise in solution temperature
Bcontact of existing crystals with the impeller, the walls and each other
Cspontaneous formation of nuclei in a clear solution
Dthe presence of dust particles only
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

The delta L law of crystal growth states that

Alarge crystals grow faster than small ones
Bgeometrically similar crystals in the same solution grow at the same linear rate regardless of size
Csmall crystals grow faster than large ones
Dgrowth rate is proportional to the square of the crystal size
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

In the calculation of crystal yield, a common and serious error is to neglect

Athe water of crystallization contained in the crystals
Bthe colour of the mother liquor
Cthe density of the crystals
Dthe agitator power
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

The equilibrium moisture content of a solid is

Athe moisture removed during the constant-rate period
Balways zero for every material
Cthe moisture that cannot be removed by drying with air of that humidity and temperature
Dthe total moisture initially present
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

During the constant-rate period of drying, the rate is controlled by

Athe external conditions of the drying air
Bthe equilibrium moisture content
Cthe pore structure of the solid
Ddiffusion of moisture within the solid
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

During the constant-rate period, the temperature of the wet surface is approximately

Athe dry bulb temperature of the drying air
Bthe wet bulb temperature of the drying air
Cthe dew point of the drying air
Dthe boiling point of water
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

The critical moisture content of a solid

Ais always equal to the equilibrium moisture content
Bmarks the beginning of the constant-rate period
Cmarks the end of the constant-rate period and depends on the thickness of the bed and the drying rate
Dis a fixed property of the material alone
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

In the second falling-rate period of drying, the rate is governed by

Athe air velocity past the surface
Bthe wet bulb depression
Cthe movement of moisture within the solid
Dthe humidity of the drying air
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

Case hardening during drying occurs when

Athe equilibrium moisture content is zero
Bthe air humidity is too high throughout
Cthe material is dried too slowly
Dthe surface is dried too rapidly and forms an impermeable skin that traps moisture inside
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1100Ch 6 · Crystallization and Drying

The time required for the falling-rate period of drying, assuming the rate is proportional to the free moisture content, varies

Alinearly with the final moisture content
Bindependently of the final moisture content
Clogarithmically with the final moisture content
Das the square of the final moisture content
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

In a bubble column, the dispersed phase is

Athe gas, dispersed as bubbles through a continuous liquid
Bneither phase; both are continuous
Cthe liquid, dispersed as droplets through a continuous gas
Da solid suspended in a gas
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

A packed tower is preferred to a tray tower when

Athe fluids are corrosive and the column diameter is small
Bthe liquid contains suspended solids
Cthe column diameter exceeds two metres
Dside draws and interstage cooling are required
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

A tray tower is analysed in terms of theoretical stages, whereas a packed tower is analysed in terms of

Aresidence time distribution
Bflooding velocities only
Ctransfer units
Dpressure drop per unit height only
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

Weeping in a tray column occurs when

Athe vapour rate is too low to support the liquid on the tray
Bthe tray spacing is too large
Cthe liquid rate is too low
Dthe vapour rate is too high
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

Which tray type offers the best turndown ratio?

ABubble cap tray
BSieve tray
CAll are identical in turndown
DValve tray
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

The diameter of a tray column is determined principally by

Athe tray thickness
Bthe flooding velocity of the vapour
Cthe number of theoretical stages
Dthe reflux ratio alone
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

The overall efficiency of a distillation column is defined as

Athe number of theoretical trays divided by the number of actual trays
Bthe ratio of reflux to distillate
Cthe ratio of distillate to feed
Dthe number of actual trays divided by the number of theoretical trays
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

Spray drying is suitable for heat-sensitive materials despite the high inlet gas temperature because temperature

Athe gas is actually cold at the inlet
Bthe drying occurs under vacuum
Cthe product is never in contact with the gas
Dthe residence time is only a few seconds and evaporative cooling keeps the droplet near the wet bulb
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

Freeze drying removes moisture by

Aboiling the water at high temperature
Bmechanical pressing followed by hot air
Csublimation of ice under vacuum, without passing through the liquid phase
Ddisplacement with an organic solvent
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

The lowest temperature to which water can theoretically be cooled in a cooling tower is

Athe dew point of the entering air
Bthe dry bulb temperature of the entering air
Cthe wet bulb temperature of the entering air
D0 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

The range of a cooling tower is defined as

Athe difference between the outlet water temperature and the wet bulb temperature
Bthe difference between the inlet and outlet water temperatures
Cthe difference between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures
Dthe difference between inlet and outlet air temperatures
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

In a cooling tower, blowdown is carried out in order to

Alimit the build-up of dissolved solids in the circulating water
Braise the approach temperature
Cincrease the rate of evaporation
Dreduce the fan power consumption
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1100Ch 6 · Mass Transfer Equipment

Most of the cooling achieved in a cooling tower is due to

Aradiation to the surroundings
Bevaporation of a small fraction of the circulating water
Cconduction through the tower shell
Dsensible heat transfer to the air
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the electrolysis of brine, chlorine is liberated at the

Aboth electrodes
Banode
Ccathode
Ddiaphragm
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

Which chlor-alkali cell gives the lowest overall energy consumption and is the standard for new plants?

ACastner-Kellner cell
BMercury cell
CMembrane cell
DDiaphragm cell
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the Solvay process for soda ash, the substance recovered and recycled is

Aammonia
Bsodium bicarbonate
Ccalcium chloride
Dcarbon dioxide only
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

The Solvay process cannot be used economically to manufacture potassium carbonate because

Aammonia does not dissolve in potassium solutions
Bpotassium bicarbonate is too soluble to precipitate from the solution
Cthe reaction is endothermic
Dpotassium chloride is unavailable
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

The catalyst used in the contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid is

Aplatinum gauze
Bnickel on alumina
Cpromoted iron
Dvanadium pentoxide
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the contact process, sulphur trioxide is absorbed in 98 per cent sulphuric acid rather than in water because

Aabsorption in water produces a fine acid mist that is difficult to capture
Bwater would decompose the sulphur trioxide
Cthe reaction with water is endothermic
Dsulphur trioxide is insoluble in water
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the Ostwald process for nitric acid, ammonia is oxidised over

Aplatinum-rhodium gauze at about 900 °C
Bpromoted iron at about 500 °C
Ccopper-zinc oxide at about 250 °C
Dvanadium pentoxide at about 450 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

Nitric acid cannot be concentrated beyond about 68 per cent by simple distillation because

Ait becomes immiscible with water
Bit decomposes above that concentration
Cit forms a minimum-boiling azeotrope
Dit forms a maximum-boiling azeotrope with water at that composition
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the cryogenic separation of air, the component that is removed first as a vapour from the top of the column is

Anitrogen, because it is the more volatile
Bargon, because it is present in trace amounts
Ccarbon dioxide
Doxygen, because it is the more volatile
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

Acetylene for industrial use is stored dissolved in acetone on a porous filler because

Aacetylene is unstable and can decompose explosively if compressed alone
Bacetylene reacts with steel cylinders
Cacetone increases the calorific value
Dacetylene is a liquid at room temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

Water gas is manufactured by passing steam over incandescent coke; the process is operated in a blow-and-run cycle because

Athe coke must be replaced after each run
Bthe reaction produces too much heat to sustain
Cthe steam reaction is endothermic and cools the bed, which must be reheated by an air blow
Dthe steam supply is intermittent
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

In the Haber-Bosch process, the catalyst used is

Aplatinum-rhodium
Bpromoted iron
Ccopper-zinc oxide
Dvanadium pentoxide
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1100Ch 7 · Alkalies, Acids, Industrial Gases and Solvents

The cumene process is industrially important because it produces

Aphenol and acetone together in fixed proportion
Bonly acetone
Cbenzene and propylene
Donly phenol
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

Gypsum is added to Portland cement clinker during grinding in order to

Aimpart a white colour
Baccelerate the setting of the cement
Cincrease the ultimate strength
Dretard the setting time by controlling the hydration of tricalcium aluminate
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

The compound in Portland cement chiefly responsible for early strength development is

Atricalcium silicate (C₃S)
Bdicalcium silicate (C₂S)
Ctetracalcium aluminoferrite (C₄AF)
Dgypsum
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

For mass concrete work such as a large dam, the preferred cement is one with

Athe finest possible grinding
Ba high gypsum content
Ca high C₂S and low C₃A content, giving a low heat of hydration
Da high C₃S and high C₃A content
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

Portland cement hardens by

Aevaporation of the mixing water
Bchemical reaction with water, so it can set under water
Ccrystallisation on cooling
Dabsorption of carbon dioxide from the air
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

Magnesite and dolomite refractories are classified as

Abasic refractories
Bneutral refractories
Cacidic refractories
Dinsulating refractories
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

A refractory of high porosity generally has

Agood slag resistance and high strength
Bgood insulating value and thermal shock resistance but poor slag resistance and strength
Chigh thermal conductivity
Dthe highest possible refractoriness under load
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

In glass manufacture, limestone is added principally to

Aimpart colour to the glass
Blower the melting point of the batch
Cact as a network former
Dact as a stabiliser and make the glass chemically durable and insoluble
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

Borosilicate glass is preferred for laboratory glassware because it has

Aa very high refractive index
Ba low coefficient of thermal expansion and therefore high thermal shock resistance
Cthe ability to be cut after tempering
Da lower melting point than soda-lime glass
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

The annealing of glass in a lehr is carried out in order to

Arelieve internal stresses developed during forming
Bcolour the glass
Cremove bubbles from the melt
Dincrease the refractive index
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

In the float process, molten glass is floated on a bath of

Awater
Bmolten lead
Cmolten tin
Dmolten glass of a different composition
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

In a paint formulation, the component that forms the continuous film and determines adhesion and durability is the

Abinder
Bpigment
Cdrier
Dsolvent
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

Titanium dioxide is the most widely used white pigment because of its

Aability to act as a solvent
Blow cost compared with all alternatives
Ccatalytic action in drying
Dvery high refractive index, which gives excellent opacity
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1100Ch 7 · Cement, Refractories, Glass and Surface Coatings

A lacquer differs from a varnish and an enamel chiefly in that it

Acontains no resin
Bdries by oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
Cdries purely by evaporation of the solvent, with no chemical change
Dcontains no solvent at all
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

In the fertilizer grade notation, the second and third numbers represent the percentages of

Aelemental P and K
BP₂O₅ and K₂O
Cphosphate rock and potash ore
Dphosphoric acid and potassium hydroxide
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

The principal reason phosphate rock must be chemically processed before use as a fertilizer is that

Ait is too fine to spread
Bit is chemically unstable
Cit is insoluble and therefore unavailable to plants
Dit contains too much nitrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

In the wet process for phosphoric acid, the major solid by-product is

Aphosphogypsum, calcium sulphate
Bammonium chloride
Csodium sulphate
Dcalcium chloride
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Triple superphosphate has a much higher P₂O₅ content than single superphosphate because

Ait is made with nitric acid
Bit uses a richer grade of phosphate rock
Cit contains added ammonia
Dit is made with phosphoric acid, so no diluting calcium sulphate is formed
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Diammonium phosphate (DAP) is produced by reacting phosphoric acid with

Apotassium chloride
Bone mole of ammonia per mole of acid
Csulphuric acid
Dtwo moles of ammonia per mole of acid
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Urea is manufactured from ammonia and carbon dioxide through the intermediate

Aammonium carbonate
Bammonium carbamate
Cammonium nitrate
Dbiuret
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Urea is the most important solid nitrogenous fertilizer because it has

Ano tendency to absorb moisture
Bthe lowest cost of manufacture of any fertilizer
Can alkaline effect on the soil
Dthe highest nitrogen content of any solid fertilizer, about 46 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Biuret in urea fertilizer is undesirable because it is

Atoxic to plants, so its content must be kept below about 1 per cent
Bstrongly hygroscopic
Cresponsible for the fertilizer's colour
Dexplosive on storage
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Ammonium nitrate requires careful regulation in storage and transport because it

Ais highly corrosive to all metals
Bis a strong oxidiser and presents an explosion hazard
Cis radioactive
Ddecomposes to release ammonia at room temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Ammonium sulphate fertilizer has the disadvantage that it

Aacidifies the soil on repeated use
Bhas the highest nitrogen content of all fertilizers
Ccannot be applied to alkaline soils
Dcontains no sulphur
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Potassium sulphate is preferred to potassium chloride for crops such as tobacco and grapes because it

Ahas a higher K₂O content
Balso supplies nitrogen
Cis cheaper to manufacture
Dsupplies no chloride, to which these crops are sensitive
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

The Mannheim process is used for the manufacture of

Apotassium sulphate from potassium chloride and sulphuric acid
Bpotassium chloride from sylvinite
Cammonium sulphate from ammonia
Dphosphoric acid from phosphate rock
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1100Ch 7 · Fertilizer Industries

Potassium chloride is separated from sodium chloride in sylvinite ore mainly by flotation

Adistillation
Belectrolysis of the molten ore
Cmagnetic separation
Dfractional crystallisation exploiting the different temperature dependence of their solubilities, or by froth
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

The principal purpose of chemical pulping of wood is to

Adissolve the cellulose
Bbleach the wood white
Cremove all the water from the wood
Ddissolve and remove the lignin so that the cellulose fibres are freed
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

In the kraft pulping process, the active chemicals in the white liquor are

Asodium hydroxide and sodium sulphide
Bsodium hydroxide alone
Ccalcium bisulphite and sulphurous acid
Dchlorine dioxide and oxygen
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

In the kraft recovery cycle, green liquor is converted back to white liquor by

Acausticising with lime to convert sodium carbonate to sodium hydroxide
Bevaporating it in multiple effects
Cadding fresh sulphuric acid
Dburning it in the recovery furnace
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

In a cane sugar mill, bagasse is used principally as

Aan animal feed only
Bfuel to raise steam, making the mill largely energy self-sufficient
Ca clarifying agent for the juice
Da source of additional sucrose
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Rectified spirit obtained by ordinary distillation of fermented liquor contains about 95 per cent ethanol because

Aethanol and water form a minimum-boiling azeotrope at that composition
Bethanol decomposes above that concentration
Cwater is insoluble in ethanol above 95 per cent
Dthe fermentation cannot proceed beyond that concentration
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Citric acid is manufactured commercially by fermentation using

ALactobacillus
BSaccharomyces cerevisiae
CEscherichia coli
DAspergillus niger
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

In the hydrogenation of vegetable oils, the iodine value of the product

Aincreases, because new double bonds are formed
Bbecomes zero immediately
Cdecreases, because double bonds are saturated
Dremains unchanged
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

The valuable by-product recovered during the manufacture of soap by saponification is

Acaustic soda
Bglycerine
Csodium chloride
Dfatty alcohol
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Synthetic detergents are superior to soap in hard water because they

Acontain no surfactant
Bdo not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and magnesium ions
Chave a much higher pH
Ddissolve the hardness salts completely
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Branched-chain alkylbenzene sulphonate detergents were replaced by the linear form because the branched compounds

Aresist biodegradation and caused persistent foaming in rivers
Bwere too expensive to manufacture
Cwere corrosive to washing machines
Ddid not clean effectively
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Nylon 6,6 is manufactured by the condensation polymerisation of

Ahexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
Bethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
Cacrylonitrile
Dcaprolactam alone
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Viscose rayon is correctly described as

Aa condensation polyester
Ba fully synthetic polyamide
Ca regenerated cellulose fibre
Da natural protein fibre
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1100Ch 7 · Natural Product and Consumer Product Industries

Vat dyes such as indigo are applied to cotton by

Adissolving them directly in hot water
Breducing them to a soluble leuco form, applying, and re-oxidising in the fibre
Cdispersing them with a surfactant at high temperature
Dforming a covalent bond with the cellulose
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Vacuum distillation is used for the atmospheric residue because

Areducing the pressure lowers the boiling temperature and prevents thermal cracking
Batmospheric distillation cannot handle liquids
Cthe residue must be pressurised to separate
Dit increases the relative volatility of all components
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Catalytic reforming of naphtha is carried out principally to

Acombine small olefins into larger molecules
Bremove sulphur from the feed
Cbreak large molecules into smaller ones
Draise the octane number by converting paraffins and naphthenes to aromatics
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

The catalyst used in modern catalytic reforming is

Apromoted iron
Bplatinum-rhenium on chlorided alumina
Ca zeolite
Dcobalt-molybdenum on alumina
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

In a fluid catalytic cracking unit, the heat required for the endothermic cracking reaction is supplied by

Aan external fired heater on the reactor
Bthe exothermic cracking reactions themselves
Cburning the coke deposited on the catalyst in the regenerator
Delectrical heating of the catalyst
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Compared with thermal cracking, catalytic cracking produces

Aa higher yield of gasoline with a higher octane number
Bno gasoline at all
Cmore gas and more coke
Da product richer in straight-chain paraffins
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

In the octane number scale, the reference compound assigned a value of 100 is

An-heptane
Biso-octane
Cbenzene
Dn-octane
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

A hydrocarbon with a high octane number will generally have

Aa high cetane number
Bno cetane number at all
Ca low cetane number
Da cetane number equal to its octane number
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Ethylene and propylene are produced industrially mainly by

Acatalytic reforming of naphtha
Bfractional distillation of crude oil
Csteam cracking of ethane, naphtha or gas oil at 800-900 °C
Dhydrogenation of acetylene
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

The feedstock that gives the highest proportion of ethylene relative to other products in a steam cracker is

Anaphtha
Bheavy gas oil
Cvacuum residue
Dethane
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Which of the following is a condensation polymer?

APolyvinyl chloride
BPolystyrene
CNylon 6,6
DPolyethylene
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

A thermosetting plastic differs from a thermoplastic in that it

Ais cross-linked into a three-dimensional network and cannot be softened and remoulded
Balways has a lower melting point
Csoftens on heating and can be remoulded repeatedly
Dcontains no carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

High-density polyethylene differs from low-density polyethylene chiefly in that HDPE has

Amore branching and hence greater flexibility
Blinear chains with little branching, giving higher density and rigidity
Ca cross-linked thermosetting structure
Da different monomer
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1100Ch 7 · Petroleum Refining, Petrochemicals and Polymers

Among the formaldehyde resins, the one offering the best hardness, water resistance and surface quality is

Aall three are identical in performance
Burea-formaldehyde
Cphenol-formaldehyde
Dmelamine-formaldehyde
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

The nanoscale is generally defined as the size range

A1 to 100 nanometres
B1 to 100 micrometres
C1 to 100 millimetres
D100 to 1000 nanometres
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

The principal reason nanoparticles show greatly enhanced catalytic activity compared with the bulk material is

Atheir lower purity
Btheir very high surface-area-to-volume ratio, which places many more atoms at the surface
Ctheir larger particle mass
Dtheir higher density
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Quantum dots emit light of different colours depending on

Athe temperature alone
Bthe shape of the container
Ctheir particle size
Dtheir chemical composition only
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

A carbon nanotube is classified as a

Athree-dimensional nanomaterial
Bzero-dimensional nanomaterial
Cone-dimensional nanomaterial
Dtwo-dimensional nanomaterial
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Graphene is best described as

Aa closed cage of sixty carbon atoms
Ba rolled cylinder of carbon atoms
Ca single atomic layer of carbon atoms in a hexagonal lattice
Dan amorphous form of carbon
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Synthesis of nanomaterials by ball milling of a bulk material is an example of

Aa top-down approach
Bchemical vapour deposition
Ca bottom-up approach
Dself-assembly
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

The melting point of a metallic nanoparticle compared with that of the bulk metal is

Asignificantly lower
Bexactly the same
Csignificantly higher
Dindependent of particle size
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Titanium dioxide nanoparticles are used in self-cleaning glass because they

Aabsorb water into the glass
Bphotocatalytically decompose organic dirt under ultraviolet light and make the surface hydrophilic
Creflect all visible light
Dform a hard scratch-resistant layer only
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide nanoparticles are preferred to their bulk forms in sunscreens because they

Ablock ultraviolet radiation while appearing transparent rather than white on the skin
Babsorb more visible light
Cpenetrate deep into the bloodstream
Dchemically react with ultraviolet light to produce vitamin D
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

The main advantage of nanoparticle-based targeted drug delivery is that it

Aincreases the toxicity of the drug to healthy tissue
Beliminates the need for any drug at all
Cmakes all drugs effective orally
Dconcentrates the drug at the diseased site, reducing the dose needed and the side effects
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Superparamagnetic iron oxide nanoparticles are used in medicine principally as

Aoral antibiotics
BX-ray shielding
Ccontrast agents for magnetic resonance imaging and for magnetic hyperthermia
Dstructural implants
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

Nano-fertilizers offer an advantage over conventional fertilizers because they

Aeliminate the need for soil
Bcontain no nutrients at all
Crelease nutrients in a controlled manner, so less is needed and runoff losses are reduced
Ddissolve instantly and completely on application
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1100Ch 7 · Nanotechnology

The toxicity of a nanomaterial depends on

Aits size, shape, surface chemistry and solubility, not on its chemical composition alone
Bnothing, since all nanomaterials are safe
Cits chemical composition alone
Dits colour
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

The primary objective of a process control system is

Aelimination of all measurement error
Bmaximisation of production rate
Cthe safety of personnel, the plant and the environment
Dminimisation of capital cost
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

A control problem in which the set point is held constant and the controller must counteract disturbances is called

Aa regulatory problem
Ba servo problem
Ca feedforward problem
Dan open-loop problem
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

The proportional band of a controller is related to its gain by

APB = 100Kc
BPB = Kc
CPB = Kc/100
DPB = 100/Kc
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

A purely proportional controller always leaves a steady-state offset because

Ait saturates at the set point
Ba non-zero error is required to hold the controller output away from its bias value
Cits gain is always too low
Dit responds only to the rate of change of error
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Increasing the gain of a proportional controller will

Ahave no effect on the offset
Breduce the offset but never eliminate it, and eventually cause instability
Celiminate the offset completely
Dincrease the offset
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Integral action in a controller is used principally to

Areduce the effect of measurement noise
Banticipate future errors
Cspeed up the initial response
Deliminate steady-state offset
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Reset windup in a PI controller occurs when

Athe measurement signal becomes noisy
Bthe derivative gain is set too high
Cthe set point is changed too slowly
Da sustained error saturates the final control element while the integral term continues to accumulate
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Derivative action cannot be used alone as a control mode because

Ait eliminates offset too quickly
Bit cannot be implemented in hardware
Cit produces no output when the error is constant, however large that error may be
Dit always makes the loop unstable
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Derivative action is generally avoided on flow control loops because

Aflow loops have no offset
Bflow measurements are noisy and differentiation amplifies the noise
Cderivative action cannot handle liquids
Dflow loops respond too slowly
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

An air-to-open control valve will, on failure of the instrument air supply,

Aclose
Boscillate
Cremain in its last position
Dopen fully
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

For cooling water supplied to an exothermic reactor, the control valve should be selected as

Afail-open, so that cooling continues if the air supply fails
Bfail-closed, to stop the flow of water
Cfail-in-place
Deither, since it makes no difference
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

An equal percentage valve characteristic means that

Athe flow is independent of stem position
Bthe valve passes most of its flow in the first part of the travel
Cequal increments of lift produce equal increments of flow
Dequal increments of stem lift produce equal percentage changes in the existing flow
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1100Ch 8 · Introduction to Process Control, Modelling and Controller Modes

Cavitation in a control valve occurs when the pressure at the vena contracta falls below the liquid's vapour pressure and

Athe valve is fully closed
Bthe downstream pressure remains below the vapour pressure
Cthe downstream pressure then recovers above the vapour pressure, collapsing the bubbles
Dthe liquid temperature falls sharply
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

The principal advantage of feedforward control over feedback control is that it

Ais unaffected by model inaccuracy
Bhandles unmeasured disturbances automatically
Ctakes corrective action before the disturbance affects the controlled variable
Drequires no measurement of any kind
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

The most serious limitation of pure feedforward control is that

Ait responds only after an error appears
Bit always makes the loop unstable
Cit cannot compensate for disturbances that are not measured
Dit cannot be combined with feedback
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

In a cascade control system, the output of the master controller serves as

Athe measurement of the slave controller
Bthe set point of the slave controller
Cthe disturbance to the process
Dthe direct signal to the control valve
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

For cascade control to be effective, the inner (slave) loop must be

Asignificantly slower than the outer loop
Bsignificantly faster than the outer loop, typically by a factor of three to five
Ccontrolled by a PID controller with derivative action
Dexactly the same speed as the outer loop
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

In a cascade control system, integral action is normally required in

Aboth controllers equally
Bneither controller
Cthe slave controller only
Dthe master controller only
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

In ratio control, the stream that is measured but not manipulated is called the

Acontrolled stream
Bmanipulated stream
Cset point stream
Dwild stream
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

The preferred implementation of ratio control multiplies the measured wild flow by the desired ratio rather than dividing two measurements because

Athe ratio would otherwise be inverted
Bdivision amplifies measurement noise at low flow rates
Cdivision cannot be performed by a controller
Dmultiplication is cheaper to implement
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

Split-range control refers to an arrangement in which

Athe signal is split between the controller and the recorder
Bone controller output drives two or more final control elements over different parts of its range
Cthe control range is divided between two operators
Dtwo controllers share one measurement
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

Tray temperature is commonly used to control composition in a distillation column because

Atemperature is the variable to be controlled
Bcomposition is not important in distillation
Con-line composition analysers are slow and expensive, and temperature responds quickly
Dtemperature is unaffected by pressure changes
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

Pressure control is established first on a distillation column because

Apressure affects only the condenser
Brelative volatility, and hence the entire separation, depends on pressure
Cpressure is the easiest variable to measure
Dthe column cannot be started otherwise
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

In the relative gain array, a relative gain of exactly 1.0 for a particular pairing indicates that

Athe loop is unstable
Bthe loop does not interact with the other loops
Cthe pairing must be avoided
Dthe loops interact very strongly
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

A pairing with a negative relative gain should

Abe used only with derivative action
Bnever be used, because the loop will be unstable if the other loop is switched off or saturates
Cbe used only for level loops
Dalways be preferred, since it shows strong coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1100Ch 8 · Advanced Control Schemes

Cascade control of reactor temperature onto jacket temperature is used because

Ait removes the need for integral action anywhere
Bit eliminates the need for a control valve
Cdisturbances in the coolant supply are corrected by the fast inner loop before they reach the reactor
Dthe jacket temperature is the variable of real interest
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A first-order system subjected to a step input reaches what percentage of its final value in one time constant?

A95 per cent
B50 per cent
C86.5 per cent
D63.2 per cent
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A first-order system responding to a step change

Aoscillates with decaying amplitude
Bapproaches its final value exponentially without overshoot or oscillation
Covershoots and then settles
Dresponds instantaneously
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A liquid level tank whose outflow is maintained by a constant-displacement pump behaves as

Aa second-order underdamped system
Ba first-order system with time constant AR
Ca pure integrator with no self-regulation
Da system with dead time only
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A second-order system with a damping coefficient of 0.5 will

Aapproach the final value without any overshoot
Boscillate with decaying amplitude and overshoot its final value
Coscillate with constant amplitude
Ddiverge from the final value
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

The fastest response of a second-order system that exhibits no overshoot at all occurs when the system is

Aoverdamped, with ζ greater than 1
Bundamped, with ζ = 0
Cunderdamped, with ζ less than 1
Dcritically damped, with ζ = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

The decay ratio of an underdamped second-order response is related to the overshoot by

Adecay ratio = overshoot
Bdecay ratio = (overshoot)²
Cdecay ratio = √overshoot
Ddecay ratio = 1 − overshoot
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

Two non-interacting first-order systems in series will produce a response that is

Aalways overdamped and therefore never oscillatory
Bunstable
Calways underdamped and oscillatory
Dcritically damped in every case
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A U-tube manometer is a classic example of a second-order system because it possesses

Atwo non-interacting capacities
Binertia of the liquid column, a gravitational restoring force and viscous damping
Ca pure integrating action
Ddead time and a first-order lag
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

Compared with the corresponding non-interacting system, two interacting tanks in series give a response that is

Aidentical in every respect
Bfaster, because the tanks assist each other
Coscillatory
Dmore sluggish, because interaction increases the effective damping
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

The transfer function representing a dead time of θ is

Aθs
B1/θs
C1/(θs + 1)
De−θs
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

Dead time is particularly troublesome in a feedback control loop because it

Areduces the process gain to zero
Beliminates the steady-state offset
Cincreases the amplitude ratio at high frequency
Dadds phase lag that grows without limit as frequency rises, while causing no attenuation
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

A process with a large ratio of dead time to time constant is best handled by

Aincreasing the controller gain sharply
Bdetuning the controller or using a dead-time compensator such as a Smith predictor
Cadding more derivative action
Dremoving integral action entirely
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Open-loop Systems

Inverse response, in which the output initially moves in the direction opposite to its eventual change, is caused by

Aexcessive integral action
Ba pole at the origin
Ca zero in the right half of the complex plane
Da negative steady-state gain
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

For a simple feedback loop, the closed-loop transfer function for a set point change is

Athe inverse of the open-loop transfer function
Bthe product of the forward path blocks divided by one plus the open-loop transfer function
Cthe product of all blocks around the loop
Done plus the open-loop transfer function
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

When a first-order process is placed under proportional control, the closed-loop time constant is

Azero
Bidentical to that of the process
Clarger than that of the process alone
Dsmaller than that of the process alone, so the response is faster
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

For a first-order process under proportional control with loop gain product KcKp, the offset following a unit step change in set point is

Azero
BKcKp/(1 + KcKp)
C1/(1 + KcKp)
D1 + KcKp
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

Adding integral action to a proportional controller on a first-order process

Aleaves the closed-loop order unchanged
Braises the order of the closed loop to two and can cause overshoot
Cguarantees that the response cannot oscillate
Dmakes the closed loop first order
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is

A1 + GOL = 0
BGOL = 0
C1 − GOL = 0
DGOL = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

A feedback control system is stable if and only if

Aat least one root has a negative real part
Ball roots are real
Cthe open-loop gain is greater than one
Dall roots of the characteristic equation have negative real parts
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

If one coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is negative while the others are positive, the system is

Acertainly stable
Bstable only if the gain is low
Cmarginally stable
Dcertainly unstable
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

In the Routh array, the number of roots lying in the right half of the complex plane equals

Athe degree of the polynomial
Bthe number of rows in the array
Cthe number of zero entries in the array
Dthe number of sign changes in the first column
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

The ultimate gain of a control loop is the proportional gain at which

Athe offset becomes zero
Bthe loop oscillates continuously with constant amplitude
Cthe response becomes critically damped
Dthe controller output saturates
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

Which of the following changes tends to make a control loop less stable?

ARemoving a lag from the loop
BAdding derivative action
CDecreasing the controller gain
DIncreasing the dead time in the loop
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

A first-order process controlled by a purely proportional controller is

Astable for any value of the controller gain
Balways unstable
Cstable only at very low gain
Dunstable above a certain gain
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

The standard electronic instrument signal range is

A0 to 20 mA
B3 to 15 mA
C0 to 10 V only
D4 to 20 mA
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1100Ch 8 · Linear Closed-loop Systems

Persistent cycling of an otherwise well-tuned control loop is most commonly caused by

Aexcessive derivative gain
Btoo wide a proportional band
Cstiction in the control valve stem packing
Dan oversized transmitter span
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

When a stable linear system is subjected to a sustained sinusoidal input, the output is

Aa sinusoid of the same frequency but different amplitude and phase
Ba steady constant value
Ca sinusoid of different frequency
Dan exponentially growing signal
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

For a first-order lag at the corner frequency, the amplitude ratio and phase angle are

A0.707 and −90°
B1.0 and 0°
C0.707 and −45°
D0.5 and −90°
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The high-frequency asymptote of the Bode amplitude plot for a first-order lag has a slope of

A−40 decibels per decade
Bzero
C−20 decibels per decade
D−10 decibels per decade
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The amplitude ratio of a pure dead time element is

Aproportional to frequency
Bunity at all frequencies
Cinversely proportional to frequency
Dzero at all frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

According to the Bode stability criterion, a closed-loop system is stable if the open-loop amplitude ratio is

Aequal to 1 at zero frequency
Bless than 1 at all frequencies
Cgreater than 1 at the frequency where the phase lag is −180°
Dless than 1 at the frequency where the phase lag is −180°
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The phase angle contributed by a pure integrating element is

A−90° at all frequencies
B−45° at all frequencies
C0°
D+90° at all frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The gain margin of a control loop is defined as

Athe ultimate gain divided by the actual gain at all frequencies
Bthe reciprocal of the open-loop amplitude ratio at the crossover frequency
C180° plus the phase angle where AR = 1
Dthe amplitude ratio at zero frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

A recommended design value for the phase margin of a control loop is

A90 to 120 degrees
B180 degrees
C30 to 45 degrees
D0 to 5 degrees
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

In the Ziegler-Nichols continuous cycling method, the controller gain for a PI controller is set at

A0.6 Kcu
B1.2 Kcu
C0.5 Kcu
D0.45 Kcu
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The principal practical objection to the Ziegler-Nichols continuous cycling tuning method is that

Ait cannot be used on PI controllers
Bit requires the plant to be driven to the point of sustained oscillation
Cit needs a mathematical model of the process
Dit gives an excessively sluggish response
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

The process reaction curve method of tuning requires

Ano plant test at all
Bdriving the loop to continuous oscillation
Ca single step test with the controller in manual
Da frequency response test over many frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

Among the integral error criteria, the one that gives the least oscillatory controller settings is

AIAE
BISE
Call three give identical settings
DITAE
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1100Ch 8 · Frequency Response and Controller Tuning

A control loop that cycles slowly and continuously, and whose behaviour does not improve at any controller setting, most probably suffers from

Atoo high a controller gain
Btoo much derivative action
Cstiction or hysteresis in the control valve
Dan incorrectly ranged transmitter
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

The accuracy of an instrument refers to

Ahow close its reading is to the true value
Bthe slope of its calibration curve
Chow closely repeated readings agree with one another
Dthe smallest change it can detect
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

A thermocouple generates an EMF as a result of

Athe differential expansion of two bonded metals
Bthe Seebeck effect at the junction of two dissimilar metals
Cthe emission of thermal radiation
Dthe change in electrical resistance with temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

Compared with a thermocouple, a platinum resistance thermometer offers

Ano need for any external power supply
Ba faster response and higher output voltage
Cgreater accuracy, stability and linearity but a narrower range and slower response
Da wider temperature range and lower cost
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

A piezoelectric pressure transducer is unsuitable for measuring

Aa steady, unchanging pressure
Bvibration
Crapidly fluctuating pressures
Dshock and blast pressures
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

An electromagnetic flowmeter can be used only when the fluid

Acontains no suspended solids
Bis non-conductive
Cis electrically conductive
Dis a gas
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

The instrument that measures true mass flow rate directly, rather than inferring it from volumetric flow, is the

Aorifice meter
Bvortex shedding meter
CCoriolis meter
Dturbine meter
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

Differential pressure measurement of liquid level requires that

Athe liquid be electrically conductive
Bthe density of the liquid be known and reasonably constant
Cthe tank be open to the atmosphere
Dthe liquid contain no solids
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

The Karl Fischer titration is used specifically for the determination of

Adissolved oxygen
Bwater content
Ctotal solids content
DpH
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

At 25 °C, the theoretical response of a glass pH electrode is approximately

A1.0 mV per pH unit
B59.16 mV per pH unit
C100 mV per pH unit
D0.059 mV per pH unit
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

The glass membrane of a pH electrode must never be allowed to dry out because

Athe cable will become disconnected
Bthe reference electrolyte will crystallise
Cthe hydrated gel layer responsible for the response is lost and the electrode fails
Dthe glass will crack immediately
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

pH control is regarded as one of the most difficult control problems because

Athe titration curve is extremely non-linear, so the process gain varies by orders of magnitude
BpH responds too slowly to be controlled
Creagent valves cannot be automated
DpH cannot be measured on line
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

In reversed phase HPLC, the stationary phase is non-polar and the mobile phase polar, so

Aelution order depends only on molecular weight
Ball compounds elute at the same time
Cpolar compounds elute first and non-polar compounds are retained longest
Dnon-polar compounds elute first
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1100Ch 8 · Instrumentation

HPLC is preferred to gas chromatography for the analysis of

Apermanent gases
Bvolatile solvents only
Cnon-volatile and thermally labile compounds such as proteins and many pharmaceuticals
Dlight hydrocarbons
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

In the hierarchy of hazard control, personal protective equipment is regarded as

Athe first and most effective control measure
Bequivalent in effectiveness to elimination
Cthe last line of defence, to be used only when higher controls are impracticable
Dan engineering control
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

The flash point of a flammable liquid is the lowest temperature at which

Ait ignites spontaneously without any external source
Bit continues to burn once ignited
Cit begins to boil
Dit gives off enough vapour to form a mixture that ignites momentarily on application of a flame
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

A vapour-air mixture whose concentration is above the upper flammable limit

Awill ignite more violently than at any other concentration
Bwill not ignite, because it is too rich in fuel
Cwill ignite only below the flash point
Dwill detonate rather than deflagrate
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

The principal difference between a deflagration and a detonation is that in a detonation

Ano pressure rise occurs
Bthe combustion front travels faster than the speed of sound, producing a shock wave
Cthe flame front travels more slowly
Dno oxygen is required
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

A BLEVE occurs when vapour

Aa flammable cloud drifts and ignites in the open
Ba dust cloud ignites in a confined space
Ca vessel containing a liquid above its atmospheric boiling point fails and the contents flash instantly to
Da reaction generates heat faster than it can be removed
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

In a dust explosion, the secondary explosion is usually

Aidentical in magnitude to the primary
Bimpossible if the dust is fine
Cfar more destructive than the primary, because the primary blast disperses settled dust
Dmuch weaker than the primary
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

A storage tank is most likely to collapse inwards when

Athe relief valve lifts
Bit is drained or steam-cleaned and then cools without an adequate vacuum breaker
Cit is overfilled with liquid
Dit is pressurised with nitrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

The TLV-STEL of a substance refers to the permissible exposure averaged over

A15 minutes
B40 hours
C8 hours
Dan instant that must never be exceeded
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

A substance with a lower LD50 value than another is

Aless toxic
Bmore corrosive
Cmore flammable
Dmore toxic
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

Carbon monoxide is classified as a

Anon-toxic gas
Bchemical asphyxiant, because it interferes with the transport of oxygen in the blood
Ccorrosive gas
Dsimple asphyxiant, because it displaces oxygen from the air
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

Electrostatic ignition of a flammable atmosphere is prevented principally by

Araising the ambient temperature
Bbonding and earthing all conductive equipment and limiting fill velocities
Cusing plastic containers for flammable liquids
Dincreasing the flow rate to disperse the charge
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

Noise-induced hearing loss is particularly insidious because it

Aoccurs only above 120 decibels
Bdevelops painlessly and gradually, and is permanent and irreversible
Cappears suddenly and can be reversed by rest
Daffects only very low frequencies
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1100Ch 9 · Types of Hazards in Chemical Industries

A HAZOP study is characterised by team

Athe calculation of a numerical hazard index from material properties
Ba deductive analysis starting from a defined top event
Cthe systematic application of guide words to process parameters, node by node, by a multidisciplinary
Dan inductive analysis tracing forward from an initiating event
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

The international standard for occupational health and safety management systems is

AISO 9001
BISO 17025
CISO 45001
DISO 14001
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

The main practical value of investigating near misses is that

Athey are far more numerous than injuries and reveal the same underlying causes before harm occurs
Bthey are more serious than actual injuries
Cthey are required for insurance claims
Dthey allow blame to be assigned more easily
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

A low lost-time injury frequency rate at a chemical plant

Ais a leading indicator of future performance
Bproves that the risk of a major accident is low
Cmeans no hazards remain on the site
Ddoes not by itself indicate good process safety performance
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

Acids must never be stored alongside cyanide or sulphide salts because

Athe containers would corrode more slowly
Bcontact would liberate highly toxic hydrogen cyanide or hydrogen sulphide gas
Cthe mixture would solidify
Dthe acid would be neutralised and wasted
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

A cartridge-type filtering respirator must never be used

Awhen dust is present
Bfor protection against organic vapours
Cin an oxygen-deficient or unknown atmosphere
Din a well-ventilated area
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

Lockout-tagout procedures must isolate

Aelectrical energy only
Bonly the energy sources the worker considers relevant
Call forms of stored energy, including pressure, mechanical, thermal and chemical as well as electrical
Dthe process fluid but not the utilities
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

The majority of fatalities in confined space incidents are

Awould-be rescuers who enter without breathing apparatus
Bcaused by falls from height
Cthe result of fire
Dthe original entrants alone
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

A hot work permit is required principally to ensure that

Athe equipment is properly earthed only
Bthe work is completed within a set time
Cthe welder holds a valid trade certificate
Dgas testing, removal of combustibles and a fire watch are in place before and after the work
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

Management of change procedures exist because accidents

Aunreviewed modifications to plant, process or organisation are a common underlying cause of major
Bthey are required only for changes to electrical systems
Cchanges are always prohibited in chemical plants
Dthey reduce the cost of modifications
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

The correct sequence of the disaster management cycle is

Apreparedness, mitigation, recovery, response
Bmitigation, preparedness, response, recovery
Crecovery, response, preparedness, mitigation
Dresponse, recovery, mitigation, preparedness
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

An off-site emergency plan differs from an on-site plan in that it

Ais prepared solely by the insurance company
Baddresses consequences that extend beyond the plant boundary and is prepared with the local authority
Ccovers only the plant's own employees
Dapplies only to fires
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

Taking out insurance against a major accident

Aeliminates the hazard entirely
Bremoves the need for engineering controls
Ctransfers the financial consequences but does not reduce the physical risk
Dis a form of engineering control
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1100Ch 9 · Occupational Health and Safety Management

Under Nepal's Labour Act, 2074, safety equipment required for the work must be

Ashared between employer and worker equally
Bpurchased by the worker
Cprovided by the employer at the employer's cost
Dprovided only on written request by the worker
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

Ground-level ozone in an urban atmosphere is classified as

Aa secondary pollutant, formed from nitrogen oxides and volatile organics in sunlight
Ba primary pollutant emitted by power stations
Ca primary pollutant emitted by vehicles
Dan inert gas with no health effects
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

Acid rain is caused principally by atmospheric emissions of

Acarbon monoxide alone
Bcarbon dioxide and methane
Csulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
Dchlorofluorocarbons and halons
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

A temperature inversion over an industrial area results in

Atrapping of pollutants near the ground and severely reduced dispersion
Ba reduction in emissions at source
Cthe complete destruction of pollutants
Dimproved dispersion of pollutants
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

Of the following, the device least suitable for removing particles smaller than 5 micrometres is the

Aelectrostatic precipitator
Bgravity settling chamber
Cventuri scrubber
Dfabric filter
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

The collection efficiency of a cyclone separator increases as

Athe gas velocity is reduced
Bthe particle density is reduced
Cits diameter is increased
Dits diameter is reduced, which is why multiple small cyclones are used in parallel
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

The performance of an electrostatic precipitator is most strongly affected by

Athe height of the stack
Bthe electrical resistivity of the dust
Cthe colour of the dust
Dthe moisture content of the collected dust alone
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

A fabric filter (baghouse) is unsuitable when the gas stream

Ais near its dew point, since condensed moisture blinds the bags
Bhas a high dust loading
Ccontains very fine particles
Dis at ambient temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

In flue gas desulphurisation using a lime or limestone slurry, the principal solid product is

Agypsum, calcium sulphate
Bcalcium carbide
Csodium sulphate
Delemental sulphur
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

Selective catalytic reduction for the control of nitrogen oxides uses

Aammonia or urea injected over a catalyst
Blime slurry in a wet scrubber
Can electrostatic field
Dactivated carbon adsorption
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

For any given wastewater, the chemical oxygen demand is

Aexactly equal to the biochemical oxygen demand
Balways less than the biochemical oxygen demand
Calways greater than the biochemical oxygen demand
Dunrelated to the biochemical oxygen demand
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

A wastewater with a BOD to COD ratio of 0.1 is best described as

Afree of organic matter
Bsuitable for direct discharge
Cpoorly biodegradable, so physico-chemical treatment is indicated
Dreadily biodegradable, so biological treatment will work well
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

Eutrophication of a freshwater body is usually limited by the availability of

Acarbon
Boxygen
Cnitrogen
Dphosphorus
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1100Ch 9 · Pollution and Its Control

The principal environmental legislation currently governing pollution control in Nepal is the

AConsumer Protection Act, 2075 (2018)
BEnvironment Protection Act, 2076 (2019)
CLabour Act, 2074 (2017)
DEnvironment Protection Act, 2053 (1996)
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

In the waste management hierarchy, the most preferred option is

Aprevention of waste generation at source
Brecycling
Cenergy recovery
Dsecure landfill
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Compared with end-of-pipe treatment, source reduction is preferred because

Ait requires more equipment
Bit produces more sludge
Cit prevents the waste from being formed rather than transferring the problem to another medium
Dit is always legally required
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Primary treatment of wastewater removes approximately what proportion of the BOD?

AAbout 30 per cent
BAbout 90 per cent
CNone at all
DEssentially all of it
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

In the activated sludge process, part of the settled sludge is returned to the aeration tank in order to

Amaintain the required concentration of micro-organisms
Bdilute the incoming wastewater
Cincrease the hydraulic loading
Dremove nutrients chemically
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Bulking in an activated sludge plant refers to

Apoor settling of the sludge caused by the growth of filamentous organisms
Bexcessive accumulation of grit
Coverloading of the screens
Dformation of scum on the primary clarifier
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Anaerobic treatment is preferred to aerobic treatment for high-strength industrial effluents because it

Aproduces an effluent that always meets discharge standards
Bproduces methane and generates far less excess sludge
Cis much faster than aerobic treatment
Drequires no temperature control
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Hexavalent chromium in an industrial effluent is normally treated by

Aoxidation to a higher oxidation state
Breduction to the trivalent form followed by precipitation as the hydroxide
Cdilution with clean water
Ddirect discharge, since it is non-toxic
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

Segregation of industrial effluent streams at source is recommended because stream

Ait is cheaper to build one large pipe
Bmixed effluents are always easier to treat
Cit reduces the total volume of effluent to zero
Deach stream can be treated by the method appropriate to it, instead of diluting a concentrated toxic
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

A waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits

Aignitability, corrosivity, reactivity or toxicity
Ba high water content
Ca low calorific value
Da strong colour
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

The cradle-to-grave principle for hazardous waste means that

Athe waste must be buried immediately on generation
Bthe waste may be exported without restriction
Cthe generator remains responsible for the waste through transport, treatment and final disposal
Dresponsibility passes to the transporter once collected
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

The three Ts of effective hazardous waste incineration are

Atime, transport and treatment
Btemperature, time and turbulence
Cturbulence, toxicity and tonnage
Dtemperature, toxicity and transport
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

An effluent standard differs from a stream standard in that an effluent standard

Aspecifies the quality to be maintained in the receiving water body
Blimits the quality of the discharge at the point it leaves the plant
Cdepends on the designated use of the river
Drequires knowledge of the assimilative capacity of the receiving water
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1100Ch 9 · Industrial Waste Management

In the environmental impact assessment process, the step that determines which issues and impacts should be studied in detail is called

Aauditing
Bscreening
Cscoping
Dbaseline study
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

The single most important step in an effective municipal solid waste management system is

Aincreasing the capacity of the landfill
Bpurchasing more collection vehicles
Csegregation of waste at source
Dincreasing the height of the incinerator stack
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

For successful composting, the carbon-to-nitrogen ratio of the feedstock should be approximately

A25 to 30
B5 to 10
C1 to 2
D100 to 150
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

A sanitary landfill differs from an open dump principally in that it has

Aa higher waste compaction only
Bno need for any monitoring
Can engineered liner, leachate collection and treatment, gas extraction and daily cover
Da larger area
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Capturing landfill gas is environmentally beneficial even when the energy is not used because

Ait increases the landfill capacity
Bmethane is a far more potent greenhouse gas than the carbon dioxide produced by burning it
Cmethane is toxic to humans at any concentration
Dthe gas has no calorific value
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Refuse-derived fuel is particularly suitable for use in cement kilns because incorporated into the clinker

Atheir high temperature and long residence time destroy organic compounds completely and the ash is
Bcement kilns operate at low temperature
Ccement kilns produce no emissions
Dthe fuel requires no preparation
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Which of the following is an example of by-product recovery rather than end-of-pipe treatment?

AInstalling a taller stack to disperse emissions
BProducing saleable gypsum from flue gas desulphurisation
CSending sludge to landfill
DDiluting an effluent before discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Cleaner production is best described as

Aa system of environmental penalties
Ban improved form of end-of-pipe treatment
Ca method of designing taller stacks
Da preventive strategy applied at source to processes, products and services
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Life cycle assessment evaluates the environmental impact of a product

Afrom raw material extraction through manufacture and use to final disposal
Bonly during its use
Conly at the point of disposal
Donly during its manufacture
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

ISO 14001 certification of a company confirms that

Aits emissions are below all national limits
Bits products are environmentally superior to competitors' products
Cit produces no waste
Dit has an environmental management system meeting the standard's requirements
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

The polluter pays principle holds that

Athe cost of preventing and remedying pollution should be borne by the party that causes it
Bthe government should bear the cost of all pollution control
Cpollution is acceptable provided a fee is paid
Dconsumers should pay for industrial pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

The precautionary principle states that irreversible harm

Ano action should be taken until the science is conclusive
Bonly proven harms require regulation
Clack of full scientific certainty should not be used as a reason to postpone measures to prevent serious or
Dall industrial activity should cease
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Extended producer responsibility means that

Aconsumers must dispose of products themselves
Bthe government disposes of all products
Cthe producer remains responsible for the product at the end of its useful life
Dthe producer is responsible only until the product is sold
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1100Ch 9 · Solid Waste Disposal, Recovery and Cleaner Production

Under Nepal's Solid Waste Management Act, 2068 (2011), primary responsibility for the management of municipal solid waste rests with

Athe individual householder alone
Bthe local bodies
Cprivate companies exclusively
Dthe federal ministry directly
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

The essential difference between quality control and quality assurance is that quality control is

Apreventive, while quality assurance is detective
Bconcerned only with documentation
Cdetective and product oriented, while quality assurance is preventive and process oriented
Dcarried out only by management
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

The statement that quality cannot be inspected into a product means that

Ainspection is unnecessary in any process
Binspection sorts good from bad but does not reduce the number of defects produced
Cinspection should be carried out more frequently
Donly the customer can judge quality
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

Among the four categories of quality cost, the most expensive is usually

Aprevention cost
Bappraisal cost
Cinternal failure cost
Dexternal failure cost
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

A process that exhibits only common cause variation is described as

Aproducing only acceptable product
Bincapable of improvement
Cout of control
Din statistical control, and therefore predictable
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

Control limits on a control chart are

Aalways the same as the specification limits
Bcalculated from the process data and describe what the process actually does
Cchosen arbitrarily by the operator
Dset by the customer and describe what is wanted
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

For measured variable data, the pair of control charts normally used together is

Athe Pareto chart and the histogram
Bthe p chart and the np chart
Cthe X-bar chart and the R chart
Dthe c chart and the u chart
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

A process capability index Cpk of 1.0 indicates that

Athe process is out of statistical control
Bthe process cannot produce any acceptable product
Cthe process output just fills the specification with no margin for drift
Dthe process is highly capable
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

The Pareto chart is used in quality improvement to

Adisplay the distribution of a measured variable
Borganise possible causes by category
Cidentify the few causes responsible for the majority of the defects
Dshow the relationship between two variables
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

In acceptance sampling, the producer's risk is the probability that

Aa good lot is rejected by the sampling plan
Bthe sample is drawn incorrectly
Cthe inspector makes a measurement error
Da bad lot is accepted by the sampling plan
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

A quality circle is best described as problems

Aa compulsory training programme for all staff
Ba team of external auditors
Ca committee of senior managers who set quality policy
Da small voluntary group of employees from the same work area who identify and solve work-related
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

The Japanese term kaizen refers to

Aa single large capital investment in new equipment
Bcontinuous incremental improvement involving everyone in the organisation
Ca statistical sampling technique
Dthe elimination of the quality department
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

Poka-yoke, or mistake proofing, refers to

Aincreasing the frequency of statistical sampling
Bpunishing operators who make errors
Cinspecting every item produced
Ddesigning a process so that an error cannot be made or cannot pass undetected
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1100Ch 9 · Quality and Quality Control

Certification of a company to ISO 9001 means that

Aits products are certified as superior to those of competitors
Bits quality management system meets the requirements of the standard
Cits products carry a compulsory national quality mark
Dit has achieved a defect rate of 3.4 per million
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:

A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The size of an A4 sheet is:

A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:

ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:

ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:

A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:

AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:

ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:

APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:

A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

The angle between any two isometric axes is:

A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:

ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts

Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?

ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:

ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:

A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:

ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:

AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:

ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:

ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:

AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

MARR is best described as:

AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:

AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:

ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:

A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics

Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:

ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A project is best defined as:

AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:

AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:

ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:

ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:

AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

The critical path of a project network is the:

APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:

A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:

A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

PERT is most suitable for:

AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:

ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:

AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling

In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:

AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:

A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:

AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:

AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:

AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:

AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

In a BOT arrangement, the private party:

AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:

AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:

ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:

ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:

ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:

APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Management

A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:

ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:

AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:

AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:

AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:

AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:

AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:

AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:

ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:

AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:

A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:

AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:

AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice

A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:

ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:

APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:

A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:

AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:

AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:

ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:

ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:

AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:

ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:

AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council

Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?

ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............

Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............

A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]

A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]

A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]

AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]

Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]

ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]

A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]

A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]

A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]

Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]

Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]

Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]

Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]

AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............

A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following represent reducing scale?

A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is enlarging scale?

A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.

A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]

A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]

Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]

Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]

Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]

AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]

AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]

Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]

Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]

AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]

Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]

Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]

Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]

AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?

AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]

Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]

Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]

ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]

Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]

Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]

AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]

Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]

Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]

A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]

AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]

Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]

A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]

Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]

AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]

Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]

Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]

A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a cash flow series ............

Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?

ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............

Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............

Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............

Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............

Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............

Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the element of total cost?

AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Statement of cash flows includes ............

Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Material cost is concerned with ............

Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............

Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............

Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The given symbol in a drawing represents ............

Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The side view of given orthographic projection is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The top view of given figure is ............

Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?

ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Payback period is counted only after ............

Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Time value of money indicates that ............

Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............

A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?

A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............

A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............

Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Sinking fund is ............

Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............

Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?

AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............

Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?

APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............

Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............

Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............

Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........

AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........

Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?

AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............

Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Depreciation is charged on ............

Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?

AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]

Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]

Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]

Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]

Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]

A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]

Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]

Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]

Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]

Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]

Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]

Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]

Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]

Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]

Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]

Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]

Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book value means ............[cite: 15]

Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]

Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]

Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]

Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]

ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]

Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]

AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]

Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]

Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]

Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]

Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]

AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]

ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]

ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]

ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]

Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CPM is the ............[cite: 13]

Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is a critical path?[cite: 13]

AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]

AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]

A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]

AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............

Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?

Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is true about dummy?

AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Dummy is used for ............

Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............

Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project crashing is the method for ............

Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............

Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............

Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............

Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The full form of PERT is ............

Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is PERT analysis based on?

AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............

ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............

A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............

Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............

Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?

A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............

Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]

Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]

APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]

AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]

ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]

AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]

Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]

ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]

ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]

Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]

Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]

Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]

ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]

Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]

AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]

Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]

Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]

Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]

AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]

Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]

Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management when does planning take place?

ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?

APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]

AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]

Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]

Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]

Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]

Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]

Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]

Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]

Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]

ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]

Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]

Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]

Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]

Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]

Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]

Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]

ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]

AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]

APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]

AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]

AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]

AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]

AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]

Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]

Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]

AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]

Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]

APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]

Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]

Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]

Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Debenture is ............[cite: 16]

Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A debenture ............[cite: 16]

Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]

APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]

Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]

Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]

Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]

Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]

Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]

Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]

Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]

A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]

Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]

A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]

A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]

ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]

Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]

Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]

Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]

Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]

ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]

AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]

Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]

Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]

AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]

Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]

Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]

Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]

Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]

Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]

Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]

Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]

ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]

Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]

AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]

AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]

Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]

Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]

Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]

Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]

Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]

Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]

AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]

AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]

AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]

Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]

APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]

ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]

AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]

A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]

ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]

AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]

A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]

A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]

Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]

A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]

ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]

ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]

A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]

A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]

A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]

Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]

Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]

ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]

Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]

A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]

A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............

A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............

Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following is not the function of NEC?

APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which one is not concerned with the NEC?

AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

When was Nepal engineering council established?

A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............

Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............

Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC does not approach for ............

Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............

A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............

Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............

A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1060 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?

ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1061 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who appoints the chairman of NEC?

AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1062 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Who is the first president of NEC?

AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1063 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?

AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1064 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]

ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1065 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]

ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1066 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]

ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1067 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]

Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1068 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1069 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]

ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 1070 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]

A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1071 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]

ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 1072 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]

Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1073 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]

A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1074 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]

A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1075 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]

Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 1076 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]

ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1077 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]

A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1078 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1079 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]

Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1080 of 1100Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation

How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]

A50%
B60%
C70%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 1081 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

A project is considered economically acceptable when its Benefit-Cost (B/C) ratio is:

AB/C < 1
BB/C > 1
CB/C = 0
DB/C = 1
Answer is hidden
Question 1082 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Standard deviation is calculated as:

A√Variance
BVariance²
CMean / Variance
DVariance / n
Answer is hidden
Question 1083 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The value at which a buyer and seller agree to complete a transaction is called:

ABook Value
BSalvage Value
CMarket Value
DPresent Value
Answer is hidden
Question 1084 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Projects A (6-year life) and B (8-year life) are being compared using the repeatability assumption. The analysis period should be:

A6 years
B8 years
C14 years
D24 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1085 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The time value of money concept means:

AMoney always loses value
BMoney always gains value
CA unit of money has different worth at different points in time
DInterest rates are always positive
Answer is hidden
Question 1086 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Which capital investment evaluation method is considered LEAST reliable and is rarely used?

AAccounting Rate of Return (ARR)
BNet Present Value (NPV)
CInternal Rate of Return (IRR)
DPayback Period
Answer is hidden
Question 1087 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) formula in Earned Value Management is:

ASPI = PV / EV
BSPI = EV / PV
CSPI = AC / EV
DSPI = EV / AC
Answer is hidden
Question 1088 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

Cost overrun in a project is calculated as:

AActual Cost − Planned Cost
BPlanned Cost − Actual Cost
CEarned Value − Planned Value
DActual Cost / Planned Cost
Answer is hidden
Question 1089 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

In engineering drawings, a 'B' grade pencil is primarily used for:

AFine detail linework
BConstruction lines
CDimension lines
DShading and sketching
Answer is hidden
Question 1090 of 1100Ch 10 · Engineering Economics & Project Management

The standard paper size ratio (width to height) for the ISO A-series is:

A1 : √2
B1 : 2
C√2 : 1
D3 : 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1091 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who has the authority to appoint the Chairman of the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

AThe Prime Minister
BThe Government of Nepal
CThe NEC Council itself
DThe Minister of Physical Infrastructure
Answer is hidden
Question 1092 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Who appoints the Auditor of NEC?

AThe NEC Council
BThe Ministry of Finance
CThe Auditor General
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1093 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of council meetings NEC must hold per year?

A2
B4
C6
D12
Answer is hidden
Question 1094 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of engineering licence examinations NEC must conduct per year?

A1
B2
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 1095 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What is the minimum number of female members required in the NEC Council?

A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1096 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The first executive committee of NEC was formed in which year (BS)?

A2054
B2056
C2058
D2060
Answer is hidden
Question 1097 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Under the NEC Act, the penalty for violating Section 2 (unauthorized engineering practice) is:

AUp to Rs. 5,000
BUp to Rs. 10,000
CUp to Rs. 15,000
DUp to Rs. 25,000
Answer is hidden
Question 1098 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

What type of organisation is the Nepal Engineering Council (NEC)?

APrivate body
BGovernmental / statutory body
CNon-Governmental Organisation (NGO)
DInternational organisation
Answer is hidden
Question 1099 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

Approval of a Bachelor's Engineering degree for NEC registration is granted by:

AThe university granting the degree
BNEC
CThe Ministry of Education
DThe Government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1100 of 1100Ch 10 · NEC & Professional Practice

The number of engineers registered with NEC is approximately:

A45,000
B65,000
C89,263
D120,000
Answer is hidden