An information system that integrates finance, HR, production and sales on a common database is:
ADSS
BExpert system
CTPS
DERP
Answer is hidden
Question 84 of 1122Ch 1 · Organization Management
The Delphi method is used for:
ATechnology forecasting using anonymous expert opinion
BPerformance appraisal
CInventory control
DPlant layout
Answer is hidden
Question 85 of 1122Ch 1 · Organization Management
Time study, standardisation of tools and methods, and the differential piece-rate system were introduced by:
AF. W. Taylor
BElton Mayo
CMax Weber
DAbraham Maslow
Answer is hidden
Question 86 of 1122Ch 1 · Organization Management
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, salary and working conditions are:
ASelf-actualisation needs
BMotivators that create satisfaction
CHygiene factors that prevent dissatisfaction
DTheory Y assumptions
Answer is hidden
Question 87 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
A system that allows both mass and energy to cross its boundary is:
AAn adiabatic system
BAn isolated system
CA closed system
DAn open system
Answer is hidden
Question 88 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
Which of the following is an intensive property?
AVolume
BTemperature
CEnthalpy
DInternal energy
Answer is hidden
Question 89 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
Heat and work are:
APath functions
BExact differentials
CPoint functions
DProperties of the system
Answer is hidden
Question 90 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
The zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis of:
AEntropy
BTemperature measurement
CInternal energy
DHeat engines
Answer is hidden
Question 91 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
The temperature at which Celsius and Fahrenheit scales read the same value is:
A0°
B−273°
C−40°
D40°
Answer is hidden
Question 92 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
The value of the universal gas constant is:
A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B8.314 kJ/kg·K
C1.005 kJ/kg·K
D8.314 kJ/kmol·K
Answer is hidden
Question 93 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
For air, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg·K and cv = 0.718 kJ/kg·K. The gas constant R is:
A0.287 kJ/kg·K
B1.4 kJ/kg·K
C0.718 kJ/kg·K
D1.723 kJ/kg·K
Answer is hidden
Question 94 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
A real gas behaves most like an ideal gas at:
AHigh pressure and high temperature
BHigh pressure and low temperature
CCritical point
DLow pressure and high temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 95 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
Dryness fraction of dry saturated steam is:
A0.5
B0
C1
DInfinity
Answer is hidden
Question 96 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
Wet steam at a pressure where hf = 500 kJ/kg and hfg = 2200 kJ/kg has x = 0.9. Its enthalpy is:
A2480 kJ/kg
B2700 kJ/kg
C2200 kJ/kg
D1980 kJ/kg
Answer is hidden
Question 97 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
At the critical point of water, the latent heat of vaporisation is:
AMaximum
BEqual to hg
C2257 kJ/kg
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 98 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
The Mollier chart is a plot of:
AEnthalpy vs entropy
BTemperature vs entropy
CPressure vs enthalpy
DPressure vs volume
Answer is hidden
Question 99 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
Specific energy consumption of a plant is normally expressed as:
AEnergy consumed per unit of production
BMaximum demand in kVA
CBoiler pressure per hour
DTotal annual energy bill
Answer is hidden
Question 100 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamics Basics
One kilowatt-hour of energy is equal to:
A3 600 kJ
B1 000 kJ
C3 600 kW
D4 187 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 101 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
For a closed system, the first law of thermodynamics is expressed as:
AQ + W = ΔH
BQ − W = ΔS
CQ − W = ΔU
DQ = W
Answer is hidden
Question 102 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of:
APressure only
BVolume only
CTemperature only
DPressure and volume
Answer is hidden
Question 103 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
In a constant-volume process, the work done is:
AEqual to heat supplied × γ
BP(V2 − V1)
CZero
DmRT ln(V2/V1)
Answer is hidden
Question 104 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
In an isothermal process of an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is:
AEqual to work done
BMaximum
CZero
DEqual to m·cp·ΔT
Answer is hidden
Question 105 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
The polytropic index n for a reversible adiabatic process is:
A0
B∞
C1
Dγ
Answer is hidden
Question 106 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
0.5 m³ of air at 1 bar is compressed isothermally to 0.1 m³. The work done (magnitude) is approximately:
A160 kJ
B40 kJ
C80.5 kJ
D50 kJ
Answer is hidden
Question 107 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
During a throttling process, which property remains constant?
AEnthalpy
BPressure
CTemperature (for steam)
DEntropy
Answer is hidden
Question 108 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
Steam enters a nozzle with negligible velocity and an enthalpy drop of 100 kJ/kg. The exit velocity is about:
A44.7 m/s
B447 m/s
C1000 m/s
D100 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 109 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
In an adiabatic steam turbine with negligible KE and PE changes, work output per kg equals:
Ah1 − h2
BZero
Ch2 − h1
Du1 − u2
Answer is hidden
Question 110 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
A perpetual motion machine of the first kind violates:
AThe first law of thermodynamics
BThe zeroth law
CThe third law
DThe second law
Answer is hidden
Question 111 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
Air is freely expanded into an insulated vacuum. For the air:
AQ = 0, W > 0, ΔU < 0
BQ > 0, W = 0, ΔU > 0
CQ = W, ΔU = 0 only if reversible
DQ = 0, W = 0, ΔU = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 112 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
When an evacuated, insulated rigid tank is filled with an ideal gas from a supply line at Tline, the final gas temperature is:
AZero
BTline
CTline/γ
Dγ·Tline
Answer is hidden
Question 113 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
The indirect (heat-loss) method of finding boiler efficiency is preferred because it:
AAlways gives a higher efficiency
BNeeds no measurement
CIgnores flue-gas temperature
DShows where the individual losses occur
Answer is hidden
Question 114 of 1122Ch 2 · First Law of Thermodynamics
An economiser in a boiler plant recovers waste heat to:
ARaise the steam pressure directly
BPre-heat the lubricating oil
CPre-heat the feed water using flue gases
DCool the flue gas with fresh fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 115 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
The Kelvin-Planck statement implies that:
AEntropy of the universe decreases
BHeat always flows from cold to hot
CNo heat engine can have 100% thermal efficiency
DEnergy can be created
Answer is hidden
Question 116 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
A perpetual motion machine of the second kind violates:
ALaw of conservation of mass
BFirst law of thermodynamics
CKelvin-Planck statement
DZeroth law
Answer is hidden
Question 117 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
A Carnot engine works between 527 °C and 27 °C. Its efficiency is:
A62.5%
B37.5%
C94.9%
D50%
Answer is hidden
Question 118 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
The Carnot cycle consists of:
ATwo isothermal and two isochoric processes
BTwo isobaric and two isentropic processes
CTwo reversible isothermal and two reversible adiabatic processes
DTwo isochoric and two isentropic processes
Answer is hidden
Question 119 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:
ASource and sink temperatures only
BThe engine size
CThe working fluid
DThe pressure ratio only
Answer is hidden
Question 120 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
A refrigerator operates between −3 °C and 27 °C. Its maximum (Carnot) COP is:
A10
B1.11
C9
D0.9
Answer is hidden
Question 121 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
For the same temperature limits, COP of a heat pump is related to COP of a refrigerator by:
ACOPHP = COPR
BCOPHP = 1/COPR
CCOPHP = COPR − 1
DCOPHP = COPR + 1
Answer is hidden
Question 122 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
Which of the following is NOT a cause of irreversibility?
AHeat transfer through a finite temperature difference
BFriction
CQuasi-static frictionless compression
DFree expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 123 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
For an irreversible cycle, the Clausius inequality gives ∮δQ/T:
A= ∞
B= 0
C> 0
D< 0
Answer is hidden
Question 124 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
The entropy of an isolated system undergoing a real process:
AMay increase or decrease
BAlways increases
CAlways decreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 125 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
An isentropic process is:
AReversible and isothermal
BConstant enthalpy
CIrreversible and adiabatic
DReversible and adiabatic
Answer is hidden
Question 126 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
Isentropic efficiency of a compressor is defined as:
A(h1 − h2a)/(h1 − h2s)
B(h2a − h1)/(h2s − h1)
C(h2s − h1)/(h2a − h1)
Dh2s/h2a
Answer is hidden
Question 127 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
One tonne of refrigeration is equal to:
A1 kW
B100 kcal/h
C3.5 kW of refrigerating effect
D3 600 kJ/h
Answer is hidden
Question 128 of 1122Ch 2 · Second Law of Thermodynamics
Cogeneration (combined heat and power) raises overall energy utilisation because it:
AEliminates the second law of thermodynamics
BProduces work without fuel
CIncreases the condenser temperature only
DUses the rejected heat of power generation for process heating
Answer is hidden
Question 129 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
The Otto cycle consists of two isentropic processes and two:
AConstant-volume processes
BIsothermal processes
CConstant-enthalpy processes
DConstant-pressure processes
Answer is hidden
Question 130 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
The air-standard efficiency of an Otto cycle with r = 8 and γ = 1.4 is approximately:
A65%
B40%
C56.5%
D87.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 131 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
For the same compression ratio and heat input, the most efficient cycle is:
ADual
BAll equal
COtto
DDiesel
Answer is hidden
Question 132 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
For the same maximum pressure and temperature, the most efficient cycle is:
ADual
BDiesel
CBrayton
DOtto
Answer is hidden
Question 133 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
The efficiency of a Diesel cycle, for a fixed compression ratio, increases when:
ACut-off ratio increases
BCut-off ratio decreases
Cγ decreases
DLoad increases
Answer is hidden
Question 134 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
The Brayton cycle is the ideal cycle for:
ASteam power plants
BVapour absorption refrigerators
CGas turbines
DPetrol engines
Answer is hidden
Question 135 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
The efficiency of an ideal Brayton cycle depends on:
AWorking fluid mass
BPressure ratio only
CHeat supplied only
DMaximum temperature only
Answer is hidden
Question 136 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
In a Rankine cycle, the process in the condenser is:
AThrottling
BConstant-pressure heat rejection
CConstant-volume heat addition
DIsentropic expansion
Answer is hidden
Question 137 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
Reheating in a Rankine cycle is mainly used to:
AReduce pump work
BIncrease condenser pressure
CReduce moisture content at turbine exhaust
DReduce boiler pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 138 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the expansion process is:
AIsenthalpic (throttling)
BIsochoric
CIsothermal
DIsentropic
Answer is hidden
Question 139 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
One ton of refrigeration is equal to about:
A3.5 kW
B211 kW
C1 kW
D12 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 140 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
In a lithium bromide–water absorption system, the refrigerant is:
AHydrogen
BAmmonia
CWater
DLithium bromide
Answer is hidden
Question 141 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
A back-pressure steam turbine is used in industry mainly to:
AProduce refrigeration directly
BCompress air for the plant
CGenerate power while supplying exhaust steam for process heating
DCondense all the steam at vacuum
Answer is hidden
Question 142 of 1122Ch 2 · Thermodynamic Cycles
A vapour-absorption refrigeration system is attractive in a plant that has:
AVery low cooling demand only
BOnly surplus electricity
CCheap waste heat or process steam available
DNo heat source at all
Answer is hidden
Question 143 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
In a four-stroke engine, the number of power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft is:
A4
B1
C2
D0.5
Answer is hidden
Question 144 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
The camshaft of a four-stroke engine rotates at:
AHalf the crankshaft speed
BFour times the crankshaft speed
CTwice the crankshaft speed
DThe crankshaft speed
Answer is hidden
Question 145 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
In a CI engine, fuel is ignited by:
AA glow plug during normal running
BHeat of compressed air
CA spark plug
DA magneto
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Question 146 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
The typical compression ratio of a diesel engine is:
A6–10
B4–6
C30–40
D14–22
Answer is hidden
Question 147 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
Load in an SI engine is controlled by varying the quantity of mixture using the throttle. This is called:
AHit-and-miss governing
BQuality governing
CQuantity governing
DCombination governing
Answer is hidden
Question 148 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
The anti-knock quality of petrol is expressed by:
AFlash point
BCalorific value
COctane number
DCetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 149 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
To reduce knocking in a CI engine, one should:
AUse a fuel with high cetane number
BLower the compression ratio
CReduce intake air temperature
DUse a fuel with high octane number
Answer is hidden
Question 150 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
Engine swept volume 500 cc and clearance volume 50 cc. The compression ratio is:
A10
B11
C12
D9
Answer is hidden
Question 151 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
An engine has IP = 50 kW and BP = 40 kW. Its mechanical efficiency is:
A125%
B90%
C20%
D80%
Answer is hidden
Question 152 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
In a two-stroke petrol engine, the ports are opened and closed by:
AThe piston
BPoppet valves
CThe camshaft
DThe spark plug
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Question 153 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
The component that converts reciprocating motion of the piston to rotary motion is the:
AConnecting rod and crank
BGudgeon pin
CFlywheel
DCamshaft
Answer is hidden
Question 154 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
The function of a flywheel in an IC engine is to:
AIncrease fuel economy by 50%
BReduce fluctuation of speed during a cycle
COperate the valves
DControl the mean speed with load
Answer is hidden
Question 155 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
A diesel generating set gives its best specific fuel consumption when loaded to about:
ANo load
B60–80% of its rating
C10–20% of its rating
DExactly 100% continuously
Answer is hidden
Question 156 of 1122Ch 2 · Internal Combustion Engines
In selecting the rating of a DG set for a factory, the most important additional consideration beyond the running load is:
AThe number of employees
BThe floor area of the store
CThe colour of the enclosure
DStarting (inrush) current of the largest motor
Answer is hidden
Question 157 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Summer air-conditioning generally involves:
AHeating and humidification
BHeating and dehumidification
CCooling and humidification
DCooling and dehumidification
Answer is hidden
Question 158 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
In a fire-tube boiler:
ANo tubes are used
BSteam passes through tubes
CHot gases pass through tubes surrounded by water
DWater passes through tubes surrounded by hot gases
Answer is hidden
Question 159 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Which of the following is a water-tube boiler?
ACochran boiler
BLancashire boiler
CBabcock and Wilcox boiler
DLocomotive boiler
Answer is hidden
Question 160 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
The Benson boiler is characterised by:
AA single large flue tube
BNatural circulation at low pressure
CBeing a fire-tube boiler
DOperation at supercritical pressure without a steam drum
Answer is hidden
Question 161 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
An economiser in a boiler is used to:
APreheat feedwater using flue gases
BHeat combustion air
CRelease excess pressure
DSuperheat steam
Answer is hidden
Question 162 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Which of the following is a boiler mounting (not an accessory)?
AFusible plug
BEconomiser
CAir preheater
DSuperheater
Answer is hidden
Question 163 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
For minimum work in a two-stage air compressor with perfect intercooling, compressing from 1 bar to 16 bar, the intermediate pressure is:
A8 bar
B2 bar
C8.5 bar
D4 bar
Answer is hidden
Question 164 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
The work required for compressing air is minimum when compression is:
APolytropic with n = 1.3
BAdiabatic
CIsochoric
DIsothermal
Answer is hidden
Question 165 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Refrigerant R-717 is:
ACarbon dioxide
BAmmonia
CWater
DFreon-12
Answer is hidden
Question 166 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
R-134a replaced R-12 mainly because R-134a has:
AZero ozone depletion potential
BLower cost than all refrigerants
CZero global warming potential
DHigher toxicity
Answer is hidden
Question 167 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
For saturated air:
ADBT > WBT > DPT
BDBT < WBT < DPT
CWBT = 0
DDBT = WBT = DPT
Answer is hidden
Question 168 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
During evaporative cooling (desert cooler), which remains approximately constant?
AWet-bulb temperature
BSpecific humidity
CDry-bulb temperature
DRelative humidity
Answer is hidden
Question 169 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Specific humidity of moist air is given by:
A0.622 ps/P
B(P − pv)/pv
Cpv/ps
D0.622 pv/(P − pv)
Answer is hidden
Question 170 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
In a compressed-air system, reducing the compressor discharge pressure by 1 bar typically saves about:
AOnly pipe cost
B50% of compressor power
CNo power at all
D6–8% of compressor power
Answer is hidden
Question 171 of 1122Ch 2 · Applied Thermodynamics
Humidity control is essential in a textile spinning mill mainly because:
AHumidity has no effect on yarn
BIt reduces electricity cost
CHigh humidity increases machine speed
DLow humidity causes static and yarn breakage
Answer is hidden
Question 172 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
A fluid is a substance that:
AHas zero viscosity
BAlways flows in a laminar manner
CCannot be compressed
DDeforms continuously under the action of a shear stress, however small
Answer is hidden
Question 173 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
The no-slip condition states that at a solid wall the fluid:
AHas maximum velocity
BHas zero pressure
CHas zero velocity relative to the wall
DSlips with free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 174 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
The Eulerian method of describing fluid flow:
AFollows each fluid particle along its path
BIs applicable only to solids
CObserves flow properties at fixed points in space
DIgnores velocity field
Answer is hidden
Question 175 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
One poise is equal to:
A1 N·s/m²
B0.1 N·s/m²
C0.01 N·s/m²
D10 N·s/m²
Answer is hidden
Question 176 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
With an increase in temperature, the viscosity of a liquid:
AFirst increases then decreases
BIncreases
CDecreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 177 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
Blood and paints are examples of:
APseudoplastic (shear-thinning) fluids
BIdeal fluids
CDilatant fluids
DNewtonian fluids
Answer is hidden
Question 178 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
A fluid which requires a minimum yield stress before it flows, like toothpaste, is a:
ABingham plastic
BNewtonian fluid
CDilatant fluid
DThixotropic fluid only
Answer is hidden
Question 179 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of diameter d is:
Aσ/d
B4σ/d
C2σ/d
D8σ/d
Answer is hidden
Question 180 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
Mercury in a clean glass capillary tube shows:
ACapillary rise
BCapillary depression (falls)
CNo change in level
DRise equal to water
Answer is hidden
Question 181 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
Standard atmospheric pressure is equivalent to a water column of about:
A0.76 m
B10.33 m
C13.6 m
D1.033 m
Answer is hidden
Question 182 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
A piezometer cannot be used to measure:
APressure in a water pipe
BGauge pressure of liquid
CGas pressure and vacuum pressure
DLow positive pressure of water
Answer is hidden
Question 183 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
For a vertical rectangular gate of depth d with its top at the free surface, the centre of pressure is at depth:
A2d/3
Bd/3
Cd/2
D3d/4
Answer is hidden
Question 184 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
A fluid such as sewage sludge or toothpaste, which needs a minimum shear stress before it begins to flow, is called a:
ADilatant fluid
BNewtonian fluid
CIdeal fluid
DBingham plastic
Answer is hidden
Question 185 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Properties and Statics
A rising differential pressure across an industrial filter or bag house indicates that:
AThe fan has stopped
BThe fluid has become less viscous
CThe filter is getting clogged and needs cleaning
DFlow rate is increasing
Answer is hidden
Question 186 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
A flow in which velocity at a point does not change with time is called:
ASteady flow
BUniform flow
CLaminar flow
DIrrotational flow
Answer is hidden
Question 187 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Flow through a long straight pipe of constant diameter at a constant rate is:
ASteady non-uniform flow
BUnsteady non-uniform flow
CSteady uniform flow
DUnsteady uniform flow
Answer is hidden
Question 188 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Reynolds number is the ratio of:
AInertia force to gravity force
BInertia force to viscous force
CPressure force to inertia force
DViscous force to surface tension
Answer is hidden
Question 189 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Flow in a circular pipe is generally laminar when the Reynolds number is less than about:
A10000
B5 × 10⁵
C4000
D2000
Answer is hidden
Question 190 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Water (ν = 1 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s) flows at 0.1 m/s in a 10 mm pipe. The flow is:
ATurbulent (Re = 10000)
BTurbulent (Re = 100000)
CTransitional (Re = 3000)
DLaminar (Re = 1000)
Answer is hidden
Question 191 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Air flow may be treated as incompressible when the Mach number is less than about:
A5
B0.3
C1.0
D0.8
Answer is hidden
Question 192 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
The line traced by dye injected continuously at a fixed point in a flow is a:
AStreamline
BEquipotential line
CStreakline
DPathline
Answer is hidden
Question 193 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
In steady flow, streamlines, pathlines and streaklines:
ANever meet
BAre perpendicular
CCoincide
DForm a flow net
Answer is hidden
Question 194 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
The stream function ψ exists for:
AUnsteady flow only
BTwo-dimensional incompressible flow (rotational or irrotational)
CIrrotational flow only
DThree-dimensional compressible flow only
Answer is hidden
Question 195 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
The velocity potential function exists only when the flow is:
AIrrotational
BViscous
CRotational
DUnsteady
Answer is hidden
Question 196 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Streamlines and equipotential lines intersect each other at:
A0° (parallel)
B90°
C60°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 197 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
In a free vortex flow, velocity varies with radius as:
AV is constant
BV × r = constant
CV = ωr
DV × r² = constant
Answer is hidden
Question 198 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Turbulent flow is generally desirable in a heat exchanger because it:
AMakes the flow laminar
BReduces the pressure drop
CEliminates fouling completely
DIncreases the heat-transfer coefficient by mixing
Answer is hidden
Question 199 of 1122Ch 3 · Kinematics of Fluid Flow
Sudden closing of a valve in a long water pipeline causes:
AA steady drop in pressure
BNo pressure change
CWater hammer (pressure surge)
DCavitation in the tank only
Answer is hidden
Question 200 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Bernoulli's equation is based on the conservation of:
AMomentum
BAngular momentum
CEnergy
DMass
Answer is hidden
Question 201 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Which is NOT an assumption of Bernoulli's equation?
AFlow is steady
BFluid is incompressible
CThe fluid is viscous
DFlow is along a streamline
Answer is hidden
Question 202 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Water flows from a 200 mm pipe into a 100 mm pipe. If velocity in the larger pipe is 1 m/s, velocity in the smaller pipe is:
A0.25 m/s
B2 m/s
C8 m/s
D4 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 203 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
The coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter is about:
A1.2
B0.62
C0.5
D0.98
Answer is hidden
Question 204 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
A pitot tube is used to measure:
ADischarge in open channels directly
BViscosity
CPressure difference in pipes only
DVelocity of flow at a point
Answer is hidden
Question 205 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
The theoretical velocity of a jet from an orifice under a head of 5 m is about:
A3.1 m/s
B9.9 m/s
C5 m/s
D49 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 206 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
For a sharp-edged orifice, Cd = Cc × Cv is approximately:
A0.85
B1.0
C0.98
D0.62
Answer is hidden
Question 207 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Discharge over a triangular notch is proportional to:
AH1/2
BH²
CH3/2
DH5/2
Answer is hidden
Question 208 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
The force exerted by a jet on a stationary flat plate held normal to it is:
Aρa(V − u)²
BρaV²/2
C2ρaV²
DρaV²
Answer is hidden
Question 209 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
According to Buckingham's π-theorem, a problem with 7 variables and 3 fundamental dimensions has:
A4 π-terms
B3 π-terms
C10 π-terms
D7 π-terms
Answer is hidden
Question 210 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Ship models and spillway models are designed using:
AReynolds model law
BFroude model law
CMach model law
DWeber model law
Answer is hidden
Question 211 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
In a Froude-scaled model with length ratio 1:25, the discharge ratio (model/prototype) is:
A1:25
B1:3125
C1:625
D1:125
Answer is hidden
Question 212 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
Compared with an orifice plate, a venturi meter has:
ANo need for a pressure difference
BA much lower permanent pressure loss
CA lower installation cost
DA higher permanent pressure loss
Answer is hidden
Question 213 of 1122Ch 3 · Fluid Flow Equations
The flow meter that measures mass flow rate directly and is used for costly process fluids is the:
AOrifice meter
BCoriolis meter
CPitot tube
DRotameter
Answer is hidden
Question 214 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
For laminar flow in a circular pipe, the maximum velocity is:
AEqual to the average velocity
B1.5 times the average velocity
C1.2 times the average velocity
D2 times the average velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 215 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
The friction factor for laminar flow in a pipe at Re = 1600 is:
A0.4
B0.016
C0.04
D0.064
Answer is hidden
Question 216 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
In laminar pipe flow, the shear stress is:
AConstant across the section
BMaximum at the centre
CZero at the centre and maximum at the wall
DZero at the wall
Answer is hidden
Question 217 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
According to Hagen-Poiseuille, for a given pressure drop the discharge through a pipe varies as:
AD²
BD⁴
CD
DD⁵
Answer is hidden
Question 218 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
For laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, umax/Vavg is:
A2
B1
C1.5
D1.2
Answer is hidden
Question 219 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
The Darcy-Weisbach equation gives head loss as:
AfLV²/(2gD)
BfL²V/(2gD)
CfLV/(2gD)
D32μVL/D²
Answer is hidden
Question 220 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
For pipes connected in parallel:
AHead loss in each pipe is the same
BDischarge in each pipe is the same
CTotal head loss is the sum of individual losses
DVelocity in each pipe is the same
Answer is hidden
Question 221 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
The head loss due to sudden expansion from velocity V1 to V2 is:
A0.5 V2²/2g
BV1²/2g
C(V1² − V2²)/2g
D(V1 − V2)²/2g
Answer is hidden
Question 222 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the friction head loss equals:
AThe total head
BOne-third of the total head
CTwo-thirds of the total head
DHalf of the total head
Answer is hidden
Question 223 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the wall where velocity reaches:
AThe free-stream velocity exactly
BZero
C50% of free-stream velocity
D99% of free-stream velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 224 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
For a laminar boundary layer on a flat plate, thickness varies with distance x as:
Ax1/2
Bx4/5
Cx
Dx²
Answer is hidden
Question 225 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
Flow separation occurs when:
APressure gradient is adverse (dp/dx > 0) and wall shear becomes zero
BReynolds number is very low only
CPressure gradient is favourable (dp/dx < 0)
DFlow is irrotational
Answer is hidden
Question 226 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
Controlling the flow of a centrifugal pump by throttling a discharge valve is inefficient because it:
AEliminates friction losses
BIncreases the pump efficiency
CReduces the pump speed
DWastes energy as pressure drop across the valve
Answer is hidden
Question 227 of 1122Ch 3 · Laminar Flow, Losses and Boundary Layer
Frictional head loss in a pipe carrying a given fluid varies approximately with:
AThe velocity
BThe square root of velocity
CThe pipe length only
DThe square of the mean velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 228 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
A Pelton wheel is a:
ARadial-flow reaction turbine
BAxial-flow reaction turbine
CTangential-flow impulse turbine
DMixed-flow impulse turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 229 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
A Kaplan turbine is best suited for:
AMedium head and medium discharge
BVery high head only
CLow head and large discharge
DHigh head and small discharge
Answer is hidden
Question 230 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
Which turbine is most suitable for a head of 500 m?
AFrancis turbine only
BPelton wheel
CPropeller turbine
DKaplan turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 231 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
The specific speed of a turbine is given by:
AN√P / H5/4
BN P / H5/4
CN√Q / H3/4
DN√P / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 232 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
In a Pelton wheel, the flow of water is regulated by:
ADraft tube
BAdjustable runner blades
CSpear (needle) in the nozzle
DGuide vanes
Answer is hidden
Question 233 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
The function of the casing of a Pelton wheel is to:
APrevent splashing and guide water to the tailrace (no hydraulic function)
BConvert pressure energy into kinetic energy
CRegulate the flow
DCreate suction head
Answer is hidden
Question 234 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
In a Francis turbine, the guide vanes (wicket gates) serve to:
ARecover kinetic energy at exit
BRegulate flow and direct water onto runner at correct angle
CSupport the generator
DConvert all head into velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 235 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
Double regulation (adjustable guide vanes and runner blades) is a feature of the:
AKaplan turbine
BPropeller turbine
CFrancis turbine
DPelton wheel
Answer is hidden
Question 236 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
The main function of a turbine governor is to:
AReduce the specific speed
BIncrease the head
CPrevent cavitation
DKeep the speed of the turbine constant under varying load
Answer is hidden
Question 237 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
Cavitation in a reaction turbine is most likely at the:
ARunner blade outlet / draft tube inlet
BTailrace outlet
CSpiral casing inlet
DPenstock entrance
Answer is hidden
Question 238 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
A draft tube is used in:
AReaction turbines only
BReciprocating pumps
CBoth Pelton and Francis turbines
DImpulse turbines only
Answer is hidden
Question 239 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
The cone angle of a conical draft tube should not exceed about:
A20°
B30°
C45°
D8°
Answer is hidden
Question 240 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
The turbine most widely used in Nepali micro-hydro schemes because it is simple and can be made locally is the:
AKaplan turbine
BBulb turbine
CCross-flow (Banki-Mitchell) turbine
DGas turbine
Answer is hidden
Question 241 of 1122Ch 3 · Hydraulic Turbines
Cavitation in a hydraulic machine occurs when the local pressure falls:
ABelow the discharge pressure only
BBelow atmospheric but above vapour pressure
CAbove atmospheric pressure
DBelow the vapour pressure of the liquid
Answer is hidden
Question 242 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
A centrifugal pump works on the principle of:
AImpulse only
BFree vortex
CForced vortex
DPositive displacement
Answer is hidden
Question 243 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
The most commonly used impeller blade shape in centrifugal pumps is:
AForward-curved
BStraight axial
CRadial
DBackward-curved
Answer is hidden
Question 244 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
Priming of a centrifugal pump is necessary because:
AIt reduces the speed of the pump
BIt lubricates the bearings
CIt increases the vapour pressure
DThe head developed depends on the density of the fluid in the impeller
Answer is hidden
Question 245 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
Which pump does NOT require priming?
ACentrifugal pump
BAxial-flow pump
CReciprocating pump
DMixed-flow pump
Answer is hidden
Question 246 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
A centrifugal pump should be started with the delivery valve:
AHalf open
BRemoved
CClosed
DFully open
Answer is hidden
Question 247 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
To avoid cavitation in a pump:
ALiquid temperature must be raised
BNPSH required must exceed NPSH available
CSuction lift must be maximised
DNPSH available must exceed NPSH required
Answer is hidden
Question 248 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
Which action INCREASES the available NPSH?
AIncreasing suction lift
BHeating the liquid
CUsing a smaller suction pipe
DLowering the pump relative to the sump
Answer is hidden
Question 249 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the head developed becomes:
AHalf
B2 times
C8 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 250 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
If pump speed is doubled, the power required becomes:
A16 times
B8 times
C2 times
D4 times
Answer is hidden
Question 251 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
Two identical pumps connected in parallel will:
ADouble the head at the same discharge
BReduce the discharge
CHave no effect
DIncrease the discharge at the same head
Answer is hidden
Question 252 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
The specific speed of a pump is given by:
AN√Q / H3/4
BN√Q / H5/4
CN√P / H5/4
DN Q / H3/4
Answer is hidden
Question 253 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
Negative slip in a reciprocating pump means:
AActual discharge exceeds theoretical discharge
BValves are leaking badly
CActual discharge is less than theoretical
DThe pump is not primed
Answer is hidden
Question 254 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
According to the affinity laws, if the speed of a centrifugal pump is reduced to half, the power required becomes about:
AOne-half
BOne-quarter
COne-eighth
DDouble
Answer is hidden
Question 255 of 1122Ch 3 · Pumps
A pump running far away from its best efficiency point typically suffers:
AVibration, recirculation and early seal or bearing failure
BNo effect at all
CHigher efficiency
DLower power consumption always
Answer is hidden
Question 256 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The principle of transmissibility of forces is applicable to:
ADeformable bodies only
BRigid bodies only
CBoth rigid and deformable bodies
DFluids only
Answer is hidden
Question 257 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
Lami's theorem applies to:
AThree concurrent coplanar forces in equilibrium
BNon-concurrent forces
CAny number of parallel forces
DTwo forces in equilibrium
Answer is hidden
Question 258 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The moment of a couple about any point in its plane is:
AMaximum at the centre of the couple
BZero
CConstant and equal to force × arm
DDependent on the point chosen
Answer is hidden
Question 259 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
A hinged (pin) support in a 2-D structure provides:
AOnly a moment
BOne reaction component
CThree reaction components
DTwo reaction components
Answer is hidden
Question 260 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at right angles. Their resultant is:
A1 N
B7 N
C5 N
D12 N
Answer is hidden
Question 261 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The angle of repose is equal to:
AZero for rough surfaces
B90° minus the angle of friction
CThe angle of friction
DTwice the angle of friction
Answer is hidden
Question 262 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The force of friction between two dry surfaces is:
ADirectly proportional to the area of contact
BGreater for kinetic than static friction
CIndependent of the apparent area of contact
DIndependent of the normal reaction
Answer is hidden
Question 263 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
D'Alembert's principle converts a dynamic problem into:
AA problem of static equilibrium by adding inertia force
BA problem of kinematics only
CA problem without mass
DAn energy problem
Answer is hidden
Question 264 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is obtained when it is projected at:
A90°
B30°
C45°
D60°
Answer is hidden
Question 265 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The work-energy theorem states that the net work done on a body equals the change in its:
AImpulse
BMomentum
CPotential energy
DKinetic energy
Answer is hidden
Question 266 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
A ball dropped from 4 m rebounds to 1 m. The coefficient of restitution is:
A0.75
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 267 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
In a perfectly plastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is:
AInfinity
B1
C0.5
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 268 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
The tension ratio of a flat belt about to slip on a pulley is given by:
AT1/T2 = μθ
BT1/T2 = eμθ
CT1 − T2 = μW
DT1T2 = eμ
Answer is hidden
Question 269 of 1122Ch 4 · Applied Mechanics
As the included angle between two sling legs lifting a load increases, the tension in each sling:
ARemains the same
BIncreases
CDecreases
DBecomes zero
Answer is hidden
Question 270 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
Hooke's law is valid up to the:
AProportional limit
BBreaking point
CUltimate stress
DYield point
Answer is hidden
Question 271 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
A steel bar 2 m long, area 100 mm², carries 20 kN. With E = 200 GPa, the elongation is:
A2 mm
B20 mm
C0.2 mm
D1 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 272 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The elongation of a bar hanging under its own weight W is:
AWL/(AE)
B2WL/(AE)
CWL/(2AE)
DWL/(4AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 273 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
A bar is fully restrained and heated by ΔT. The thermal stress is:
AαLΔT
BEαΔT, independent of length
CEαΔT/L
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 274 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The theoretical maximum value of Poisson's ratio for an isotropic material is:
A0.33
B0.5
C1.0
D0.25
Answer is hidden
Question 275 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The relation between E, G and μ is:
AE = 3G(1 − 2μ)
BE = 2G(1 + μ)
CE = G(1 + 2μ)
DE = 2G(1 − μ)
Answer is hidden
Question 276 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
If E = 200 GPa and μ = 0.25, the modulus of rigidity G is:
A80 GPa
B100 GPa
C50 GPa
D160 GPa
Answer is hidden
Question 277 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
Volumetric strain of a rectangular bar subjected to axial load P is:
Aε(1 − 2μ)
Bε(1 + 2μ)
Cε(1 − μ)
D3ε
Answer is hidden
Question 278 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
For a material with Poisson's ratio 0.5, the bulk modulus is:
AEqual to E
BInfinite
CZero
DEqual to G
Answer is hidden
Question 279 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The strain energy stored in a bar under axial load P is:
AP²L/(2AE)
BPL/(2AE)
CPL²/(2AE)
DP²L/(AE)
Answer is hidden
Question 280 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The maximum stress due to a suddenly applied load compared to the same load applied gradually is:
AFour times
BTwice
CHalf
DEqual
Answer is hidden
Question 281 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
Modulus of resilience is:
ATotal strain energy up to fracture
BRatio of stress to strain
CStrain energy per unit volume up to the elastic limit
DArea under the entire stress-strain curve
Answer is hidden
Question 282 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
A load applied suddenly (but without impact velocity) produces a stress approximately:
AEqual to the gradually applied stress
BHalf the gradually applied stress
CTwice the stress of the same load applied gradually
DTen times the stress
Answer is hidden
Question 283 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Elasticity
The factor of safety used for lifting equipment such as chains and slings is usually:
AAlways exactly 1
BZero
CLower than for static members
DMuch higher than for static structural members
Answer is hidden
Question 284 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The centroid of a triangle of height h lies at a distance from its base of:
Ah/4
Bh/3
C2h/3
Dh/2
Answer is hidden
Question 285 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The centroid of a semicircular area of radius r from its diameter is:
A3r/8
B4r/(3π)
C2r/π
Dr/2
Answer is hidden
Question 286 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The moment of inertia of a rectangle b × d about its base is:
Abd³/3
Bdb³/12
Cbd³/12
Dbd³/36
Answer is hidden
Question 287 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is:
Aπd³/16
Bπd⁴/64
Cπd³/32
Dπd⁴/32
Answer is hidden
Question 288 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
Bending moment in a beam is maximum where the shear force:
AIs equal to the load
BIs constant
CIs maximum
DIs zero or changes sign
Answer is hidden
Question 289 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
A simply supported beam of span L carries a UDL w. The maximum bending moment is:
AwL²/12
BwL²/2
CwL²/4
DwL²/8
Answer is hidden
Question 290 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
A cantilever of length L carries a point load W at the free end. The maximum deflection is:
AWL³/48EI
B5WL³/384EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/8EI
Answer is hidden
Question 291 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam with a central point load W is:
A5WL³/384EI
BWL³/192EI
CWL³/3EI
DWL³/48EI
Answer is hidden
Question 292 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
For a rectangular beam section, the maximum shear stress is:
AEqual to the average shear stress
B4/3 times the average shear stress
C2 times the average shear stress
D1.5 times the average shear stress
Answer is hidden
Question 293 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
A plane truss with j joints is perfect if the number of members m is:
Aj − 3
B2j − 3
C3j − 2
D2j + 3
Answer is hidden
Question 294 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of diameter d transmitting torque T is:
A16T/(πd⁴)
BT/(πd³)
C16T/(πd³)
D32T/(πd³)
Answer is hidden
Question 295 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
A shaft subjected to bending moment M and torque T has an equivalent torque of:
A½[M + √(M² + T²)]
B√(M² + T²)
C√(M² − T²)
DM + T
Answer is hidden
Question 296 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
A shaft transmitting 15 kW at 300 rpm carries a torque of about:
A48 N·m
B4 780 N·m
C478 N·m
D150 N·m
Answer is hidden
Question 297 of 1122Ch 4 · Strength of Materials
The load capacity of a pallet-rack beam is often limited not by stress but by:
AAllowable deflection
BNumber of pallets stored in the plant
CRack height only
DColour of the paint
Answer is hidden
Question 298 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
Which of the following is a higher pair?
ACam and follower
BPiston and cylinder
CShaft in a bearing
DNut and screw
Answer is hidden
Question 299 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
A kinematic chain becomes a mechanism when:
AAll links are fixed
BOne of its links is fixed
CIt transmits no motion
DIt has no links fixed
Answer is hidden
Question 300 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
According to Kutzbach's criterion, a planar linkage with 4 links and 4 binary lower pairs has DOF:
A1
B0
C3
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 301 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
A planar linkage has 5 links and 6 binary joints. Its degree of freedom is:
A−1
B0 (structure)
C2
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 302 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
Grashof's law for a four-bar chain having at least one fully rotating link is:
As + p ≤ l + q
Bs × l ≤ p × q
Cs + l ≥ p + q
Ds + l ≤ p + q
Answer is hidden
Question 303 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The Whitworth quick-return mechanism is an inversion of the single slider-crank chain obtained by fixing the:
AConnecting rod
BCylinder (frame)
CCrank
DSlider
Answer is hidden
Question 304 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
An elliptical trammel is an inversion of the:
ASingle slider-crank chain
BGear train
CDouble slider-crank chain
DFour-bar chain
Answer is hidden
Question 305 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The number of instantaneous centres in a six-link mechanism is:
A6
B30
C12
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 306 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
Kennedy's theorem states that the three instantaneous centres of three bodies in relative motion:
ACoincide
BLie on a straight line
CForm an equilateral triangle
DLie on a circle
Answer is hidden
Question 307 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The Coriolis component of acceleration is present in:
ASimple pendulum
BSlider-crank with fixed cylinder only
CCrank and slotted lever quick-return mechanism
DFour-bar mechanism with pin joints only
Answer is hidden
Question 308 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
Oldham's coupling is used to connect two shafts that are:
ACoaxial and rigidly joined
BParallel with a small lateral offset
CPerpendicular and non-intersecting
DIntersecting at an angle
Answer is hidden
Question 309 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The Ackermann steering gear is preferred over the Davis steering gear because it:
ANeeds no linkage
BUses only turning pairs, so has less friction and wear
CIs exact at all positions
DUses sliding pairs
Answer is hidden
Question 310 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The mechanism that gives a very large mechanical advantage near the end of its stroke, used in presses and clamping devices, is the:
AOldham coupling
BToggle mechanism
CPantograph
DScotch yoke
Answer is hidden
Question 311 of 1122Ch 4 · Theory of Machines
The quick-return motion of a shaper is obtained from a:
ACam and follower
BWorm and worm wheel
CSimple four-bar chain with equal links
DCrank and slotted-lever mechanism
Answer is hidden
Question 312 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The gyroscopic couple on a body spinning with angular velocity ω and precessing with ωp is:
AIωωp
BIω/ωp
CIωp²
DIω²
Answer is hidden
Question 313 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
A ship's rolling motion produces:
APitching effect
BNo gyroscopic effect
CMaximum gyroscopic couple
DSteering effect
Answer is hidden
Question 314 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The function of a governor is to:
ABalance reciprocating masses
BReduce speed fluctuations within a cycle
CControl the mean speed of the engine according to load
DStore energy
Answer is hidden
Question 315 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
A governor is said to be isochronous when:
AIts equilibrium speed is the same for all radii of rotation
BIts radius increases with speed
CIt has maximum friction
DIt is spring loaded
Answer is hidden
Question 316 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The height of a Watt governor running at 60 rpm is approximately:
A0.5 m
B0.1 m
C0.25 m
D1 m
Answer is hidden
Question 317 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is:
AIω²Cs
BIω Cs
C½Iω²
DIω²/Cs
Answer is hidden
Question 318 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
For complete dynamic balancing of several rotating masses in different planes:
AΣm = 0
BΣmr = 0 and Σmrl = 0
COnly Σmrl = 0
DOnly Σmr = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 319 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The frequency of the secondary unbalanced force of a reciprocating engine is:
AEqual to the crank speed
BFour times the crank speed
CTwice the crank speed
DHalf the crank speed
Answer is hidden
Question 320 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
For high-speed cams, the preferred follower motion is:
ACycloidal motion
BSimple harmonic motion
CUniform acceleration and retardation
DUniform velocity
Answer is hidden
Question 321 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
In a cross-belt drive, the driven pulley rotates:
AIn the direction opposite to the driver
BIn the same direction as the driver
COnly when slip is zero
DAt the same speed always
Answer is hidden
Question 322 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
Power transmitted by a belt is maximum when centrifugal tension equals:
AHalf of the maximum tension
BThe maximum tension
CTwo-thirds of the maximum tension
DOne-third of the maximum tension
Answer is hidden
Question 323 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
A gear train in which the first and last gears are on the same axis is a:
AEpicyclic gear train
BWorm gear train
CReverted gear train
DSimple gear train
Answer is hidden
Question 324 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
The standard pressure angle of modern involute gears is:
A20°
B25°
C14.5°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 325 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
A flywheel is fitted to a punching press mainly to:
ASupply the large energy needed during punching so that a smaller motor can be used
BReduce the press capacity
CReplace the clutch
DIncrease the punch force indefinitely
Answer is hidden
Question 326 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanisms
A worm gear reducer used for continuous duty is often avoided in energy-saving projects because:
AIt cannot give a high speed ratio
BIts efficiency is lower than that of a helical reducer
CIt is always noisier than gears
DIt cannot transmit torque
Answer is hidden
Question 327 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
On principal planes, the shear stress is:
AHalf the normal stress
BZero
CEqual to normal stress
DMaximum
Answer is hidden
Question 328 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
The maximum shear stress planes are inclined to the principal planes at:
A45°
B90°
C0°
D30°
Answer is hidden
Question 329 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
For σx = 80 MPa, σy = 20 MPa and τxy = 40 MPa, the maximum principal stress is:
A100 MPa
B80 MPa
C120 MPa
D50 MPa
Answer is hidden
Question 330 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
In a state of pure shear τ, the principal stresses are:
A+τ and 0
Bτ/2 and −τ/2
C+τ and −τ
D2τ and 0
Answer is hidden
Question 331 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
The theory of failure most suitable for brittle materials is:
ATotal strain energy theory
BMaximum principal stress theory (Rankine)
CMaximum shear stress theory
DDistortion energy theory
Answer is hidden
Question 332 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
According to the von Mises (distortion energy) theory, the shear yield strength is:
A0.5 σy
Bσy
C0.707 σy
D0.577 σy
Answer is hidden
Question 333 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
Which of the following is statically indeterminate?
ACantilever
BSimply supported beam
COverhanging beam
DPropped cantilever
Answer is hidden
Question 334 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
The effective length of a column with both ends fixed (actual length L) is:
AL
B2L
CL/2
DL/√2
Answer is hidden
Question 335 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
In a thin cylindrical shell under internal pressure, hoop stress is:
AEqual to the longitudinal stress
BTwice the longitudinal stress
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DFour times the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 336 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
A cylinder is treated as thin when its wall thickness is less than about:
AEqual to its diameter
B1/20 of its diameter
C1/2 of its diameter
D1/5 of its diameter
Answer is hidden
Question 337 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
In a thick cylinder under internal pressure, the maximum hoop stress occurs at the:
AMid-length only
BInner surface
COuter surface
DMean radius
Answer is hidden
Question 338 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
For a rectangular shaft under torsion, the maximum shear stress occurs at the:
AMiddle of the longer side
BCentre of the section
CMiddle of the shorter side
DCorners
Answer is hidden
Question 339 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
In a thin cylindrical pressure vessel, the hoop stress is:
ATwice the longitudinal stress
BZero
CHalf the longitudinal stress
DEqual to the longitudinal stress
Answer is hidden
Question 340 of 1122Ch 4 · Mechanics of Solids
Replacing an open channel section of a machine frame by a closed box section mainly improves its:
ATorsional stiffness
BBending flexibility
CWeight only
DSurface finish
Answer is hidden
Question 341 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
In the air-standard cycle, the specific heats of the working fluid are assumed to be:
ADecreasing with temperature
BIncreasing with temperature
CZero
DConstant
Answer is hidden
Question 342 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Which effect is considered in the fuel-air cycle but NOT in the air-standard cycle?
AFinite combustion time
BVariation of specific heats and dissociation
CPumping loss
DHeat loss to walls
Answer is hidden
Question 343 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
The effect of variation of specific heats with temperature is to:
ALower the peak temperature and efficiency
BHave no effect
CRaise the peak temperature
DIncrease the efficiency
Answer is hidden
Question 344 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Dissociation in an IC engine:
AAbsorbs heat and lowers maximum combustion temperature
BIncreases peak pressure
CReleases extra heat at TDC
DOccurs only at low temperatures
Answer is hidden
Question 345 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
The efficiency of the fuel-air cycle increases when the mixture is made:
ALeaner
BVery rich
CRicher
DExactly stoichiometric
Answer is hidden
Question 346 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Maximum power in an SI engine is obtained with a mixture that is:
ASlightly rich
BVery lean
CExtremely rich
DExactly chemically correct
Answer is hidden
Question 347 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Residual gases in the cylinder are:
AUnburnt fuel droplets
BLubricating oil vapour
CBurned gases from the previous cycle remaining in the clearance volume
DFresh air only
Answer is hidden
Question 348 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
The products of combustion of a rich mixture contain:
ACO and H2
BOnly N2
CNo CO2
DExcess O2 only
Answer is hidden
Question 349 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Time loss in the actual cycle arises because:
AThe exhaust valve opens early
BCombustion takes a finite time and does not occur at constant volume
COf friction between piston and liner
DHeat is lost to the coolant
Answer is hidden
Question 350 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Opening the exhaust valve before BDC causes:
ATime loss
BKnock
CDissociation loss
DExhaust blow-down loss
Answer is hidden
Question 351 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
The correct order of efficiency for the same compression ratio is:
AAll equal
BFuel-air > air-standard > actual
CActual > fuel-air > air-standard
DAir-standard > fuel-air > actual
Answer is hidden
Question 352 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of IC Engines: Actual Cycles
Pumping loss in an SI engine is largest at:
AWide-open throttle
BPart (low) throttle
CIdle with throttle fully open
DMaximum speed and full load
Answer is hidden
Question 353 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
An engine with bore 80 mm and stroke 70 mm is described as:
ATwo-stroke
BOver-square (short-stroke)
CUnder-square (long-stroke)
DSquare
Answer is hidden
Question 354 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
The mean piston speed of an engine with 90 mm stroke running at 4000 rpm is:
A6 m/s
B360 m/s
C24 m/s
D12 m/s
Answer is hidden
Question 355 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Pistons of modern automobile engines are generally made of:
AGrey cast iron only
BAluminium-silicon alloy
CCopper
DStainless steel
Answer is hidden
Question 356 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Cylinder liners are commonly manufactured by:
ADeep drawing
BDrop forging
CPowder metallurgy only
DCentrifugal casting
Answer is hidden
Question 357 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
A wet liner is one that:
AHas no contact with coolant
BIs made of rubber
CIs in direct contact with the engine coolant
DIs lubricated by water
Answer is hidden
Question 358 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Connecting rods are usually manufactured by:
AExtrusion
BSand casting
CDrop forging
DWelding
Answer is hidden
Question 359 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Sodium-filled hollow stems are used in:
APistons
BExhaust valves
CInlet valves only
DCrankshafts
Answer is hidden
Question 360 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
A cast crankshaft is commonly made of:
ASpheroidal-graphite (nodular) cast iron
BAluminium
CBrass
DWhite cast iron
Answer is hidden
Question 361 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Compared with a four-stroke engine, a two-stroke engine of the same size:
AHas poppet valves and a camshaft
BGives more power but has lower fuel efficiency
CProduces lower HC emissions
DGives less power and better fuel economy
Answer is hidden
Question 362 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
The most efficient scavenging method in two-stroke engines is:
ACrankcase compression only
BCross-flow scavenging
CUniflow scavenging
DLoop scavenging
Answer is hidden
Question 363 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
An engine whose valves are both located in the cylinder head is a/an:
AL-head engine
BT-head engine
CF-head engine
DI-head (overhead valve) engine
Answer is hidden
Question 364 of 1122Ch 5 · Classification, Parts and Materials of IC Engines
Highly stressed engine parts are forged rather than cast mainly because forging:
AGives favourable grain flow and higher fatigue strength
BProduces hollow shapes easily
CNeeds no machining
DIs always cheaper
Answer is hidden
Question 365 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
The firing interval of a four-stroke, six-cylinder engine is:
A60°
B120°
C180°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 366 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
The firing interval of a four-stroke, four-cylinder engine is:
A120°
B180°
C360°
D90°
Answer is hidden
Question 367 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
A single-cylinder engine requires a heavier flywheel than a multi-cylinder engine of the same power because:
AIt has more power strokes per cycle
BIts torque fluctuation is much larger
CIt has no crankshaft
DIt runs at higher speed
Answer is hidden
Question 368 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
The most common firing order of a four-cylinder in-line engine is:
A4-3-2-1
B1-2-3-4
C1-4-3-2
D1-3-4-2
Answer is hidden
Question 369 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
A common firing order for an in-line six-cylinder engine is:
A1-3-5-2-4-6
B1-5-3-6-2-4
C1-2-3-4-5-6
D1-6-2-5-3-4
Answer is hidden
Question 370 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
Adjacent cylinders are generally not fired consecutively in order to:
AIncrease fuel consumption
BReduce crankshaft stress, bearing loads and heat concentration
CSimplify the ignition system
DIncrease vibration
Answer is hidden
Question 371 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
A horizontally opposed (boxer) engine is favoured in some cars because of its:
AVery narrow width
BSingle cylinder bank
CNeed for no crankshaft
DLow centre of gravity and good balance
Answer is hidden
Question 372 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
In an in-line four-cylinder engine, the forces that remain unbalanced are the:
ARotating masses
BPrimary forces
CGas forces only
DSecondary forces
Answer is hidden
Question 373 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
Lanchester balance shafts rotate at:
ACrankshaft speed in the same direction
BHalf crankshaft speed
CCamshaft speed
DTwice crankshaft speed in opposite directions
Answer is hidden
Question 374 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
The engine arrangement that is inherently balanced for primary and secondary forces and couples is the:
AIn-line three-cylinder
BIn-line six-cylinder
CSingle-cylinder
DIn-line four-cylinder
Answer is hidden
Question 375 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
Secondary unbalanced forces in a reciprocating engine vary at:
ACrank frequency
BFour times crank frequency
CHalf crank frequency
DTwice the crank frequency
Answer is hidden
Question 376 of 1122Ch 5 · Multi-Cylinder Engines
A harmonic balancer on the crankshaft nose is used to reduce:
AFuel consumption
BValve float
COil pressure
DTorsional vibration of the crankshaft
Answer is hidden
Question 377 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
An engine with both valves located in the cylinder block beside the cylinder is a/an:
AI-head engine
BF-head engine
CDOHC engine
DL-head (side valve) engine
Answer is hidden
Question 378 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
In a DOHC engine:
AOnly one valve per cylinder is used
BSeparate overhead camshafts operate the intake and exhaust valves
CThe camshaft is in the cylinder block
DPushrods operate all valves
Answer is hidden
Question 379 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
A main advantage of four valves per cylinder is:
AFewer parts
BLower engine speed
CLarger valve flow area and better volumetric efficiency
DLower cost
Answer is hidden
Question 380 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Long intake runners in a tuned intake manifold mainly improve:
AHigh-speed power
BOil consumption
CLow-speed torque
DExhaust scavenging only
Answer is hidden
Question 381 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
The inlet valve is usually made larger than the exhaust valve because:
AThe inlet valve opens later
BIncoming charge flows under a smaller pressure difference
CIt reduces compression ratio
DThe exhaust valve runs cooler
Answer is hidden
Question 382 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Sodium is used inside hollow exhaust valve stems to:
ATransfer heat from the valve head to the stem and guide
BIncrease valve weight
CSeal the combustion chamber
DLubricate the valve guide
Answer is hidden
Question 383 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
The camshaft of a four-stroke engine rotates at:
AFour times the crankshaft speed
BTwice the crankshaft speed
CHalf the crankshaft speed
DCrankshaft speed
Answer is hidden
Question 384 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Valve spring surge is prevented by using:
AA heavier valve
BA softer spring
CLarger valve clearance
DTwo concentric springs wound in opposite directions
Answer is hidden
Question 385 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Tappet clearance for the exhaust valve is usually:
AZero
BGreater than for the inlet valve
CLess than for the inlet valve
DThe same as the inlet
Answer is hidden
Question 386 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Insufficient valve (tappet) clearance can lead to:
AIncreased valve lift
BExcessive valve noise only
CLower valve temperature
DBurnt valves and loss of compression
Answer is hidden
Question 387 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Hydraulic tappets are used because they:
AEliminate the camshaft
BMaintain zero valve lash automatically
CNeed frequent adjustment
DIncrease valve clearance
Answer is hidden
Question 388 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
In the valve timing diagram of a four-stroke engine, the inlet valve:
AOpens before BDC and closes after TDC
BOpens at BDC and closes at TDC
COpens after TDC and closes before BDC
DOpens before TDC and closes after BDC
Answer is hidden
Question 389 of 1122Ch 5 · Valves and Valve Train
Valve overlap refers to the period when:
ABoth valves are closed during compression
BOnly the exhaust valve is open at BDC
CBoth inlet and exhaust valves are open near TDC
DThe spark occurs
Answer is hidden
Question 390 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
A vehicle powered only by a rechargeable battery and electric motor, with no IC engine, is a:
AHEV
BPHEV
CBEV
DEREV
Answer is hidden
Question 391 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
A hybrid vehicle whose battery can also be charged from the electric grid is a:
AFuel-cell vehicle
BConventional HEV
CPlug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV)
DMild hybrid
Answer is hidden
Question 392 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
In a series hybrid vehicle, the IC engine:
AIs absent
BDrives the wheels directly at all times
CDrives only a generator; the wheels are driven by the motor
DCharges the battery from the grid
Answer is hidden
Question 393 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
The Toyota Prius power-split hybrid uses a:
ATorque converter
BBelt CVT only
CSeparate generator for each wheel
DPlanetary gear set to divide engine power
Answer is hidden
Question 394 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
In an EV, the device that converts DC from the battery into variable-frequency three-phase AC for the motor is the:
ADC-DC converter
BBattery management system
COn-board charger
DTraction inverter
Answer is hidden
Question 395 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
The DC-DC converter in an EV is used to:
AMeasure cell temperature
BSupply the 12 V system from the high-voltage battery
CDrive the traction motor
DCharge the HV battery from AC mains
Answer is hidden
Question 396 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
Estimating state of charge and balancing individual cells is a function of the:
ACharging connector
BBattery management system (BMS)
CTraction motor
DInverter
Answer is hidden
Question 397 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
High-voltage cables in electric vehicles are identified by the colour:
ABlack
BBlue
CGreen
DOrange
Answer is hidden
Question 398 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
The purpose of the pre-charge resistor in the HV circuit is to:
AIncrease motor torque
BCool the battery
CCharge the 12 V battery
DLimit inrush current into inverter capacitors when contactors close
Answer is hidden
Question 399 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
During AC charging, the charging power is usually limited by the:
AWheel size
BDC fast charger
COn-board charger rating
DTraction motor rating
Answer is hidden
Question 400 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
DC fast charging is faster than AC charging mainly because:
AA high-power off-board charger feeds DC directly to the battery
BIt uses a higher-frequency AC
CIt bypasses the BMS
DThe motor charges the battery
Answer is hidden
Question 401 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
The seven-pin AC connector standard used in Europe and widely in India/Nepal is:
AType 1 (SAE J1772)
BNACS
CType 2 (IEC 62196-2)
DCHAdeMO
Answer is hidden
Question 402 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
The Japanese DC fast-charging standard that supports bidirectional (V2G) charging is:
AGB/T
BType 2
CCHAdeMO
DType 1
Answer is hidden
Question 403 of 1122Ch 5 · Basics of Electric Vehicles
GB/T charging connectors are the national standard of:
AEuropean Union
BUSA
CJapan
DChina
Answer is hidden
Question 404 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
Low heat rejection engines use coatings of:
APTFE
BCeramics such as partially stabilised zirconia
CCopper
DGraphite grease
Answer is hidden
Question 405 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
A major drawback of low heat rejection engines is:
AHigher NOx emissions and lubricating-oil breakdown
BLower exhaust temperature
CLonger ignition delay
DHigher heat loss to coolant
Answer is hidden
Question 406 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
In an HCCI engine, ignition occurs by:
AA spark plug
BInjection of fuel into hot air near TDC
CA glow plug at all times
DCompression of a homogeneous premixed charge
Answer is hidden
Question 407 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
The main advantage of HCCI combustion is:
AVery low HC and CO emissions
BVery low NOx and soot with high efficiency
COperation at any load without limits
DEasy control of ignition timing
Answer is hidden
Question 408 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
The main difficulty in HCCI engines is:
ANeed for high-voltage ignition
BLow compression ratio
CHigh soot formation
DControl of the start of combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 409 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
The rotor of a Wankel engine is:
ACircular
BCylindrical piston
CTriangular (Reuleaux-shaped)
DSquare
Answer is hidden
Question 410 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
In a Wankel engine, the output (eccentric) shaft turns how many times per rotor revolution?
A2
B4
C1
D3
Answer is hidden
Question 411 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
A well-known problem of the Wankel rotary engine is:
AHeavy reciprocating parts
BVery large size for its power
CWear and leakage of apex seals
DComplex valve train
Answer is hidden
Question 412 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
In the Crower six-stroke engine, the fifth stroke is powered by:
AExhaust gas recirculation only
BSteam from water injected into the hot cylinder
CCompressed air from a tank
DA second fuel injection
Answer is hidden
Question 413 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
Engine downsizing means:
AReducing the vehicle's body size
BLowering engine speed only
CUsing a smaller-displacement engine, usually turbocharged, to give the same power
DRemoving cylinders permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 414 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
Cylinder deactivation improves fuel economy at light load mainly by:
AIncreasing compression ratio
BReducing pumping losses of the working cylinders
CRemoving the need for fuel injection
DRaising engine speed
Answer is hidden
Question 415 of 1122Ch 5 · Advanced IC Engines
Mazda's SPCCI (Skyactiv-X) technology is related to:
AHCCI with spark-controlled compression ignition
BTwo-stroke scavenging
CBattery electric drive
DWankel rotary engines
Answer is hidden
Question 416 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The chemically correct air-fuel ratio for petrol is about:
A30 : 1
B20 : 1
C14.7 : 1
D9 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 417 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The mixture required for maximum power in an SI engine is approximately:
A7 : 1
B20 : 1
C16–17 : 1 (lean)
D12.5–13 : 1 (slightly rich)
Answer is hidden
Question 418 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The mixture required during idling is rich mainly because of:
ALow residual gas fraction
BHigh engine temperature
CHigh volumetric efficiency
DDilution of the charge by residual exhaust gases
Answer is hidden
Question 419 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
An extremely rich mixture is required during cold starting because:
AAir is too hot
BThe spark is too strong
CKnock must be prevented
DOnly a small fraction of the fuel vaporises in a cold engine
Answer is hidden
Question 420 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The 10% point of the petrol distillation curve mainly indicates:
AGum content
BOctane number
CCold-starting ability and vapour-lock tendency
DCrankcase dilution
Answer is hidden
Question 421 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
In a carburettor, fuel is drawn into the air stream because:
AOf the choke valve action alone
BPressure at the venturi throat is below float-chamber pressure
CAir pressure at the throat is higher
DThe fuel pump injects it at high pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 422 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The function of the float and needle valve in a carburettor is to:
AMaintain a constant fuel level in the float chamber
BEnrich the mixture for acceleration
CControl the engine speed
DMeasure air flow
Answer is hidden
Question 423 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
In a simple carburettor, as air flow through the venturi increases, the mixture:
AStops flowing
BBecomes richer
CRemains exactly constant
DBecomes leaner
Answer is hidden
Question 424 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The accelerating pump in a carburettor is used to:
ASupply extra fuel when the throttle is opened suddenly
BPrevent icing
CLean the mixture at cruising
DSupply fuel during idling
Answer is hidden
Question 425 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The choke valve in a carburettor is used for:
AMaximum power at hot running
BCold starting
CEconomical cruising
DIdling of a warm engine
Answer is hidden
Question 426 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
The device that keeps the mixture strength nearly constant over the cruising range is the:
AChoke
BCompensating jet / air-bleed system
CFloat
DAccelerating pump
Answer is hidden
Question 427 of 1122Ch 6 · Petrol Engine Fuels and Carburettor
A carburettor in which a piston varies the venturi area to keep a constant depression is the:
AUp-draught type only
BSimple carburettor
CConstant-choke (Solex) type
DConstant-vacuum (SU) type
Answer is hidden
Question 428 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
A major drawback of a carburettor in multi-cylinder engines is:
AHigher volumetric efficiency
BUnequal mixture distribution among cylinders
CToo precise metering
DAbsence of icing
Answer is hidden
Question 429 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
In a multipoint fuel injection system, fuel is injected:
AAbove the throttle valve only
BDirectly into the cylinder
CInto the exhaust manifold
DInto each intake port near the inlet valve
Answer is hidden
Question 430 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
In single-point (throttle-body) injection, the intake manifold carries:
AAir-fuel mixture (wet manifold)
BOnly fuel
CExhaust gas
DOnly air (dry manifold)
Answer is hidden
Question 431 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
The quantity of fuel injected by an electronic solenoid injector is mainly controlled by:
AThe engine oil pressure
BThe size of the fuel tank
CThe spark timing
DThe duration for which the injector is open (pulse width)
Answer is hidden
Question 432 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
The sensor that enables closed-loop control of the air-fuel ratio around λ = 1 is the:
AOxygen (lambda) sensor
BThrottle position sensor
CCoolant temperature sensor
DKnock sensor
Answer is hidden
Question 433 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
The sensor used by the ECU to determine engine speed and crank position is the:
AOxygen sensor
BIntake air temperature sensor
CCrankshaft position sensor
DFuel level sensor
Answer is hidden
Question 434 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
Injection in which each injector is timed individually to the intake stroke of its cylinder is called:
AContinuous injection
BSequential injection
CThrottle-body injection
DSimultaneous injection
Answer is hidden
Question 435 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
In gasoline direct injection, fuel is injected:
AInto the intake port
BInto the air cleaner
CDirectly into the combustion chamber
DAt the throttle body
Answer is hidden
Question 436 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
GDI engines can use a higher compression ratio mainly because:
AThey operate only at idle
BThey have no spark plug
CThey use diesel fuel
DEvaporation of fuel in the cylinder cools the charge and reduces knock
Answer is hidden
Question 437 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
Stratified-charge operation in GDI engines improves part-load economy mainly by:
ARetarding the spark heavily
BIncreasing pumping losses
CUsing a very rich mixture everywhere
DAllowing unthrottled operation with an overall lean mixture
Answer is hidden
Question 438 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
A known problem of GDI engines is:
AInability to cold-start
BVery low compression ratio
CCarburettor icing
DCarbon deposits on intake valves and higher particulate emissions
Answer is hidden
Question 439 of 1122Ch 6 · Fuel Injection Systems (SI Engines)
Cutting off fuel injection during deceleration (overrun) is possible with:
AMagneto ignition
BA mechanical governor only
CA simple carburettor
DElectronic fuel injection
Answer is hidden
Question 440 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The ignition coil in a battery ignition system works as a:
ARectifier
BStep-down transformer
CGenerator
DStep-up transformer
Answer is hidden
Question 441 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The condenser connected across the contact-breaker points:
AStores fuel
BRectifies the current
CIncreases dwell angle
DPrevents arcing at the points and speeds up collapse of the magnetic field
Answer is hidden
Question 442 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The distributor shaft of a four-stroke engine rotates at:
ATwice crankshaft speed
BFour times crankshaft speed
CHalf the crankshaft speed
DCrankshaft speed
Answer is hidden
Question 443 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
In a battery (coil) ignition system, the spark voltage at high speeds tends to:
ARemain constant
BBecome infinite
CDecrease
DIncrease
Answer is hidden
Question 444 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
A magneto ignition system gives a weak spark:
AAt all speeds equally
BOnly when the battery is flat
CAt high engine speed
DAt low engine speed (starting)
Answer is hidden
Question 445 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
Capacitor discharge ignition (CDI) uses a/an:
AMagneto without any capacitor
BThyristor (SCR) to discharge a capacitor into the coil
CContact-breaker only
DMechanical distributor to generate voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 446 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
In a waste-spark distributorless ignition system of a four-cylinder engine:
AA distributor rotor selects the plug
BOnly one coil fires all plugs in turn
CPlugs of cylinders 1 and 4 fire together, one on compression and one on exhaust
DEach cylinder fires twice on compression
Answer is hidden
Question 447 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The centrifugal advance mechanism advances the spark with increase in:
ACoolant temperature
BEngine speed
CManifold vacuum
DEngine load
Answer is hidden
Question 448 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The vacuum advance mechanism provides more spark advance at:
AEngine stop
BCranking
CFull throttle
DPart load (high manifold vacuum)
Answer is hidden
Question 449 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
The most important factor influencing flame speed in an SI engine is:
AFuel colour
BTurbulence
COil viscosity
DSpark-plug colour
Answer is hidden
Question 450 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
Knock in an SI engine is caused by:
AToo low compression ratio
BAuto-ignition of the end gas ahead of the flame front
CIgnition by a hot spot before the spark
DExcessive turbulence
Answer is hidden
Question 451 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
Which of the following REDUCES knock in an SI engine?
AIncreasing compression ratio
BUsing a lower-octane fuel
CRetarding the spark
DIncreasing intake temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 452 of 1122Ch 6 · Ignition System and Combustion in SI Engines
A cold spark plug is suitable for:
AMagneto engines only
BEngines with heavy carbon fouling at idle
CLow-speed engines running at light load
DHigh-speed, high-performance engines
Answer is hidden
Question 453 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
The ignition quality of diesel fuel is expressed by its:
ACetane number
BPour point
COctane number
DFlash point
Answer is hidden
Question 454 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
Load in a CI engine is controlled by varying:
AThe throttle opening of air
BThe compression ratio
CThe spark timing
DThe quantity of fuel injected (quality governing)
Answer is hidden
Question 455 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
In a jerk-type (Bosch) fuel pump, the quantity of fuel delivered is varied by:
AChanging the camshaft speed
BChanging the plunger stroke length
CAdjusting nozzle opening pressure
DRotating the plunger with the control rack
Answer is hidden
Question 456 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
The delivery valve in a diesel fuel pump helps to:
ADrive the governor
BCool the fuel
CIncrease injection quantity
DGive sharp cut-off and prevent dribbling at the nozzle
Answer is hidden
Question 457 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
A fuel system in which the pump and nozzle are combined in one unit for each cylinder is the:
ACarburettor system
BDistributor pump system
CIn-line pump system
DUnit injector system
Answer is hidden
Question 458 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
Multi-hole nozzles are generally used in:
ATwo-stroke petrol engines
BSI carburetted engines
CIndirect-injection swirl chambers
DDirect-injection engines
Answer is hidden
Question 459 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
In a common-rail system, the injection pressure:
AIs produced by the injector spring alone
BIs independent of engine speed and load
CDepends directly on engine speed only
DIs always below 100 bar
Answer is hidden
Question 460 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
The main purpose of pilot injection in CRDI engines is to:
AClean the fuel filter
BReduce combustion noise and diesel knock
CIncrease soot
DReduce compression ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 461 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
The stage of CI combustion in which fuel accumulated during the delay burns rapidly is the:
AControlled combustion stage
BRapid (uncontrolled) combustion stage
CAfter-burning stage
DIgnition lag of SI engine
Answer is hidden
Question 462 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
The ignition delay in a CI engine decreases with:
AIncrease in compression ratio
BDecrease in intake air temperature
CVery early injection into cold air
DUse of low-cetane fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 463 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
Diesel knock is mainly caused by:
AA long ignition delay period
BHigh cetane fuel
CSupercharging
DA very short ignition delay
Answer is hidden
Question 464 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
Compared with IDI engines, direct-injection diesel engines have:
AHigher heat loss through chamber throat
BBetter fuel economy and easier cold starting
CAlways a glow plug and pre-chamber
DLower injection pressure and pintle nozzles
Answer is hidden
Question 465 of 1122Ch 6 · Compression Ignition Engines: Fuel Injection and Combustion
A Ricardo Comet combustion chamber is a:
ADirect-injection open chamber
BRotary engine housing
CSwirl chamber (indirect injection)
DPetrol engine wedge chamber
Answer is hidden
Question 466 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
The most important property of a lubricating oil is its:
ADensity
BViscosity
CColour
DOdour
Answer is hidden
Question 467 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
In the oil designation SAE 10W-30, '10W' refers to:
AWear protection level
BLow-temperature (winter) viscosity grade
CWater content
DWeight of oil
Answer is hidden
Question 468 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
Engine oils for diesel engines are classified by API with the letter:
AW
BS
CC
DG
Answer is hidden
Question 469 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
A high total base number (TBN) in engine oil is needed to:
ANeutralise acids formed from sulphur in fuel
BIncrease viscosity
CReduce foaming
DRaise pour point
Answer is hidden
Question 470 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
The lubrication system used in most modern automobile engines is:
APetroil lubrication
BSplash lubrication only
CPressure (forced-feed) lubrication
DGrease lubrication
Answer is hidden
Question 471 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
In a dry-sump lubrication system, oil is stored in:
AThe radiator
BA separate oil tank
CThe crankcase sump
DThe fuel tank
Answer is hidden
Question 472 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
Two-stroke petrol engines are usually lubricated by:
ADry-sump pressure lubrication
BPetroil (oil mixed with fuel) or oil injection
CSplash from dippers in a wet sump
DGrease cups
Answer is hidden
Question 473 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
Over-cooling of an engine results in:
ACorrosive wear and lower thermal efficiency
BReduced oil dilution
CHigher thermal efficiency
DReduced wear
Answer is hidden
Question 474 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
The thermostat in the cooling system:
APumps coolant
BFilters coolant
CRestricts coolant flow to the radiator until the engine warms up
DIncreases coolant pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 475 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
The pressure cap on a radiator:
ARaises the boiling point of the coolant
BControls fan speed
CRemoves antifreeze
DLowers the boiling point
Answer is hidden
Question 476 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
Compared with liquid cooling, air cooling is:
AQuieter and more uniform
BSimpler and lighter but less uniform
CDependent on antifreeze
DSuitable for very large engines
Answer is hidden
Question 477 of 1122Ch 6 · Lubrication and Cooling Systems
The most commonly used antifreeze in engine coolant is:
ASulphuric acid
BKerosene
CEthylene glycol
DMethanol
Answer is hidden
Question 478 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
The main objective of supercharging an engine is to:
AReduce the engine's air consumption
BLower the compression ratio of diesels
CIncrease power output by increasing the density of intake charge
DIncrease knock in CI engines
Answer is hidden
Question 479 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
Supercharging is especially useful for engines operating at high altitude because it:
AIncreases air density outside the engine
BEliminates the cooling system
CReduces the need for fuel
DCompensates for the lower density of atmospheric air
Answer is hidden
Question 480 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
Supercharging an SI engine generally increases its tendency to:
AMisfire at full load
BRun cooler
CKnock
DProduce less NOx
Answer is hidden
Question 481 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
Supercharging a CI engine tends to:
AReduce ignition delay and diesel knock
BMake fuel injection unnecessary
CIncrease ignition delay
DIncrease diesel knock
Answer is hidden
Question 482 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
A turbocharger is driven by:
AExhaust gas energy
BThe crankshaft through a belt
CThe camshaft
DAn electric motor only
Answer is hidden
Question 483 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
A Roots blower differs from a screw supercharger in that the Roots blower:
ANeeds no drive
BIs exhaust driven
CHas no internal compression
DIs a centrifugal compressor
Answer is hidden
Question 484 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
The wastegate of a turbocharger is used to:
ALimit boost by bypassing some exhaust around the turbine
BIncrease exhaust back-pressure
CLubricate turbo bearings
DCool the compressed air
Answer is hidden
Question 485 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
The delay in the build-up of boost pressure when the accelerator is pressed is called:
ATurbo lag
BIgnition lag
CKnock
DValve overlap
Answer is hidden
Question 486 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
An intercooler is fitted after a turbocharger to:
AFilter the air
BCool the compressed air and increase its density
CHeat the intake air
DCool the exhaust gas
Answer is hidden
Question 487 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
An arrangement in which a small turbo operates at low speed and a second turbo is brought in at high speed is:
ASequential turbocharging
BConstant-pressure turbocharging
CTwin-charging
DParallel turbocharging
Answer is hidden
Question 488 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
Carbon monoxide in SI engine exhaust is mainly due to:
AVery high combustion temperature only
BSulphur in fuel
CLean mixture
DRich air-fuel mixture (lack of oxygen)
Answer is hidden
Question 489 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
NOx formation in engines is mainly due to:
ARich mixture and low temperature
BUnburnt fuel in crevices
CHigh combustion temperature with available oxygen
DLubricating oil burning
Answer is hidden
Question 490 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
A major source of unburnt HC in SI engines is:
AHigh flame temperature
BExcess oxygen in exhaust
CCrevice volumes and flame quenching near cold walls
DDissociation of CO2
Answer is hidden
Question 491 of 1122Ch 6 · Supercharging, Turbocharging and Exhaust Emissions
Black smoke from a diesel engine usually indicates:
ABurning lubricating oil
BSoot from over-fuelling or poor combustion
CWater vapour
DComplete combustion
Answer is hidden
Question 492 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
An engine develops a torque of 200 N·m at 3000 rpm. Its brake power is about:
A125.6 kW
B62.8 kW
C31.4 kW
D6.28 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 493 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
For a four-stroke engine running at N rpm, the number of power strokes per minute per cylinder is:
AN/4
BN
CN/2
D2N
Answer is hidden
Question 494 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
If IP = 50 kW and BP = 40 kW, the mechanical efficiency is:
A80%
B20%
C125%
D90%
Answer is hidden
Question 495 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
The Willans line method of finding friction power is applicable to:
ASingle-cylinder SI engines at part throttle
BCI (diesel) engines
CGas turbines
DSI engines only
Answer is hidden
Question 496 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
The Morse test is used to determine the friction power of:
ASingle-cylinder engines
BRotary compressors
CSteam turbines
DMulti-cylinder engines
Answer is hidden
Question 497 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
In a Morse test on a 4-cylinder engine, BP with all cylinders = 40 kW and BP with cylinder 1 cut out = 29 kW. IP of cylinder 1 is:
A11 kW
B40 kW
C69 kW
D29 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 498 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
The dynamometer that can absorb power and also drive the engine for a motoring test is the:
AElectric swinging-field (cradle) dynamometer
BProny brake
CHydraulic dynamometer
DRope brake dynamometer
Answer is hidden
Question 499 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
An air box is used in air-consumption measurement mainly to:
AFilter the air
BHeat the intake air
CIncrease the air pressure
DDamp the pulsations in air flow
Answer is hidden
Question 500 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
Brake mean effective pressure (BMEP) is related to IMEP by:
ABMEP = ηm × IMEP
BBMEP = IMEP + FMEP
CBMEP = ηv × IMEP
DBMEP = IMEP/ηm
Answer is hidden
Question 501 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
An engine has bsfc = 0.25 kg/kWh with fuel of CV = 42 000 kJ/kg. Its brake thermal efficiency is about:
A34%
B50%
C42%
D25%
Answer is hidden
Question 502 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
In a petrol engine at full throttle, maximum brake power occurs:
AAt the same speed as maximum torque
BAt a lower speed than maximum torque
CAt a higher speed than maximum torque
DAt idling speed
Answer is hidden
Question 503 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
Load in an SI engine is controlled by:
AChanging compression ratio
BVarying the quantity of mixture with a throttle (quantity governing)
CChanging the number of strokes
DVarying only the fuel quantity with unthrottled air
Answer is hidden
Question 504 of 1122Ch 7 · Engine Performance Parameters and Measurements
The absorption dynamometer in which a rotor cuts a magnetic field to produce braking torque is the:
AEddy-current dynamometer
BBelt transmission dynamometer
CTorsion dynamometer
DRope brake
Answer is hidden
Question 505 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
At no load, the mechanical efficiency of an engine is:
AMaximum
B100%
CAbout 50%
DZero
Answer is hidden
Question 506 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
As engine speed increases, mechanical efficiency generally:
ADecreases
BIncreases
CRemains constant
DBecomes 100%
Answer is hidden
Question 507 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
The volumetric efficiency of an SI engine at part load is low mainly because of:
ASupercharging
BLean mixture
CThrottling of the intake
DHigh compression ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 508 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
In a CI engine, the indicated thermal efficiency as load decreases:
ADecreases sharply
BIncreases
CBecomes negative
DRemains zero
Answer is hidden
Question 509 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
The volumetric efficiency of a CI engine is:
AAlmost independent of load
BZero at no load
CVery low at part load due to throttling
DMaximum at no load only
Answer is hidden
Question 510 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
Maximum torque of an engine occurs at approximately the speed of maximum:
AMechanical efficiency
BVolumetric efficiency
CFriction power
DExhaust temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 511 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
In the heat balance of a petrol engine, the largest share of fuel energy is usually lost to:
ALubricating oil
BRadiation
CBrake power
DExhaust gases
Answer is hidden
Question 512 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
Heat carried away by cooling water is calculated from:
Aṁf·CV
Bṁw·cpw·(Tout − Tin)
CpmLAn/60000
D2πNT/60000
Answer is hidden
Question 513 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
The mass of exhaust gas used in a heat balance calculation is:
AMass of air + mass of fuel
BMass of cooling water
CMass of fuel only
DMass of air only
Answer is hidden
Question 514 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
The instrument used to measure heat carried away by exhaust gases directly is the:
AThrottling calorimeter
BBomb calorimeter
CExhaust-gas calorimeter
DJunkers gas calorimeter
Answer is hidden
Question 515 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
Fuel heat = 100 kW, BP = 30 kW, cooling water = 25 kW, exhaust = 35 kW. The unaccounted loss is:
A10 kW
B0 kW
C35 kW
D20 kW
Answer is hidden
Question 516 of 1122Ch 7 · Effect of Load and Speed on Efficiencies; Heat Balance Sheet
The brake thermal efficiency of a diesel engine at full load is typically:
AAbout 60–70%
BAbout 10%
CAbout 90%
DAbout 30–40%
Answer is hidden
Question 517 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
Ethanol is a better fuel for SI engines than for CI engines because it has:
AVery low latent heat
BVery high calorific value
CHigh octane number and low cetane number
DLow octane number and high cetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 518 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
A major cold-starting problem with alcohol fuels arises from their:
ALow octane number
BHigh latent heat of vaporisation
CHigh sulphur content
DHigh cetane number
Answer is hidden
Question 519 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
Biodiesel is produced from vegetable oils mainly by:
AFischer–Tropsch synthesis
BFermentation
CTransesterification
DCracking
Answer is hidden
Question 520 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
The stoichiometric air-fuel ratio of hydrogen is about:
A34 : 1
B6.4 : 1
C9 : 1
D14.7 : 1
Answer is hidden
Question 521 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
A major problem of hydrogen in IC engines is:
AVery narrow flammability limits
BVery high CO emission
CHeavy soot formation
DBackfire and pre-ignition due to very low ignition energy
Answer is hidden
Question 522 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
CNG is stored on vehicles at a pressure of about:
A2000 bar
B5–10 bar
C1 bar
D200–250 bar
Answer is hidden
Question 523 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
LPG leaks are more dangerous than CNG leaks in closed spaces because LPG is:
ALighter than air
BHeavier than air and collects near the ground
CNon-flammable
DToxic in small amounts
Answer is hidden
Question 524 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
The main combustible constituents of producer gas are:
APropane and butane
BCH4 and C2H6
CN2 and CO2
DCO and H2
Answer is hidden
Question 525 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
Raw biogas mainly contains:
AMethane and carbon dioxide
BPropane and butane
CNitrogen and oxygen
DHydrogen and CO
Answer is hidden
Question 526 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
Compared with diesel, biodiesel generally gives:
AHigher sulphur emissions
BLower PM, CO and HC but slightly higher NOx
CZero NOx
DHigher PM and CO
Answer is hidden
Question 527 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
A petrol engine converted to run on CNG usually suffers:
AAbout 10–15% loss of power
BSevere knock
CVery high smoke
DA large increase in power
Answer is hidden
Question 528 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
A flex-fuel vehicle is one that can run on:
AOnly hydrogen
BOnly electricity
COnly CNG
DAny blend of petrol and ethanol up to a high ethanol content
Answer is hidden
Question 529 of 1122Ch 7 · Alternative Fuels
The fuel whose combustion in a fuel cell produces only water is:
AHydrogen
BMethanol
CLPG
DBiodiesel
Answer is hidden
Question 530 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The ECM stores its calibration look-up tables (maps) in:
AThe A/D converter
BThe output driver
CRAM only
DROM / flash memory
Answer is hidden
Question 531 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The reference voltage supplied by the ECM to most sensors is:
A12 V
B24 V
C1.5 V
D5 V
Answer is hidden
Question 532 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The ECM works in open-loop mode mainly:
ADuring cold start and warm-up before the O2 sensor is active
BOnly when the engine is switched off
CAt steady cruising with a warm engine
DWhen the O2 sensor is hot and working
Answer is hidden
Question 533 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The CAN bus was originally developed by:
ABosch
BIntel
CGeneral Motors
DToyota
Answer is hidden
Question 534 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The two wires of a CAN bus are called:
ATx and Rx
BCAN-High and CAN-Low
CPositive and earth
DClock and data
Answer is hidden
Question 535 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The termination resistance at each end of a high-speed CAN bus is:
A120 Ω
B1 kΩ
C10 Ω
D60 Ω
Answer is hidden
Question 536 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
In CAN, a dominant bit represents logic:
ANo data
B1
CEither 0 or 1
D0
Answer is hidden
Question 537 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
When two CAN nodes start transmitting at the same time, the message that wins arbitration is the one with:
AThe highest identifier value
BThe node nearest the terminator
CThe lowest identifier value
DThe most data bytes
Answer is hidden
Question 538 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The maximum number of data bytes in a classical CAN data frame is:
A16
B8
C64
D128
Answer is hidden
Question 539 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The maximum bit rate of high-speed classical CAN is:
A100 Mbit/s
B1 Mbit/s
C20 kbit/s
D10 Gbit/s
Answer is hidden
Question 540 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
The standard CAN 2.0A identifier length is:
A11 bits
B29 bits
C64 bits
D8 bits
Answer is hidden
Question 541 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
A low-cost single-wire serial network used for window, mirror and seat modules is:
ALIN
BMOST
CCAN FD
DFlexRay
Answer is hidden
Question 542 of 1122Ch 7 · Basic Electronic Engine Controls and CAN Bus
A stored diagnostic trouble code (DTC) is read by connecting a scan tool to the:
AFuel injector
BBattery terminals only
C16-pin OBD connector
DIgnition coil
Answer is hidden
Question 543 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The throttle position sensor is basically a:
AThermistor
BPotentiometer
CZirconia cell
DPiezoelectric crystal
Answer is hidden
Question 544 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The coolant temperature sensor normally uses an NTC thermistor, whose resistance:
ADecreases as temperature increases
BIs independent of temperature
CBecomes zero at 0 °C
DIncreases as temperature increases
Answer is hidden
Question 545 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
An inductive (magnetic) crankshaft position sensor produces:
ANo output at any speed
BA square wave independent of speed
CA constant 5 V DC
DAn AC voltage whose amplitude and frequency rise with engine speed
Answer is hidden
Question 546 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The missing teeth on a crankshaft reluctor wheel (e.g., 60-2) are used to:
ADrive the oil pump
BGive a reference position (e.g., TDC) to the ECM
CReduce weight
DBalance the crankshaft
Answer is hidden
Question 547 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The camshaft position sensor is needed mainly to:
AMeasure engine temperature
BMeasure air mass
CIdentify the compression stroke of cylinder 1 for sequential injection
DMeasure battery voltage
Answer is hidden
Question 548 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
A hot-wire MAF sensor measures:
AMass of air entering the engine
BThrottle angle
CVolume of fuel injected
DExhaust oxygen content
Answer is hidden
Question 549 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
A zirconia oxygen sensor output of about 0.9 V indicates:
AA lean mixture
BA rich mixture
CA failed sensor always
DA stoichiometric mixture exactly
Answer is hidden
Question 550 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
Oxygen sensors are electrically heated mainly because they:
AMust be kept below 50 °C
BWould otherwise freeze the exhaust
CWork only above about 300–350 °C
DNeed heat to measure air temperature
Answer is hidden
Question 551 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
In electronic spark control, when the knock sensor detects knock, the ECM:
AAdvances the ignition timing
BRichens the idle
CRetards the ignition timing
DSwitches off the fuel pump
Answer is hidden
Question 552 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The idle air control valve regulates idle speed by:
AChanging the compression ratio
BChanging the spark plug gap
CControlling the coolant flow
DControlling the air bypassing the closed throttle
Answer is hidden
Question 553 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
In an electronic throttle control (drive-by-wire) system, the throttle plate is opened by:
AManifold vacuum directly
BThe camshaft
CAn ECM-controlled electric motor
DA cable from the accelerator pedal
Answer is hidden
Question 554 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The purge control solenoid valve of the EVAP system allows:
AFuel vapour stored in the charcoal canister to be drawn into the intake
BAir to be injected into the exhaust
CExhaust gas to enter the intake
DCoolant to bypass the radiator
Answer is hidden
Question 555 of 1122Ch 7 · Sensors and Actuators of Engine Management
The quantity of fuel delivered by an electronic port injector is controlled mainly by:
AThe size of the fuel tank
BThe injector opening time (pulse width)
CThe engine oil pressure
DThe spark timing
Answer is hidden
Question 556 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The active material of the positive plate of a charged lead-acid battery is:
ALead oxide (PbO)
BSpongy lead
CLead sulphate
DLead peroxide (PbO2)
Answer is hidden
Question 557 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
During discharge of a lead-acid battery, the specific gravity of the electrolyte:
ADecreases
BIncreases
CFirst increases then decreases
DRemains constant
Answer is hidden
Question 558 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
A 12 V lead-acid battery has:
A3 cells in series
B6 cells connected in series
C6 cells in parallel
D12 cells in series
Answer is hidden
Question 559 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid battery is about:
A1.12
B1.84
C1.26–1.28
D1.00
Answer is hidden
Question 560 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
On discharge, both plates of a lead-acid cell are converted into:
ALead oxide
BLead peroxide
CLead sulphate
DSpongy lead
Answer is hidden
Question 561 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
Lead-calcium grids are used in maintenance-free batteries because they:
AIncrease gassing
BAre cheaper than lead
CReduce gassing and water loss
DIncrease the cell voltage to 3 V
Answer is hidden
Question 562 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The ampere-hour capacity of an automobile battery is usually specified at the:
A20-hour discharge rate
B100-hour rate
C1-hour rate
D30-second rate
Answer is hidden
Question 563 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
Cold cranking amperes (CCA) is the current a battery can deliver at −18 °C for:
A30 seconds while maintaining at least 7.2 V
B1 minute at 12.6 V
C20 hours to 10.5 V
D25 minutes to 1.75 V/cell
Answer is hidden
Question 564 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The capacity of a lead-acid battery decreases when:
APlate area is increased
BThe discharge rate is high or the temperature is low
CThe temperature is moderate (≈ 27 °C)
DThe discharge rate is low
Answer is hidden
Question 565 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid battery is lower than its ampere-hour efficiency because:
AThe charging voltage is higher than the discharge voltage
BNo current flows on charge
CIt has more cells
DSpecific gravity is constant
Answer is hidden
Question 566 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
A battery left in a discharged condition for a long period mainly suffers from:
AIncrease in capacity
BOvercharging
CExcess gassing
DSulphation
Answer is hidden
Question 567 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
The electrolyte level of a conventional battery should be topped up with:
ASulphuric acid
BEngine oil
CDistilled water
DTap water with salt
Answer is hidden
Question 568 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
In a high-rate discharge test on a 12 V battery, the voltage should not fall below about:
A11.8 V
B12.6 V
C9.6 V after 15 s
D6 V
Answer is hidden
Question 569 of 1122Ch 7 · Storage Battery
When removing a battery from a vehicle, the terminal disconnected first is the:
ANegative (earth) terminal
BBoth simultaneously
CPositive terminal
DEither — it does not matter
Answer is hidden
Question 570 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The first practical petrol-engined motor car was built by:
ANicolas Cugnot
BHenry Ford
CKarl Benz
DRudolf Diesel
Answer is hidden
Question 571 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
Mass production of cars using a moving assembly line was introduced by:
AHenry Ford
BGottlieb Daimler
CJ. B. Dunlop
DKarl Benz
Answer is hidden
Question 572 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The distance between the centres of the front and rear axles is called the:
ATrack
BGround clearance
COverhang
DWheelbase
Answer is hidden
Question 573 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
A vehicle designated 6×4 has:
ASix axles and four wheels
BSix wheel positions of which four are driven
CSix driven wheels
DFour axles
Answer is hidden
Question 574 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The frame most commonly used in trucks and buses is the:
ASpace frame
BConventional ladder frame
CMonocoque body
DBackbone frame
Answer is hidden
Question 575 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
In a monocoque (integral) construction:
AThe frame is made of wood
BOnly the engine carries loads
CA heavy ladder frame is used
DThe body shell itself carries all loads and there is no separate frame
Answer is hidden
Question 576 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The frame side members are usually swept up (kicked up) at the rear to:
AReduce the wheelbase
BIncrease ground clearance for the engine
CMount the radiator
DAllow vertical movement of the rear axle
Answer is hidden
Question 577 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The frame section most commonly used for side members of a ladder frame is the:
AAngle section only
BFlat plate
CChannel section
DSolid round bar
Answer is hidden
Question 578 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
A major advantage of front-wheel drive in small cars is:
ANo torque steer
BNo propeller shaft, giving more cabin space
CBetter traction when climbing steep hills fully loaded
DNo need for CV joints
Answer is hidden
Question 579 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The unit that provides a low-range gear and divides power between front and rear axles in a 4WD vehicle is the:
ATransfer case
BFluid coupling
COverdrive
DClutch
Answer is hidden
Question 580 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
Gross vehicle weight (GVW) is equal to:
AKerb weight + maximum payload including occupants
BKerb weight only
CPayload only
DEngine weight + frame weight
Answer is hidden
Question 581 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
The first self-propelled road vehicle (1769) was powered by:
AA diesel engine
BAn electric motor
CA petrol engine
DA steam engine
Answer is hidden
Question 582 of 1122Ch 8 · Development History and Basic Structure
In Nepal, vehicles are right-hand drive because traffic:
AUses only one lane
BKeeps to the right side of the road
CKeeps to the left side of the road
DHas no lane rules
Answer is hidden
Question 583 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
The function of a clutch in an automobile is to:
AAllow wheels to turn at different speeds
BReduce engine speed permanently
CEngage and disengage the engine from the transmission
DChange the gear ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 584 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
A clutch slips mainly when:
AThe release bearing is new
BThere is excessive pedal free play
CThe linings are worn or oily or there is no pedal free play
DThe gearbox oil level is high
Answer is hidden
Question 585 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
Clutch drag (difficulty in gear engagement) is often caused by:
AWeak engine
BExcessive clutch pedal free play
CLow tyre pressure
DNo free play
Answer is hidden
Question 586 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
A fluid coupling differs from a torque converter because it:
AHas a stator
BCannot multiply torque
CIs used only in manual gearboxes
DHas no oil
Answer is hidden
Question 587 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
In a synchromesh gearbox, the gears are brought to the same speed before engagement by:
AA dog clutch alone
BA fluid coupling
CDouble declutching
DA cone clutch (synchroniser)
Answer is hidden
Question 588 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
In a constant-mesh gearbox, the gears are engaged by:
ABand brakes
BSliding the gears into mesh
CA torque converter
DDog clutches
Answer is hidden
Question 589 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
In a simple epicyclic gear train, direct drive (1 : 1) is obtained by:
AHolding the planet carrier
BLocking any two members together
CHolding the ring gear
DHolding the sun gear
Answer is hidden
Question 590 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
In a dual-clutch transmission (DCT), one clutch serves the odd gears and the other serves:
AThe differential
BThe even gears and reverse
COnly first gear
DOnly reverse
Answer is hidden
Question 591 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
A CVT changes its ratio by:
AChanging the final drive
BEngaging dog clutches
CVarying the effective diameters of two pulleys linked by a belt/chain
DSliding spur gears
Answer is hidden
Question 592 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
An overdrive gives:
AA neutral position
BAn output speed higher than the input speed
CMore torque at the wheels
DReverse motion
Answer is hidden
Question 593 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
The speed fluctuation of a single Hooke's joint occurs:
AOnce per revolution
BTwice per revolution
CNever
DFour times per revolution
Answer is hidden
Question 594 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
A slip joint in the propeller shaft is provided to:
AIncrease torque
BAllow change in shaft length as the axle moves
CReduce speed
DAllow change in shaft angle
Answer is hidden
Question 595 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
The main advantage of a hypoid final drive is that it:
AIs cheapest to make
BGives no sliding action
CAllows the propeller shaft and floor to be lowered
DNeeds no lubrication
Answer is hidden
Question 596 of 1122Ch 8 · Transmission System
If one driving wheel of a vehicle with an open differential is jacked up and turns while the other is held, the lifted wheel turns at:
AZero speed
BCrown-wheel speed
CHalf the crown-wheel speed
DTwice the crown-wheel speed
Answer is hidden
Question 597 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The main function of a shock absorber is to:
AIncrease ground clearance
BDamp the oscillations of the spring
CSupport the vehicle weight
DStore energy permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 598 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Which of the following is part of the unsprung mass of a vehicle?
AEngine
BBody
CWheels and tyres
DPassengers
Answer is hidden
Question 599 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The most common front suspension of modern passenger cars is the:
ALeaf spring with rigid axle
BMacPherson strut
CAir suspension
DSwing axle
Answer is hidden
Question 600 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The anti-roll (stabiliser) bar in a suspension reduces:
APitching during braking
BVehicle weight
CTyre wear on straight roads
DBody roll on corners
Answer is hidden
Question 601 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The steering gearbox most commonly used in passenger cars is:
ARecirculating ball
BRack and pinion
CCam and lever
DWorm and sector
Answer is hidden
Question 602 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The condition for correct steering (Ackermann) is:
Acot φ − cot θ = c/b
Bsin φ − sin θ = b/c
Ctan φ − tan θ = c/b
Dφ = θ
Answer is hidden
Question 603 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
The steering-geometry angle mainly responsible for directional stability and self-centring is:
AToe-in
BCaster
CScrub radius
DCamber
Answer is hidden
Question 604 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Excessive positive camber results in wear of the tyre on its:
AWhole tread uniformly
BInner shoulder
CCentre
DOuter shoulder
Answer is hidden
Question 605 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Wrong toe setting produces tyre wear of the:
ABoth shoulders type
BCupping type only
CCentre-only type
DFeather-edge type
Answer is hidden
Question 606 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Wheel shimmy (side-to-side oscillation of the front wheels) is mainly caused by:
AOver-inflated rear tyres
BCorrect wheel alignment
CA new battery
DDynamic unbalance of the wheels or worn steering joints
Answer is hidden
Question 607 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
In the tyre marking 195/65 R15, the number 65 represents the:
ASection width in mm
BAspect ratio (height/width × 100)
CRim diameter
DSpeed rating
Answer is hidden
Question 608 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Compared with cross-ply tyres, radial tyres give:
AHigher fuel consumption
BStiffer sidewalls and rougher ride
CLonger life and lower rolling resistance
DMore heat build-up
Answer is hidden
Question 609 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
An under-inflated tyre wears mostly on its:
ATread centre groove
BBoth shoulders
CCentre
DOne side only
Answer is hidden
Question 610 of 1122Ch 8 · Suspension, Steering, Wheels and Tyres
Wheel nuts should be tightened in a:
AAnti-clockwise order only
BRandom order
CClockwise circular order
DCriss-cross (star) pattern
Answer is hidden
Question 611 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
A car moving at 20 m/s has a driver reaction time of 1 s and brakes with μ = 0.8 (g = 10 m/s²). The stopping distance is:
A65 m
B25 m
C45 m
D20 m
Answer is hidden
Question 612 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
If the speed of a vehicle is doubled, its braking distance becomes:
ATwice
BFour times
CUnchanged
DHalf
Answer is hidden
Question 613 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Hydraulic brakes work on the principle of:
APascal's law
BBernoulli's theorem
CArchimedes' principle
DBoyle's law
Answer is hidden
Question 614 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
A tandem master cylinder is used to:
AOperate the clutch
BDouble the pedal effort
CReplace the booster
DProvide two separate brake circuits for safety
Answer is hidden
Question 615 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Air brakes are mainly used in:
AMotorcycles
BBicycles
CSmall passenger cars
DHeavy commercial vehicles
Answer is hidden
Question 616 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
In air brakes, the brake shoes are expanded by a/an:
ACable directly
BWheel cylinder
CCaliper piston
DS-cam rotated by the brake chamber push rod
Answer is hidden
Question 617 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
A vacuum brake booster obtains its assistance from:
AThe engine exhaust pressure
BThe pressure difference between manifold vacuum and atmosphere
CThe fuel pump
DThe alternator
Answer is hidden
Question 618 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Disc brakes are superior to drum brakes mainly because they:
AAre always cheaper
BAre self-energising
CNeed no hydraulic system
DDissipate heat better and resist fade
Answer is hidden
Question 619 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Brake fade is caused by:
AOverheating of the brake linings/drums
BLow tyre pressure
CA weak battery
DAir in the brake lines
Answer is hidden
Question 620 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Bleeding of hydraulic brakes is done to:
ARemove old linings
BIncrease fluid viscosity
CAdjust shoe clearance
DRemove air from the system
Answer is hidden
Question 621 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
Brake fluid must be replaced periodically because it is:
AHighly compressible
BNon-flammable
CHygroscopic — it absorbs moisture, lowering its boiling point
DA mineral oil
Answer is hidden
Question 622 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
The main purpose of ABS is to:
APrevent wheel lock so that steering control is maintained
BLock the wheels quickly
CIncrease engine power
DReplace the parking brake
Answer is hidden
Question 623 of 1122Ch 8 · Braking System
The ABS ECU detects impending wheel lock using signals from the:
AThrottle position sensor
BOxygen sensor
CWheel-speed sensors
DCoolant temperature sensor
Answer is hidden
Question 624 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
Most automobiles use an electrical system of:
A6 V positive earth
B110 V DC
C12 V negative earth
D240 V AC
Answer is hidden
Question 625 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
A relay is used in automobile circuits to:
AStore electrical energy
BLet a small switch current control a large load current
CConvert AC to DC
DProtect circuits from overload
Answer is hidden
Question 626 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
The starter motor of an automobile is generally a:
AStepper motor
BAC induction motor
CDC shunt motor
DDC series motor
Answer is hidden
Question 627 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
The device that prevents the engine from driving the starter motor after the engine starts in a pre-engaged starter is the:
AOverrunning (roller) clutch
BSolenoid
CCommutator
DBrush
Answer is hidden
Question 628 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
In a Bendix drive, the pinion engages the flywheel ring gear due to:
ACentrifugal force
BInertia of the pinion on a helical sleeve
CHydraulic pressure
DA shift lever operated by a solenoid
Answer is hidden
Question 629 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
In an automobile alternator, AC is converted to DC by:
AThe voltage regulator
BThe battery
CA diode rectifier bridge
DA commutator
Answer is hidden
Question 630 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
In an alternator, the field winding is on the:
AHousing
BPulley
CStator
DRotor
Answer is hidden
Question 631 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
A major advantage of the alternator over the DC dynamo is that it:
AHas a commutator
BCan charge the battery even at engine idle
CNeeds a cut-out relay
DIs heavier for the same output
Answer is hidden
Question 632 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
The regulated charging voltage of a 12 V automotive system is about:
A24 V
B12.0 V
C13.8–14.4 V
D10.5 V
Answer is hidden
Question 633 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
Clicking of the starter solenoid without cranking usually indicates:
AA new battery
BToo much engine oil
CCorrect operation
DLow battery voltage or poor connections
Answer is hidden
Question 634 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
A fuel-level sender unit usually consists of a:
AThermistor
BPiezoelectric crystal
CFloat and a variable resistor
DHall sensor only
Answer is hidden
Question 635 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
An engine immobiliser prevents theft by:
AAllowing the engine to start only when the coded transponder key is recognised
BDisconnecting the headlamps
CLocking the steering permanently
DDeflating the tyres
Answer is hidden
Question 636 of 1122Ch 8 · Electrical System
An airbag is fully inflated after a crash is detected in about:
A1 minute
B30–50 milliseconds
C0.5 second
D2–3 seconds
Answer is hidden
Question 637 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
A vehicle of 10 000 N weight has a rolling-resistance coefficient of 0.015. The rolling resistance is:
A667 N
B15 N
C150 N
D1500 N
Answer is hidden
Question 638 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
The rotation of a vehicle about its vertical axis is called:
AYaw
BBounce
CRoll
DPitch
Answer is hidden
Question 639 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
The maximum tractive effort that can be transmitted by the driving wheels is limited by:
AFrontal area
BGear ratio only
CCoefficient of adhesion × normal load on driving wheels
DEngine power only
Answer is hidden
Question 640 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
During acceleration, weight is transferred:
AFrom the rear axle to the front axle
BNowhere
CFrom the front axle to the rear axle
DTo the left wheels
Answer is hidden
Question 641 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
A vehicle of mass 1000 kg decelerates at 6 m/s² with CG height 0.5 m and wheelbase 2.5 m. The load transferred to the front axle is:
A600 N
B1200 N
C2400 N
D3000 N
Answer is hidden
Question 642 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
The tyre moment that tends to return the steered wheel to the straight-ahead position is the:
APitching moment
BSelf-aligning torque
COverturning moment
DRolling-resistance moment
Answer is hidden
Question 643 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
The maximum longitudinal braking force of a tyre occurs at a wheel slip of about:
A0%
B10–20%
C100%
D50–60%
Answer is hidden
Question 644 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
A vehicle that needs more steering angle as speed increases on a constant-radius curve is said to:
ACountersteer
BBe neutral steer
CUndersteer
DOversteer
Answer is hidden
Question 645 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
Locking of the rear wheels during braking is dangerous because:
AThe vehicle may become directionally unstable and spin
BBraking distance becomes zero
CThe front tyres burst
DSteering becomes lighter
Answer is hidden
Question 646 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
To make a vehicle skid rather than overturn on a curve, it is desirable that:
Aμ is greater than t/(2h)
BThe track is very narrow
Ct/(2h) > μ (wide track, low CG)
Dh is very large
Answer is hidden
Question 647 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
For good ride comfort, the natural frequency of the sprung mass should be about:
A10–15 Hz
B0.1 Hz
C1–1.5 Hz
D50 Hz
Answer is hidden
Question 648 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
The major part of aerodynamic drag of a car is:
AWave drag
BInduced drag only
CSkin friction drag
DForm (pressure) drag due to flow separation
Answer is hidden
Question 649 of 1122Ch 8 · Vehicle Dynamics
For a road banked so that no side friction is needed, the banking angle is given by:
Atan θ = v²/(gR)
Bcos θ = v²/(gR)
Csin θ = v/(gR)
Dtan θ = gR/v²
Answer is hidden
Question 650 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
The least count of a standard metric micrometer with 0.5 mm pitch and 50 thimble divisions is:
A0.02 mm
B0.001 mm
C0.01 mm
D0.1 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 651 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
The instrument used to measure crankshaft end-float and disc run-out is the:
AFeeler gauge only
BHydrometer
CVacuum gauge
DDial indicator
Answer is hidden
Question 652 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Valve tappet clearance is usually measured with a:
AVernier calliper
BFeeler gauge
CPlastigauge
DMicrometer
Answer is hidden
Question 653 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Bearing oil clearance can be checked conveniently using:
ACompression gauge
BPlastigauge
CTiming light
DHydrometer
Answer is hidden
Question 654 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Taper and ovality of an engine cylinder are measured with a:
ATorque wrench
BFeeler gauge
CCylinder bore dial gauge
DTyre gauge
Answer is hidden
Question 655 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Closeness of repeated measurements to each other is called:
AResolution
BSensitivity
CPrecision
DAccuracy
Answer is hidden
Question 656 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Parallax error is an example of:
AEnvironmental error
BObservational (systematic) error
CRandom error
DCalibration standard
Answer is hidden
Question 657 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Random errors in measurement are best reduced by:
ATaking several readings and averaging
BIgnoring the readings
CUsing a zero-error correction only
DUsing a bigger instrument
Answer is hidden
Question 658 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
Calibration of a measuring instrument means:
ACleaning it
BReplacing it every day
CPainting it
DComparing it with a standard of higher accuracy and correcting it
Answer is hidden
Question 659 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
The standard OBD-II diagnostic connector has:
A32 pins
B16 pins
C4 pins
D8 pins
Answer is hidden
Question 660 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
In OBD-II trouble code P0420, the letter 'P' stands for:
APassenger
BPowertrain
CParking
DPressure
Answer is hidden
Question 661 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
A flashing MIL (check-engine lamp) usually indicates:
AFully charged battery
BA severe misfire that can damage the catalytic converter
CNormal operation
DLow tyre pressure
Answer is hidden
Question 662 of 1122Ch 9 · Garage and Workshop; Measurement; OBD Diagnosis
In a dead-end (blind) bay arrangement, vehicles:
AEnter from one side and leave from the other
BAre never parked
CEnter and back out from the same side
DAre lifted over other vehicles
Answer is hidden
Question 663 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
ERP systems used by automobile dealers are often called:
ACAN systems
BABS systems
CDealer Management Systems (DMS)
DOBD systems
Answer is hidden
Question 664 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is given by:
A√(2DS/H)
BD/S
C√(DH/2S)
D2DS/H
Answer is hidden
Question 665 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
At the economic order quantity:
AStock-out cost is maximum
BHolding cost is zero
COrdering cost is maximum
DAnnual ordering cost equals annual holding cost
Answer is hidden
Question 666 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
Annual demand = 800 units, ordering cost = Rs 100 per order, holding cost = Rs 4 per unit per year. The EOQ is:
A100 units
B200 units
C800 units
D400 units
Answer is hidden
Question 667 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
The reorder level is equal to:
AMaximum stock − EOQ only
BEOQ × lead time
CDemand during lead time + safety stock
DSafety stock only
Answer is hidden
Question 668 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
In ABC analysis, 'A' class items are those that:
AAre many in number with low value
BAre non-moving items
CAre few in number but account for most of the consumption value
DAre vital for safety only
Answer is hidden
Question 669 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
VED analysis classifies spare parts according to:
ACriticality
BMovement rate
CAvailability
DUnit price
Answer is hidden
Question 670 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
FSN analysis is based on:
ASupplier location
BValue
CCriticality
DRate of movement (consumption)
Answer is hidden
Question 671 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
Batteries and rubber parts in stores should be issued on the basis of:
AFIFO (first in, first out)
BHighest price first
CLIFO
DRandom issue
Answer is hidden
Question 672 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
A workshop needs 32 400 man-hours per year on posts; 300 days, 1 shift of 8 h, 1.5 workers per post, utilisation 0.9. The number of posts is:
A8
B10
C27
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 673 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
The number of production workers required in a workshop is found by dividing annual labour content by:
AThe workshop area
BThe annual working-time fund of one worker
CThe number of posts
DThe number of vehicles
Answer is hidden
Question 674 of 1122Ch 9 · Fundamentals of Workshop Operation
The area of a service-post zone is calculated as:
ANumber of workers × 2 m²
BEquipment area only
CVehicle plan area × number of posts × density coefficient
DBuilding height × length
Answer is hidden
Question 675 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Maintenance carried out only after a vehicle fails is called:
APredictive maintenance
BPreventive maintenance
CBreakdown maintenance
DPlanned maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 676 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Changing engine oil every 5 000 km regardless of its condition is an example of:
APreventive (scheduled) maintenance
BPredictive maintenance
CBreakdown maintenance
DDesign-out maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 677 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Maintenance based on monitoring the actual condition of components (e.g., oil analysis, vibration) is:
AScheduled overhaul
BOpportunistic maintenance
CPredictive (condition-based) maintenance
DBreakdown maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 678 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
A main limitation of preventive maintenance is that:
AParts may be replaced before the end of their useful life
BIt increases accidents
CNo planning is possible
DIt always causes breakdowns
Answer is hidden
Question 679 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
The main disadvantage of breakdown maintenance is:
AParts replaced too early
BUnexpected stoppage and possible secondary damage
CToo much inspection
DHigh planning cost
Answer is hidden
Question 680 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) emphasises:
ARunning vehicles until failure
BNo inspection
COnly outside contractors
DInvolvement of operators/drivers in routine maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 681 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Blue smoke from the exhaust and high oil consumption usually indicate:
AWater in fuel
BWorn piston rings or valve guides
CRich mixture only
DCorrect engine condition
Answer is hidden
Question 682 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Honing of an engine cylinder after reboring produces:
AA cross-hatch finish that retains oil
BAn oversize crankshaft
CA mirror finish with no oil retention
DA tapered bore
Answer is hidden
Question 683 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
MTBF = 400 h and MTTR = 100 h. The availability of the vehicle is:
A80%
B25%
C75%
D400%
Answer is hidden
Question 684 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
A top overhaul of an engine mainly involves:
ACylinder head work — decarbonising, valve grinding, gasket renewal
BCrankshaft grinding
CWheel alignment
DGearbox overhaul
Answer is hidden
Question 685 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Daily driver checks before operating a vehicle should include:
ACylinder reboring
BCrankshaft grinding
COil, coolant, tyre pressure, lights and brakes
DWheel bearing replacement
Answer is hidden
Question 686 of 1122Ch 9 · Vehicle Maintenance and Repair
Using a vehicle's scheduled visit for other work to also carry out due maintenance is called:
AEmergency repair
BDesign-out maintenance
COpportunistic maintenance
DBreakdown maintenance
Answer is hidden
Question 687 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
Crankcase blow-by emissions are controlled by the:
ACatalytic converter
BCharcoal canister
CEGR system
DPCV (positive crankcase ventilation) system
Answer is hidden
Question 688 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
The evaporative emission control system stores fuel vapours in a/an:
AAir filter
BActivated-charcoal canister
COil sump
DCatalytic converter
Answer is hidden
Question 689 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
Exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) is used mainly to reduce:
ANOx
BCO
CHC
DCO2
Answer is hidden
Question 690 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
EGR is normally not used at:
AWarm steady speeds
BModerate acceleration only
CIdle and full load
DPart-load cruising
Answer is hidden
Question 691 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
A three-way catalytic converter works efficiently only when the air-fuel mixture is:
AClose to stoichiometric (λ ≈ 1)
BVery lean
CAny mixture
DVery rich
Answer is hidden
Question 692 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
The noble metal in a three-way catalyst mainly responsible for NOx reduction is:
ARhodium
BLead
CPlatinum only
DCopper
Answer is hidden
Question 693 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
Catalytic converters are poisoned by:
ALead in fuel
BOxygen
CWater vapour only
DNitrogen
Answer is hidden
Question 694 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
The light-off temperature of a catalytic converter is about:
A−20 °C
B250–300 °C
C50 °C
D900–1000 °C
Answer is hidden
Question 695 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
In an SCR system, NOx is reduced using:
APetrol
BUrea solution (AdBlue) that forms ammonia
CEngine oil
DCharcoal
Answer is hidden
Question 696 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
A diesel particulate filter traps soot because:
AIt uses a magnetic field
BIt cools the exhaust to condense soot
CIt oxidises NO to N2
DExhaust is forced through porous channel walls with alternate channels plugged
Answer is hidden
Question 697 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
Active regeneration of a DPF involves:
ARaising exhaust temperature to about 550–650 °C to burn soot
BWashing the filter with water daily
CRemoving the filter
DAdding lead to fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 698 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
A reactive (expansion-chamber) silencer is most effective at reducing:
AHigh-frequency noise only
BBrake squeal
CLow-frequency noise
DTyre–road noise
Answer is hidden
Question 699 of 1122Ch 9 · Emission in Vehicles and Its Control
A clogged air filter in a petrol engine without closed-loop control mainly increases emission of:
ASO2 only
BCO and HC (rich mixture)
CNothing
DNOx only
Answer is hidden
Question 700 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
Euro 6 emission standards for new passenger cars were introduced in about:
A1992
B2014
C2000
D2005
Answer is hidden
Question 701 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
India moved from BS-IV directly to:
AEuro 2 in 2020
BBS-V in 2018
CBS-VI (skipping BS-V) in 2020
DBS-III in 2020
Answer is hidden
Question 702 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
The Euro 5 PM limit for diesel cars made it practically necessary to fit a:
AThree-way catalyst only
BCarburettor
CDiesel particulate filter (DPF)
DCharcoal canister
Answer is hidden
Question 703 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
Meeting Euro 6 NOx limits for diesel cars generally requires:
ASCR or a lean NOx trap
BA carburettor
CA larger radiator
DLeaded fuel
Answer is hidden
Question 704 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
The test procedure that replaced NEDC for light vehicles in Europe is:
AOBD-II
BECE R51
CWLTP
DFTP-75
Answer is hidden
Question 705 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
Real Driving Emissions (RDE) are measured using a:
ASmoke chart only
BPortable emission measurement system (PEMS)
CHydrometer
DChassis frame gauge
Answer is hidden
Question 706 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
A new emission standard that also limits brake-wear particles is:
AEuro 7
BEuro 2
CEuro 4
DBS-III
Answer is hidden
Question 707 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
The organisation responsible for vehicle registration and driving licences in Nepal is the:
ADepartment of Roads
BDepartment of Transport Management (DoTM)
CNepal Rastra Bank
DNepal Electricity Authority
Answer is hidden
Question 708 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
Triangular traffic signs generally indicate:
AParking only
BMandatory instructions
CInformation/directions
DWarnings
Answer is hidden
Question 709 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
The 'Safe System' approach to road safety aims to:
ADesign roads, speeds and vehicles so that human errors do not lead to death or serious injury
BIncrease speed limits everywhere
CRemove all traffic signs
DBlame only the driver
Answer is hidden
Question 710 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
A star rating for vehicle crash safety is provided by:
AWLTP
BOBD-II
CISO 9001
DNCAP programmes (e.g., Global NCAP, Bharat NCAP)
Answer is hidden
Question 711 of 1122Ch 9 · Norms and Standards
Super-elevation on a road curve is provided mainly to:
ACounteract the centrifugal force on vehicles
BImprove drainage only
CIncrease sight distance
DReduce road width
Answer is hidden
Question 712 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The main law governing motor vehicles and transport in Nepal is the:
APublic Procurement Act, 2063
BLabour Act, 2074
CMotor Vehicles and Transport Management Act, 2049
DNepal Engineering Council Act, 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 713 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The registration certificate of a vehicle in Nepal is commonly called the:
ALogbook
BPassbook
CBluebook
DGreenbook
Answer is hidden
Question 714 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The type of motor insurance that is compulsory by law is:
AComprehensive insurance
BThird-party insurance
CLife insurance
DOwn-damage insurance only
Answer is hidden
Question 715 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
A comprehensive motor insurance policy covers:
AOnly third-party liability
BOnly theft of documents
CThird-party liability as well as damage to the insured vehicle
DOnly the driver's life
Answer is hidden
Question 716 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
Damage to your own vehicle in an accident is NOT covered by a:
AComprehensive policy
BThird-party only policy
CFull policy
DPackage policy
Answer is hidden
Question 717 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The discount given on the premium for claim-free years is called:
ADeductible
BSubrogation
CSurrender value
DNo-claim bonus (discount)
Answer is hidden
Question 718 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The amount of each claim that is borne by the insured is called the:
APremium
BIDV
CBonus
DDeductible (excess)
Answer is hidden
Question 719 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The person appointed by an insurer to inspect and assess vehicle damage is the:
ATransport manager
BSurveyor
CDealer
DTraffic police
Answer is hidden
Question 720 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
In Nepal, vehicles are driven on the:
AEither side freely
BRight side of the road
CLeft side of the road
DMiddle of the road
Answer is hidden
Question 721 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
Driving under the influence of alcohol normally results in:
AAutomatic licence upgrade
BReduced insurance premium
CFine and licence action, and insurance claims may be rejected
DNo action
Answer is hidden
Question 722 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
The regulator of insurance business in Nepal is the:
ADepartment of Roads
BNepal Bureau of Standards and Metrology
CNepal Insurance Authority (Beema Pradhikaran)
DNepal Engineering Council
Answer is hidden
Question 723 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
Transfer of vehicle ownership after sale must be recorded at the:
ATransport Management Office
BWard office only
CInsurance company only
DDepartment of Roads
Answer is hidden
Question 724 of 1122Ch 9 · Section 9.6
A driving licence in Nepal is issued after passing:
ANo test
BOnly a written test
COnly a medical test
DA written test and a practical (trial) driving test
Answer is hidden
Question 725 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The area of an A0 drawing sheet is:
A0.25 m²
B1 m²
C2 m²
D0.5 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 726 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The size of an A4 sheet is:
A148 × 210 mm
B297 × 420 mm
C420 × 594 mm
D210 × 297 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 727 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The title block of a drawing sheet is normally placed at the:
ACentre of the sheet
BTop-right corner
CTop-left corner
DBottom-right corner
Answer is hidden
Question 728 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In the unidirectional system of dimensioning, dimension figures are:
ARead from the right side only
BAll read from the bottom of the sheet
CPlaced inside the object always
DParallel to the dimension lines
Answer is hidden
Question 729 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
A drawing made to a scale of 1 : 50 has a representative fraction of:
A50
B5/1
C1/50
D1/5
Answer is hidden
Question 730 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
A scale that can show three units such as metre, decimetre and centimetre is a:
AScale of chords
BComparative scale
CPlain scale
DDiagonal scale
Answer is hidden
Question 731 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In first-angle projection, the top view is placed:
ABelow the front view
BBehind the front view
CAbove the front view
DTo the left of the front view
Answer is hidden
Question 732 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The true shape of an inclined surface is obtained from a/an:
APerspective view
BIsometric view
CAuxiliary view
DFront view
Answer is hidden
Question 733 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In isometric projection, lengths along the isometric axes are reduced to about:
A50% of true length
B82% of true length
C70.7% of true length
D100% of true length
Answer is hidden
Question 734 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
The angle between any two isometric axes is:
A30°
B120°
C90°
D45°
Answer is hidden
Question 735 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
In cabinet oblique projection, the receding lines are drawn:
ATo full scale
BConverging to a vanishing point
CTo half scale
DTo isometric scale
Answer is hidden
Question 736 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Drawings and Their Concepts
Which of the following is NOT sectioned (hatched) when cut along its axis?
ACasting body
BHub of a pulley
CShaft
DFlange of a coupling
Answer is hidden
Question 737 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Rs 10,000 is deposited at 10% compound interest per year. Its value after 2 years is:
ARs 12,210
BRs 12,000
CRs 12,100
DRs 11,000
Answer is hidden
Question 738 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The effective annual interest rate for 12% per year compounded monthly is about:
A12%
B1%
C12.68%
D13.5%
Answer is hidden
Question 739 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The factor used to find the equal annual payment needed to repay a present loan is the:
ACompound amount factor (F/P)
BCapital recovery factor (A/P)
CSinking fund factor (A/F)
DPresent worth factor (P/F)
Answer is hidden
Question 740 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The present worth of a perpetual annual income of Rs 1,000 at 10% interest is:
AInfinite
BRs 100
CRs 1,000
DRs 10,000
Answer is hidden
Question 741 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
A project is economically acceptable by the NPV method when:
ANPV ≥ 0 at the MARR
BNPV is negative
CIRR is less than MARR
DNPV equals the initial investment
Answer is hidden
Question 742 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which:
ANPV is maximum
BNPV equals zero
CB/C ratio equals zero
DPayback is minimum
Answer is hidden
Question 743 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Compared with the simple payback period, the discounted payback period:
AIs always shorter
BConsiders cash flows after payback
CConsiders the time value of money
DIgnores all cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 744 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
MARR is best described as:
AThe inflation rate only
BThe minimum acceptable rate of return set by the investor
CThe rate at which NPV is maximum
DThe maximum rate charged by banks
Answer is hidden
Question 745 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
For comparing alternatives with unequal lives, the most convenient method is:
AAnnual worth (equivalent uniform annual) method
BComparing first costs only
CSimple payback
DComparing total undiscounted costs
Answer is hidden
Question 746 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
A machine costs Rs 60,000 with salvage Rs 10,000 after 5 years. Straight-line annual depreciation is:
ARs 12,000
BRs 50,000
CRs 10,000
DRs 14,000
Answer is hidden
Question 747 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
The standard rate of Value Added Tax in Nepal is:
A15%
B10%
C13%
D18%
Answer is hidden
Question 748 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Economics
Under Nepal's Income Tax Act 2058, depreciation of assets is calculated using:
ASinking fund method
BPool-based declining balance method
COnly straight-line method
DUnits-of-production method only
Answer is hidden
Question 749 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
A project is best defined as:
AA permanent organisation
BAny repetitive production activity
CA continuous routine operation
DA temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service or result
Answer is hidden
Question 750 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The phase of the project life cycle in which the feasibility study is carried out is:
AExecution phase
BInitiation/concept phase
CMonitoring phase
DClosure phase
Answer is hidden
Question 751 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into work packages is called:
ALogical framework
BGantt chart
CCritical path
DWork Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer is hidden
Question 752 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
A major limitation of a bar (Gantt) chart is that it:
ADoes not clearly show interdependencies between activities
BCannot show activity durations
CIs difficult to understand
DCannot show a time scale
Answer is hidden
Question 753 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In an activity-on-arrow network, a dummy activity:
AHas zero duration and shows logical dependency only
BConsumes resources
CIs always on the critical path
DHas the longest duration
Answer is hidden
Question 754 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
The critical path of a project network is the:
APath with maximum float
BShortest path through the network
CLongest path, with zero total float
DPath with the most activities
Answer is hidden
Question 755 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
An activity has ES = 5, EF = 9, LS = 8, LF = 12. Its total float is:
A0
B7
C3
D4
Answer is hidden
Question 756 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In PERT, with to = 2, tm = 5 and tp = 14 days, the expected time is:
A21 days
B5 days
C6 days
D7 days
Answer is hidden
Question 757 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
PERT is most suitable for:
AMass production lines
BRepetitive construction with known durations
CResearch and development projects with uncertain durations
DRoutine maintenance only
Answer is hidden
Question 758 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
While crashing a project, the activity crashed first is the critical activity with the:
ALowest cost slope
BLongest duration
CMaximum float
DHighest cost slope
Answer is hidden
Question 759 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
Rescheduling activities within their available float without changing the project completion date is called:
AFast-tracking
BResource smoothing
CCrashing
DResource levelling
Answer is hidden
Question 760 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning and Scheduling
In earned value management, a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 means the project is:
AAhead of schedule
BOver budget
CUnder budget
DExactly on budget
Answer is hidden
Question 761 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
The number of communication channels among 6 stakeholders is:
A30
B36
C6
D15
Answer is hidden
Question 762 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
Buying insurance against a project risk is an example of risk:
AAvoidance
BTransfer
CMitigation
DAcceptance
Answer is hidden
Question 763 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
Changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is risk:
AAcceptance
BAvoidance
CTransfer
DExploitation
Answer is hidden
Question 764 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
A reserve kept for identified risks ('known unknowns') is the:
AManagement reserve
BRetention money
CSinking fund
DContingency reserve
Answer is hidden
Question 765 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
A quantitative risk analysis technique that uses repeated random sampling of uncertain variables is:
AChecklist analysis
BMonte Carlo simulation
CSWOT analysis
DBrainstorming
Answer is hidden
Question 766 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
In a BOT arrangement, the private party:
AOnly designs the project
BBuilds, operates for a concession period and then transfers the facility
COnly supplies labour
DBuys the project from government permanently
Answer is hidden
Question 767 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
Project finance on a non-recourse basis means lenders are repaid mainly from:
AGovernment taxes
BThe sponsor's other assets
CThe project's own cash flows
DPersonal guarantees of engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 768 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
Public procurement in Nepal is governed by the:
ALabour Act 2074
BCompany Act 2063 only
CPublic Procurement Act 2063
DContract Act 2025
Answer is hidden
Question 769 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
The security submitted with a bid, forfeited if the bidder withdraws the bid during its validity, is the:
ABid security
BAdvance payment guarantee
CRetention money
DPerformance security
Answer is hidden
Question 770 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
A contract in which payment is made on the basis of measured quantities of work and quoted unit rates is a/an:
ACost-plus contract
BTurnkey contract
CLump-sum contract
DItem-rate (unit-rate) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 771 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
A contract in which one contractor is responsible for design, procurement, construction and commissioning is a:
APercentage-rate contract
BLabour contract
CItem-rate contract
DTurnkey (EPC) contract
Answer is hidden
Question 772 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Management
A pre-agreed amount payable by the contractor for delay in completion is called:
ALiquidated damages
BMobilisation advance
CVariation
DRetention money
Answer is hidden
Question 773 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
According to engineering codes of ethics, an engineer's foremost obligation is to:
AObey all instructions of the client
BMaximise the employer's profit
CHold paramount the safety, health and welfare of the public
DComplete work at minimum cost
Answer is hidden
Question 774 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
An engineer asked to design work outside his/her area of expertise should:
AAsk a junior to do it
BAccept to gain experience
CSign the drawings anyway
DDecline or engage a competent specialist
Answer is hidden
Question 775 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The ethical theory that seeks the greatest good for the greatest number is:
AVirtue ethics
BUtilitarianism
CEgoism
DDeontology
Answer is hidden
Question 776 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
An engineer who has a financial interest in a supplier recommended to a client should:
AReject all other suppliers
BDisclose the conflict of interest to the client
CKeep it secret
DAccept a commission from the supplier
Answer is hidden
Question 777 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
Signing and sealing drawings not prepared or supervised by oneself is:
AA normal professional courtesy
BUnethical
CAcceptable if paid
DRequired by law
Answer is hidden
Question 778 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
Whistle-blowing is generally justified when:
AIt brings personal benefit
BThe engineer dislikes the manager
CSerious public harm is involved and internal channels have been exhausted
DNo evidence is available
Answer is hidden
Question 779 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The seismic design provisions for buildings in Nepal are contained in:
ANepal National Building Code (NBC 105)
BLabour Act
CPublic Procurement Act
DElectricity Act
Answer is hidden
Question 780 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The law that sets out environmental assessment requirements (IEE/EIA) for projects in Nepal is the:
AArbitration Act 2055
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055
CEnvironment Protection Act 2076
DCompany Act 2063
Answer is hidden
Question 781 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The Nepal Engineers' Association was established in:
A2055 BS (1998 AD)
B2019 BS (1962 AD)
C2046 BS (1990 AD)
D2072 BS (2015 AD)
Answer is hidden
Question 782 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
The Nepal Engineers' Association is best described as:
AA voluntary professional association of engineers
BA government ministry
CA contractors' federation
DThe statutory regulatory body that registers engineers
Answer is hidden
Question 783 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
In the hierarchy of controls for occupational safety, the last line of defence is:
AEngineering controls
BElimination
CPersonal protective equipment
DSubstitution
Answer is hidden
Question 784 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Professional Practice
A leading cause of fatal accidents on construction sites is:
ANoise exposure
BFalls from height
CPoor lighting in offices
DEye strain
Answer is hidden
Question 785 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council was established under the:
APublic Procurement Act 2063
BNepal Engineering Council Act 2055 (1998)
CCompany Act 2063
DBuilding Act 2055
Answer is hidden
Question 786 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council Regulations were issued in:
A2074 BS
B2055 BS
C2063 BS
D2057 BS
Answer is hidden
Question 787 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The Nepal Engineering Council is best described as:
AA trade union
BA voluntary association of engineers
CA statutory body regulating the engineering profession
DA private consulting firm
Answer is hidden
Question 788 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
A person who wants to practise as an engineer in Nepal must:
AOnly hold a trade licence
BRegister with the Company Registrar
CBe registered with the Nepal Engineering Council
DOnly be a member of NEA
Answer is hidden
Question 789 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Recognition of engineering educational programmes and institutions in Nepal is a function of the:
ADepartment of Industry
BNepal Engineering Council
CPublic Procurement Monitoring Office
DNepal Engineers' Association
Answer is hidden
Question 790 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
A disciplinary action the Nepal Engineering Council can take for serious professional misconduct is:
ACancellation of the engineer's registration
BRevoking citizenship
CConfiscation of property
DImprisonment without trial
Answer is hidden
Question 791 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
The official who maintains the register of engineers at NEC is the:
AChief Justice
BRegistrar
CAuditor General
DCompany Registrar
Answer is hidden
Question 792 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
According to the NEC code of conduct, an engineer should:
ASign drawings prepared by others without checking
BAccept any work offered
CShare confidential client data freely
DUndertake only work within his/her competence
Answer is hidden
Question 793 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Obtaining work by paying a bribe is:
AA violation of the code of conduct
BAllowed if disclosed later
CAcceptable in competitive markets
DRequired for public contracts
Answer is hidden
Question 794 of 1122Ch 10 · Engineering Regulatory Body: Nepal Engineering Council
Which statement about NEC and NEA is correct?
ABoth are voluntary
BNEC registration is compulsory to practise; NEA membership is voluntary
CBoth are government ministries
DNEA registration is compulsory; NEC membership is voluntary
Answer is hidden
Question 795 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The approval of design, drawing before the construction of a building in the city area of Nepal is done by ............
Avillage development committee
Bdistrict development committee
Cmunicipality
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 796 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The width of the standard A-series drawing paper such as A₄, A₃, A₂, ...... is ............
A1/3 times the length of the paper
B1/√2 times the length of the paper
C1/2 times the length of the paper
D1/√3 times the length of the paper
Answer is hidden
Question 797 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The area of A₀ size paper is ............[cite: 15]
A0.25 m²
B0.5 m²
C0.75 m²
D1 m²
Answer is hidden
Question 798 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The standard size of drawing board of designation D₁ is (in mm) ............[cite: 15]
A1000 × 700 × 25
B100 × 75 × 25
C1500 × 750 × 25
D1500 × 700 × 25
Answer is hidden
Question 799 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Paper is designated by which letter?[cite: 15]
AA
BB
CC
DD
Answer is hidden
Question 800 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Title block gives information about ............[cite: 15]
Atitle of the drawing
Bscale used for the drawing
Cserial number of the drawing
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 801 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not included in title block of drawing sheet?[cite: 15]
ASheet number
BScale
CMethod of projection
DSize of sheet
Answer is hidden
Question 802 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per BIS, the size of title block in drawing sheet is ............[cite: 15]
A25 mm × 10 mm
B100 mm × 25 mm
C65 mm × 185 mm
D185 mm × 65 mm
Answer is hidden
Question 803 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The length: width in case of an arrow head is ............[cite: 15]
A1:1
B2:1
C3:1
D4:1
Answer is hidden
Question 804 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the inclination of inclined lettering?[cite: 15]
A75 degree
B65 degree
C45 degree
D85 degree
Answer is hidden
Question 805 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The aspect ratio of a letter refers to the ratio of its ............[cite: 15]
Aheight to its width
Bwidth to height
Clength to width
Dwidth to length
Answer is hidden
Question 806 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The size of the letter means the ............ of the letter.[cite: 15]
Athickness
Bheight
Clength
Dwidth
Answer is hidden
Question 807 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The dimension system is unidirectional if ............[cite: 15]
Adimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from anywhere on the drawing sheet
Bdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom edge of the drawing sheet
Cdimensions in the drawing sheet can be read from the bottom and right-hand edge of the drawing sheet
Ddimensions cannot be read
Answer is hidden
Question 808 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In aligned system of dimensioning, the dimensions may be read from ............[cite: 15]
Abottom or right hand edges
Bbottom or left hand edges
Conly from bottom
Donly from left side
Answer is hidden
Question 809 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Maps are drawn in which scale?[cite: 15]
AEnlarging
BReducing
CBalanced
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 810 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ............
A1:1
B1:2
C2:1
D1:4
Answer is hidden
Question 811 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following represent reducing scale?
A1:1
B1:25
C2:1
D10:1
Answer is hidden
Question 812 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is enlarging scale?
A1:5
B1:2
C5:1
D1:2
Answer is hidden
Question 813 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Given representative factor as 4/50 and maximum length is 100 cm. Find the length of scale.
A8 cm
B10 cm
C9.7 cm
D12 cm
Answer is hidden
Question 814 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A line of 1 meter is shown by 1 cm on a scale; its representative factor (RF) is ............[cite: 16]
A1
B100
C1/100
D1/50
Answer is hidden
Question 815 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Freehand sketching can be done only when one has ............[cite: 16]
Aproper proficiency
Bgood practice
Cgood intuition
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 816 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The techniques for free hand sketch to drawing circle is ............[cite: 16]
Afixing a fixed point and are
Bfixing the perimeter
Cfixing the radius only
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 817 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a ............[cite: 16]
Avisible line
Bhidden line
Cextension line
Ddimension line
Answer is hidden
Question 818 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which the following is represented by a dotted line?[cite: 16]
AHidden edges
BProjection line
CVisible outlines
DHatching line
Answer is hidden
Question 819 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following line is used for dimension lines?[cite: 16]
AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 820 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following line is used for visible outlines?[cite: 16]
AContinuous thick
BContinuous thin
CChain thin
DShort zig-zag line
Answer is hidden
Question 821 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hidden line are drawn as ............[cite: 16]
Adashed narrow lines
Bdashed wide lines
Clong-dashed dotted wide line
Dlong-dashed double dotted wide line
Answer is hidden
Question 822 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hidden line represent ............[cite: 16]
Afeatures that can be seen in the current view
Bextension line or leader line
Cfeatures that cannot be seen in the current view
Daxis of symmetrical parts
Answer is hidden
Question 823 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following lines are used to show that the object is cut and then viewed?[cite: 16]
AHidden lines
BLeader lines
CCentre lines
DHatching lines
Answer is hidden
Question 824 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
T square is used alone to draw ............[cite: 16]
Avertical line
Binclined line
Chorizontal line
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 825 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
French curves are used to draw ............[cite: 16]
Aregular curves
Bcircle
Cirregular curves
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 826 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The hardness of pencil lead increases as the numeral letter H ............[cite: 16]
Aincreases
Bremains constant
Cdecreases
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 827 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a pencil?[cite: 16]
AHB
B2B
Cdrafter
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 828 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is additional 3rd view on orthographic projection in general for simple objects?
AFront view
BTop view
CSide view
DView at 45° perpendiculars to horizontal plane
Answer is hidden
Question 829 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The isometric projection of a circle is a ............[cite: 14]
Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 830 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A technical drawing of an object that shows the relationship or order of assembly of various parts is known as ............[cite: 14]
Aorthographic projection
Bexploded view drawing
Ccompacted view drawing
Daxonometric drawing
Answer is hidden
Question 831 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
All the axonometric projections are single-plane ............ projection.[cite: 14]
Aorthographic
Bperspective
Cisometric
Doblique
Answer is hidden
Question 832 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis.[cite: 14]
ADiametric
BMulti view
CIsometric
DTrimetric
Answer is hidden
Question 833 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The principle views associated with orthographic projection are ............[cite: 14]
Afront view
Bright side view
Ctop view
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 834 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ............[cite: 14]
Ato eliminate hidden lines
Bto create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of the primary views
Cto show cylinders as ellipses
Dto locate center marks
Answer is hidden
Question 835 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.[cite: 14]
AHorizontal
BFrontal
CProfile
DBase
Answer is hidden
Question 836 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The isometric projection of a sphere is a ............[cite: 14]
Acircle
Bellipse
Chyperbola
Dparabola
Answer is hidden
Question 837 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In isometric drawing ............[cite: 14]
Aall axes are equally inclined
Btwo axes are equally inclined
Cnone of the axes are equally inclined
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 838 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The value of the ratio of isometric projection length to true length is ............[cite: 14]
A0.141
B0.372
C0.815
D0.642
Answer is hidden
Question 839 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?[cite: 14]
AIsometric
BPerspective
COblique
DAxonometric
Answer is hidden
Question 840 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If an isometric drawing is made use of an isometric scale, then the drawings are called ............[cite: 14]
Aisometric projection
Bisometric view
Cperspective projection
Dorthographic view
Answer is hidden
Question 841 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When using an isometric view, you line up the drawing along three axis that are separated by ............ from each other.[cite: 14]
A180-degree
B90-degree
C120-degree
D60-degree
Answer is hidden
Question 842 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The development of cylinder is a ............[cite: 14]
Arectangle
Bcircle
Cellipse
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 843 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The following is the method for development of a right regular prism.[cite: 14]
AParallel line method
BRadial line method
CTriangulation method
DApproximate method
Answer is hidden
Question 844 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The solid which is generated by the revolution of a right-angle triangle about one of its perpendicular sides which remains fixed is called ............[cite: 14]
Aa prism
Ba pyramid
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 845 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When a pyramid or cone is cut by a cutting plane parallel to its base, the remaining portion thus obtained after removing the top portion is called ............[cite: 14]
Aa prism
Bfrustum
Ca cylinder
Da cone
Answer is hidden
Question 846 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The side view of an object is drawn in ............ faces.[cite: 14]
Avertical plane
Bhorizontal plane
Cprofile plane
Dany of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 847 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A tetrahedron has four equal ............ faces.[cite: 14]
Asquare
Brectangular
Ctriangular
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 848 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Hatching lines are drawn at ............ degree to reference line.[cite: 14]
A30
B45
C60
D90
Answer is hidden
Question 849 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a cash flow series ............
Auniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same amount in each interest period
Beither an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
Cthe gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 850 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which item comes under financial activities in cash flow?
ARedemption of preference share
BIssue of preference share
CInterest paid
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 851 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cash flow example from a financing activity is ............
Apayment of dividends
Breceipt of dividend on investment
Ccash received from customers
Dpurchase of fixed asset
Answer is hidden
Question 852 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The statement of cash flow clarifies cash flows according to ............
Aoperating and non-operating flows
Binflow and outflow
Cinvesting and non-operating flows
Doperating, investing, and financing activities
Answer is hidden
Question 853 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cash flow example from an investing activity is ............
Aissue of debenture
Brepayment of long-term loan
Cpurchase of raw materials for cash
Dsale of investment by non-financial enterprise
Answer is hidden
Question 854 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by ............
Adiscounting technique
Bcompounding technique
Ceither (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 855 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by ............
Adiscounting all cash flows to a common point of time
Bcompounding all cash flows to a common point of time
Cusing either (a) or (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 856 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the element of total cost?
AMaterial and labor cost
BLabor and fuel cost
CFuel and machine cost
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 857 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Statement of cash flows includes ............
Afinancing activities
Boperating activities
Cinvesting activities
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 858 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Material cost is concerned with ............
Adirect cost
Bindirect cost
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 859 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In cash flows, when a company invests in fixed assets and short-term financial investments results in ............
Aincreased liabilities
Bincreased equity
Cincreased cash
Ddecreased cash
Answer is hidden
Question 860 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If desired rate of return is minimum by actual rate of return, then it is classified as ............
Afuture cash flows
Bpresent cash flow
Cpositive cash flows
Dnegative cash flows
Answer is hidden
Question 861 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The given symbol in a drawing represents ............
Aperspective projection
Bthird angle projection
Cfirst angle projection
Doblique projection
Answer is hidden
Question 862 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The side view of given orthographic projection is ............
Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 863 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The top view of given figure is ............
Aa
Bb
Cc
Dd
Answer is hidden
Question 864 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In cash flow diagram, which of the following is true?
ATime 1 is considered to be the end of time period 1
BA vertical arrow pointing up indicates a positive cash flow
CAn arrow pointing downward indicates a negative cash flow
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 865 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Payback period is counted only after ............
Atendering for the project
Bstarting of the construction of the project
Ccompletion of the construction of the project
Dcommissioning of the project
Answer is hidden
Question 866 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Time value of money indicates that ............
Aa unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future
Ba unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future
Cthere is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 867 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
AThe change in the amount of money over a given time period is called 'time value of money', a most important concept in engineering economy
BThe manifestation of the time value of money is termed as interest
CInterest on borrowing = Present amount owed - Original loan
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 868 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If the nominal rate of interest is 10% per annum and there is quarterly compounding, the effective rate of interest will be ............
A10% per annum
B10.10% per annum
C10.25% per annum
D10.38% per annum
Answer is hidden
Question 869 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded annually?
A13.7 years
B14.7 years
C14.2 years
D15.3 years
Answer is hidden
Question 870 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Equal payment series sinking fund factor is ............
A(A/F, i, n)
B(F/P, i, n)
C(A/P, i, n)
D(P/A, i, n)
Answer is hidden
Question 871 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a project equal investment is done on regular basis for replacement of the property, then it is called ............
Afuture investment
Bcapital recovery
Csinking fund
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 872 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Sinking fund is ............
Athe fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
Braised to meet maintenance costs
CNPV = 0
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 873 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The term (1 + i)ⁿ is called ............
Asingle payment discount amount factor
Bsingle payment compound amount factor
Cannual compound amount factor
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 874 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the expression for the capital recovery amount?
AP [i(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
BP [(1+i)ⁿ / ((1+i)ⁿ - 1)]
CP [i(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
DP [(1-i)ⁿ / ((1-i)ⁿ - 1)]
Answer is hidden
Question 875 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a is the base amount expenditure, b is the increase in the operation cost each year over a period of n years, the total cost of maintenance is ............
Aa + (n-1)b
Ba + x (n-1)b
Ca x (n-1)b
DDiscounted payback
Answer is hidden
Question 876 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which method is not mostly adopted for selection of project?
APayback
BDiscounted payback
CIRR
DB/C
Answer is hidden
Question 877 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The cash flow is either increasing or decreasing with equal amount every period, the type of series is ............
Auniform payment series
Bgeometric payment series
Clinear gradient series
Dirregular payment series
Answer is hidden
Question 878 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The additional money received from selling one specified level of output is ............
Anormal cost
Bmarginal revenue
Caverage revenue
Dequivalent revenue
Answer is hidden
Question 879 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If production is less than breakeven point, the product will be ............
Alesser than consumption
Bequal to consumption
Cgreater than consumption
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 880 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The actual profitability of any project is best analyzed from .........
AIRR
BDiscounted payback period
CARR
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 881 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decision rule for project acceptance is that .........
Aif IRR > 0
Bif IRR > MARR
Cif IRR < MARR
Dif IRR = 0
Answer is hidden
Question 882 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following factors does not depend on the time value of money?
AB/C ratio
BAccounting rate of return
CNPV
DIRR
Answer is hidden
Question 883 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a seller recovers his capital along with accumulated compensating interest not in one single lump-sum payment but in periodical equal payments, over time ............
Acapital recovery annuity is availed
Bpresent worth annuity is availed
Csinking fund annuity is availed
Dfuture worth annuity is availed
Answer is hidden
Question 884 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Depreciation is charged on ............
Afixed assets
Bcurrent assets
Cboth fixed and current assets
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 885 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following asset generally assumed not to depreciate?
AMachinery
BBuilding
CLand
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 886 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Under the diminishing balance method, the amount of depreciation is calculated on ............[cite: 15]
Athe written-down value of the asset
Bthe market value of the asset
Cthe original cost of the asset
Dthe expected realizable value of the asset
Answer is hidden
Question 887 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If the percentage fall in quantity demanded is more than the percentage rise in price charged, ............[cite: 15]
Athe revenue will rise
Bthe revenue will fall
Cis not related with discount rate
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 888 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The estimated value of depreciable assets after its useful life is called ............[cite: 15]
Aactual value
Breplacement value
Cdisposal (residual) value
Dcurrent value
Answer is hidden
Question 889 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If there is no inflation during a period, then the money cash flow would be equal to ............[cite: 15]
Apresent value
Breal cash flow
Creal cash flow + present value
Dreal cash flow - present value
Answer is hidden
Question 890 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the limit of annual income for an unmarried individual upto which only 1% income tax is levied?[cite: 15]
A5 lakhs
B6 lakhs
C5.5 lakhs
D7 lakhs
Answer is hidden
Question 891 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
IRR is calculated ............[cite: 15]
Awhen NPV is less than zero
Bwhen NPV more than zero
Cwhen NPV equal to 0
Dwhen NPV equal to MARR
Answer is hidden
Question 892 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time value of money is primarily related to .........[cite: 15]
Atime and money
Btime and interest
Cmoney and valise
Dinterest and inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 893 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Salvage value is defined as ............[cite: 15]
Avalue of dismantled materials at the end of its utility period
Bestimated value of a built-up property at the end of its useful life without being dismantled
Cvalue of the property shown in the account book in that particular year
Dpresent value of a property considering it to be replaced at the current market rates
Answer is hidden
Question 894 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The minimum value of benefit-cost ratio for the selection of any project should be ............[cite: 15]
Aless than one
Bone
Cgreater than one
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 895 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The benefit cost ratio is ............[cite: 15]
Adirectly proportional to discount rate
Binversely proportional to discount rate
Cno array relation with discount rate
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 896 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project contractor relies on the cost of the estimate ............[cite: 15]
Afor submission of a competitive bid for a lump-sum contract
Bfor a unit price contract
Cfor preparation of a definitive estimate to help negotiate contract
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 897 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Both architect and engineer make use of the cost estimate of the project ............[cite: 15]
Afor site selection
Bfor designing of the project
Cfor choosing alternatives
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 898 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The most unpredictable cost of a project is ............[cite: 15]
Aenvironment management cost
Bunderground construction cost
Ctransportation cost
Dsocial management cost
Answer is hidden
Question 899 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 900 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The more critical (or severe) test of the firm's liquidity can be judged by ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 901 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as ............[cite: 15]
Aliquidity ratio
Bcurrent ratio
Cacid-test (or quick) ratio
Ddebts ratio
Answer is hidden
Question 902 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The purchase value of assets over its serviceable life is categorized as ............[cite: 15]
Aappreciated liabilities
Bappreciated assets
Cdepreciation
Dappreciation
Answer is hidden
Question 903 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Excessive spending power of consumers that pulls prices up is called ............[cite: 15]
Ademand-pull inflation
Bcost-pull inflation
Ccost-push inflation
Dcost-push inflation
Answer is hidden
Question 904 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Book value means ............[cite: 15]
Aexpected sale price
Bcurrent market price if purchased now
Cvalue as shown in the books of account
Doriginal acquisition price
Answer is hidden
Question 905 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Pokhara Regional International Airport is an example of ............[cite: 13]
Aloan projects
Bgrant projects
Cprivate sector projects
Dprocess oriented projects
Answer is hidden
Question 906 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ............[cite: 13]
Aproject management
Bmanager life cycle
Cproject management life cycle
Dall of the mentioned
Answer is hidden
Question 907 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The type of projects in which investment in project is repaid by the government to donors agencies is called ............[cite: 13]
Aprivate sector projects
Bgovernment sector projects
Cgrant projects
Dloan projects
Answer is hidden
Question 908 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who typically offers financial resources to fund a project?[cite: 13]
ADonor
BSponsor
CProject manager
DStakeholder
Answer is hidden
Question 909 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If part of contract work is assigned to another party, it is called ............[cite: 13]
Asub-contracting
Bjoint venture
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 910 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a phase of project management?[cite: 13]
AProject planning
BProject scheduling
CProject controlling
DProject being
Answer is hidden
Question 911 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project scope statement furnishes the basis for ............[cite: 13]
Aa way to provide updated information to the accounting department
Bprovides links to the client's functional management groups
Callowing the project to move to the next phase
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 912 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The main principle of an organization, is ............[cite: 13]
Aunity of command and coherency
Beffective control at all level
Cdelegation of authority
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 913 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The main advantage of line organization is ............[cite: 13]
Aeffective command and control
Bdefined responsibilities at all levels
Cability to quick decision at all level
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 914 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Ensuring that performance meets established standards that worker's activities occur as planned and that the organization process is called ............[cite: 13]
Acontrolling
Bplanning
Cleading
Dorganizing
Answer is hidden
Question 915 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?[cite: 13]
AConceptual
BPlanning
CImplementation
DDesign
Answer is hidden
Question 916 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is the vehicle or method used to convey the message?[cite: 13]
ACommunicator
BMessage
CMedium
DRecipient
Answer is hidden
Question 917 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?[cite: 13]
ARed
BBlack
CBlue
DGreen
Answer is hidden
Question 918 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which method of project planning was invented first?[cite: 13]
ABar chart
BMilestone chart
CCPM
DPERT
Answer is hidden
Question 919 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CPM is based on ............[cite: 13]
Aprobabilistic
Bdeterministic
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dany of (a) or (b)
Answer is hidden
Question 920 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CPM is the ............[cite: 13]
Aactivity oriented
Bevent oriented
Ctarget oriented
Dtime oriented
Answer is hidden
Question 921 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is a critical path?[cite: 13]
AIt is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.
BIt is a mixture of all the paths
CIt is the longest path
DIt is the shortest path
Answer is hidden
Question 922 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?[cite: 13]
AA project is divided into various activities
BRequired time for each activity is established
CA sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 923 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When was CPM method introduced?[cite: 13]
A1880
B1900
C1957
D1958
Answer is hidden
Question 924 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 13 and the late finish time is 13. Which of the following statements is true?[cite: 13]
AThe early start is 6
BThe duration of the activity is 13
CThe slack of this activity is 13
DThe activity is on the critical path
Answer is hidden
Question 925 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known ............
Aevent
Bnode
Cconnector
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 926 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In an AOA (activity on arrow) diagram, what does the arrow represent?
Aevent
Bactivity
Cslack
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 927 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is true about dummy?
AIt doesn't consume resources
BIt doesn't have head and tail event
CIt can be added anywhere in the network
DIt simplifies the network
Answer is hidden
Question 928 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Dummy is used for ............
Agrammatical purpose
Blogical purpose
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 929 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
AThe life cycle phases
BThe logical order of tasks
CThe scope of the project
DProject costs
Answer is hidden
Question 930 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as ............
Asignificant cost
Binsignificant costs
Cdirect costs
Dindirect costs
Answer is hidden
Question 931 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project crashing is the method for ............
Ashortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
Badding resources at critical points
Cdoing technical analysis of the finished work for review
Dadding duration to each activity
Answer is hidden
Question 932 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as ............
Acrash time
Bnormal time
Coptimistic time
Dstandard time
Answer is hidden
Question 933 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is ............
Acrash time
Bbetween normal time and crash time
Coptimistic time
Dnormal time
Answer is hidden
Question 934 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
APERT
BCPM
CCMM
DBoth PERT and CPM
Answer is hidden
Question 935 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on ............
Aoptimistic time, pessimistic time and most likely time
Bpessimistic time, optional time, maximum time
Coptimistic time, efficient time, most likely time
Dminimax time, optimistic time and harmonic time
Answer is hidden
Question 936 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The full form of PERT is ............
Aprogram evaluation and rate technology
Bprogram evaluation and robot technique
Cprogram evaluation and robot technology
Dprogram evaluation and review technique
Answer is hidden
Question 937 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is PERT analysis based on?
AOptimistic time
BPessimistic time
CMost likely time
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 938 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method expected time (Te) is ............
ATo + Tp + 4Tm / 6
BTo + Tp + 2Tm / 6
CTo + 4Tp + Tm / 6
DTm + 4Tp + To / 6
Answer is hidden
Question 939 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If PERT network consists of 5 activities with standard deviation of 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. Then, the standard deviation of the entire project is ............
A255
B7
C√255
D49
Answer is hidden
Question 940 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as ............
Aexpected time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cpessimistic time estimate
Dthe most likely time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 941 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The relation between jobs of a particular type and various durations they have consumed completion is expressed by curve ............
Anormal distribution curve
Bfrequency distribution
Cdistribution curve
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 942 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 6, 8, 10 days, what are the expected time and standard deviation?
A8, 0.5
B8, 2
C6, 0.67
D8, 0.67
Answer is hidden
Question 943 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as ............
Athe most likely time estimate
Boptimistic time estimate
Cexpected time estimate
Dpessimistic time estimate
Answer is hidden
Question 944 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
ADeadlines exist
BIndependent activities
CToo many workers may be required
DCostly delay
Answer is hidden
Question 945 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which phase of the project most of the money and manpower are required?[cite: 14]
Ainitiation phase
Bplanning phase
Cexecution phase
Dclosing phase
Answer is hidden
Question 946 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which is the first stage in a project formulation?[cite: 14]
APlanning
BSetting objectives
CControlling
DEvaluating
Answer is hidden
Question 947 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following involves continuous betterment in planning and detailing with time?[cite: 14]
AProject enhancement
BProgressive elaboration
CProgressive rehabilitation
DContinuous improvement
Answer is hidden
Question 948 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
in resource levelling which of the following is constraint?[cite: 14]
ATime
BMoney
CResources
DBoth time and money
Answer is hidden
Question 949 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which term describes the utilization of resources in a project without altering the project duration?[cite: 14]
AResource smoothing
BResource leveling
CCritical path method
DFast tracking
Answer is hidden
Question 950 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Resource smoothing is ............[cite: 14]
Aan optimization and economical utilization of resources
Ban adjustment of resources without affecting project duration
Ca gradual increase in resources
Da gradual decrease in resources
Answer is hidden
Question 951 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cost variance (CV) is which of the following equations?[cite: 14]
ACV - BCWP - ACWP
BCV = BCWP - ACWP
CCV = BCWS
DBoth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 952 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as ............[cite: 14]
ABCWS
BEVA
CBAC
DCBSE
Answer is hidden
Question 953 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means ............[cite: 14]
Ayou are over budget
Byou are ahead of schedule
Cyou are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
Dyou are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned
Answer is hidden
Question 954 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means ............[cite: 14]
Aat this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
Bwhen the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
Cthe project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
Dthe project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested
Answer is hidden
Question 955 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Capital budgeting is ............[cite: 14]
Areversible
Bunimportant
Cirreversible
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 956 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In which of the following cases project is in better shape?[cite: 14]
ABoth CPI and SPI are less than 1
BWhen CPI is more than 1 and SPI is less than one
CWhen CPI is less than one and SPI is more than one
DWhen both CPI and SPI are more than one
Answer is hidden
Question 957 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The budgeted cost for all the activities in a project with the help of Earned Value Method is ............[cite: 14]
Aactual cost
Bbudget at completion
Cbudget for completion
Destimate at completion
Answer is hidden
Question 958 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?[cite: 14]
AThe process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
BDefinitive
COrder of magnitude
DConceptual
Answer is hidden
Question 959 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known ............[cite: 14]
Aevent flow scheduling technique
Bcritical ratio scheduling
Cslotting technique for scheduling
Dshort interval scheduling
Answer is hidden
Question 960 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The flow of information through MIS is ............[cite: 14]
Aneed dependent
Borganization dependent
Cinformation dependent
Dmanagement dependent
Answer is hidden
Question 961 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The information of MIS comes from the ............[cite: 14]
Ainternal source
Bexternal source
Cboth internal and external source
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 962 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is NOT an objective of MIS?[cite: 14]
AFacilitate the decisions-making process
BProvide requisite information at each level of management
CSupport decision-making
DRecruit people for system
Answer is hidden
Question 963 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The back bone of any organization is ............[cite: 14]
Ainformation
Bemployee
Cmanagement
Dcapital
Answer is hidden
Question 964 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Feasibility study determines ............[cite: 14]
Awhether the project is possible with resources
Bcomparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
Ccalculate the cost crashing each unit
Dadd duration to each unit
Answer is hidden
Question 965 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project management when does planning take place?
ABefore the project
BDuring the project execution
CAt the start of the project
DAfter the project
Answer is hidden
Question 966 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What process involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project?
APerforming qualitative risk analysis
BPlanning risk management
CPerforming quantitative risk analysis
DIdentifying risks
Answer is hidden
Question 967 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
ASpecification delays
BProduct competition
CTesting
DStaff turnover
Answer is hidden
Question 968 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk event graph is having following on X axis ............[cite: 15]
AGantt chart
Bwork break down structure
Cproject life cycle
Dsplitting
Answer is hidden
Question 969 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project performance consists of ............[cite: 15]
Atime
Bcost
Cquality
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 970 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For a financial institution the most important study of a project to be taken for risks management is ............[cite: 15]
Aappraisal
Benvironmental and social
Ctechnical
Dfinancial and economical
Answer is hidden
Question 971 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade offs as ............[cite: 15]
Atime, cost and performance
Bmoney, cost and return on investment
Cmen, materials and machines
Dtime, value and performance
Answer is hidden
Question 972 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of completion ............[cite: 15]
Aconceptualization
Bplanning
Cexecution
Destimation
Answer is hidden
Question 973 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
To be successful in a functional organization, the PM must rely on ............[cite: 15]
Areferent power
Bformal authority
Cinformal power structure
Dboth (a) and (c)
Answer is hidden
Question 974 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If employee does wrong in work, employer have to take responsibility of it, this is known ............[cite: 15]
Ajoint liability
Bvicarious liability
Cconcurrent liability
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 975 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with ............ equal to cut off period will be accepted.[cite: 15]
Amore than
Bless than
Cpositive
Dnegative
Answer is hidden
Question 976 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Real rate of return is equal to ............[cite: 15]
ANominal rate + Inflation rate
BNominal rate * Inflation rate
CNominal rate - Inflation rate
DNominal rate / Inflation rate
Answer is hidden
Question 977 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The most successful project manager usually ............[cite: 15]
Aworks their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project managers.
Bsupplementing that experience with formal education
Ccomes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing large projects.
Dis considered the technical expert of their field
Answer is hidden
Question 978 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a ............[cite: 15]
Aclient
Binvestor
Cproduction team
Dproject manager
Answer is hidden
Question 979 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Risk management is responsibility of the ............[cite: 15]
Acustomer
Binvestor
Cdeveloper
Dproject team
Answer is hidden
Question 980 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are examples of ............[cite: 15]
Astoring information
Bretrieving information
Ccommunication information
Dacquiring information
Answer is hidden
Question 981 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Outsourced projects are susceptible to conflicts as ............[cite: 15]
Apeople get less pay in these projects and work is more
Bmore work pressure and less time horizon
Cthese projects are away from home location
Dpeople are unaccustomed to working together and have different values
Answer is hidden
Question 982 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Conflict occurrence in projects is ............[cite: 15]
Aunavoidable
Bdepend on type of project
Cavoidable
Ddepends on culture
Answer is hidden
Question 983 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?[cite: 15]
ARisk planning
BRisk identification
CRisk monitoring
DRisk analysis
Answer is hidden
Question 984 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?[cite: 15]
AProduct risk
BProject risk
CBusiness risk
DProgramming risk
Answer is hidden
Question 985 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?[cite: 15]
APeople risks
BTechnology risks
CEstimation risks
DOrganizational risks
Answer is hidden
Question 986 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which risk is connected to the circumstance outside the project that may influence the scope of work and the performance of the organization?[cite: 15]
AOperational risk
BFinancial risk
CStrategic risk
DContextual risk
Answer is hidden
Question 987 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not the part of risk control?[cite: 15]
AExecution of the risk response-strategy
BMonitoring of triggering events
CInitiating contingency plans
DNot watching for new risks
Answer is hidden
Question 988 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?[cite: 15]
AAvoidance strategies
BMinimization strategies
CContingency plans
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 989 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When do you perform risk identification?[cite: 15]
AAt the beginning of a project
BDuring project planning
CDuring the whole lifetime of a project
DDuring project execution
Answer is hidden
Question 990 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project manager has the most authority in the ............ type of organization.[cite: 16]
Aproject expediter
Bmatrix
Cprojectized organization
Dfunctional
Answer is hidden
Question 991 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The successful project managers spend most of their time ............[cite: 16]
Aplanning with their personnel
Bplanning with the top management
Ccommunication with the project team
Dstudying project results
Answer is hidden
Question 992 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not project management goal?[cite: 16]
AKeeping overall costs within budget
BDelivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
CMaintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
DAvoiding customer complaints
Answer is hidden
Question 993 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the ............[cite: 16]
Afunctional manager
Bproject manager
Cdirector of project management
Dcustomer
Answer is hidden
Question 994 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Net present value of a machine is ............[cite: 16]
APV of cash inflows less cost of investment
BPV of cash inflows + cost of investment
CPV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
DPV of cash inflows less average cost of investment
Answer is hidden
Question 995 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Capital structure of a company related with ............[cite: 16]
Ashareholders' funds
Blong term debts, preference share capital and equity capital
Cdebentures and loans
Dtotal assets less liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 996 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A company that issues stocks and bonds to raise funds results in ............[cite: 16]
Adecrease in cash
Bincrease in cash
Cincrease in equity
Dincrease in liabilities
Answer is hidden
Question 997 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The bond issued without any collateral is called ............[cite: 16]
Apreference share
Bequity share
Cdebenture
Ddebt capital
Answer is hidden
Question 998 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Debenture is ............[cite: 16]
Aunsecured bond
Bbond without collateral
Csource of capital budgeting
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 999 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A debenture ............[cite: 16]
Ais a long-term loan
Bdoes not require security
Cis a short-term loan
Dreceives dividend payments
Answer is hidden
Question 1000 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is unsafe share?[cite: 16]
APreference shares
BPrimary shares
CDebentures
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1001 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The average cost incurred in supplying a particular benefit over the entire life time of the project is called ............[cite: 16]
Aproject cost
Baverage life cycle cost
Cmaintenance cost
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1002 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The profit of the company is shared in form of dividend but has no voting rights in ............[cite: 16]
Aequity share
BPreference share
Cordinary share
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1003 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Point out the false statements ............[cite: 16]
Aa firm can buy its own debentures and shares
Ba company can issue convertible debentures
Ctender assessment
Dcontract assessment
Answer is hidden
Question 1004 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If two parties enter into an agreement for performing or not performing any work, then it is known as ............[cite: 16]
Acontract
Btender
Cprocurement
Dadjudication
Answer is hidden
Question 1005 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The procurement of works, goods or services by the entity itself is called ............[cite: 16]
Aforce account
Bdirect procurement
Cseal quotation
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1006 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For the formation of user's committee, members are selected ............[cite: 16]
Aamong the people of whole district
Bamong the beneficiaries of the project
Cby nomination by the chief district officer of the district
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1007 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The project usually completed by user committee's are ............[cite: 16]
Alabor intensive projects
Bcapital intensive projects
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1008 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The projects can be carried out out by user committee with cost estimate upto ............[cite: 16]
A10 Millions
B20 Millions
C50 Millions
D500 Millions
Answer is hidden
Question 1009 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For procurement of works upto 2 million, buy which of the following method is to be considered?[cite: 16]
Asealed tender
Bby direct negotiation
Cby bidding
Dby direct labor or direct negotiation
Answer is hidden
Question 1010 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The bid validity period for bid having estimated cost upto 100 million is ............[cite: 17]
A45 days
B60 days
C90 days
D105 days
Answer is hidden
Question 1011 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In project management, what percentage of the total project cost is typically estimated for office management expenses?[cite: 17]
A2.5%
B4%
C10%
D12%
Answer is hidden
Question 1012 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal Government handed over the fast-track project to Nepal Army. After handing in, what type of contract was it?[cite: 17]
ABOT
BBOOT
Cbuild and design
Dbuild, design, procurement, subcontracting and all works
Answer is hidden
Question 1013 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The relation between contract and agreement is ............[cite: 17]
Asynonym
Baptonym
Call contract are agreement but all agreement are not contract
Dall agreement are contract but not all contract are agreement
Answer is hidden
Question 1014 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The ultimate method of resolving any dispute with a contractor is ............[cite: 17]
Anegotiation
Bmediation
Carbitration
Dlitigation
Answer is hidden
Question 1015 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The damages caused due to delay in work are termed as ............[cite: 17]
Aliquidated damage
Bunliquidated damage
Cdirect damages
Dtangible damages
Answer is hidden
Question 1016 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Technical proposal during tendering is included in ............[cite: 17]
Asingle stage single envelope system
Bsingle stage double envelope system
Cdouble stage single envelope system
Ddouble stage double envelope system
Answer is hidden
Question 1017 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The aim of ............ is to do whatever possible to avoid any kind of harm or accident.[cite: 13]
Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1018 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
It is important to be at work ............ every day and on time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.[cite: 13]
Aappearance
Battendance
Cattitude
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1019 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ is the rules and standards that govern the decisions and actions of an engineer as a professional.[cite: 13]
ADoctor in Ethics
BDoctor in Ethics
CEthics
DEngineering Ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1020 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ can help engineers make correct decisions and become better professionals.[cite: 13]
AStudy of English
BStudy of Math
CStudy of Ethics
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1021 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
One of the most important issues faced by the world is that ............[cite: 13]
Acomputer ethics
Bconfidentiality
Cenvironmental deterioration
Dconflict of interest
Answer is hidden
Question 1022 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The prime responsibility of any professional is ............[cite: 13]
Aconfidentiality
Bconflict of interest
Cenvironmental ethics
Dcomputer ethics
Answer is hidden
Question 1023 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one does fall under computer ethics?[cite: 13]
AComputers can be used for robbery, crime and blackmailing others
BHacking is used to access private information
CLeak of such information of individual leads to harassments in terms of repeated phone calls
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1024 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Fundamental principle of professional engineering ethics is ............[cite: 13]
Auploading and advancing engineering profession
Bmaintain high level of ethical conduct
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1025 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineering profession needs cooperation with the profession of ............[cite: 13]
Amedical professional
Baccountant
Clawyer
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1026 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Professionalism of engineers is lost due to ............[cite: 13]
Ahonesty
Bdignity
Cbribery
Ddiscipline
Answer is hidden
Question 1027 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For the fulfillment of his/her professional duties engineer should ............[cite: 13]
Aparamount the health of the public
Bparamount the safety of the public
Cwelfare of the public
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1028 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineer shall act in such a manner as to uphold and enhance the honor and dignity of engineering profession and shall act with ............ for bribery, fraud and corruption.[cite: 13]
Atolerance
Ba penchant
Ca predilection
Dzero tolerance
Answer is hidden
Question 1029 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers shall build their professional reputation on the ............ of their services and shall not compete unfairly with others.[cite: 13]
Apublicity
Bbasis
Cmerit
Dreputation
Answer is hidden
Question 1030 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers shall not disclose, without ............ confidential information coming the business affairs of technical process of any present or former or employer, or public body on which they serve.[cite: 13]
Aediting
Bgetting paid
Cremuneration
Dconsent
Answer is hidden
Question 1031 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a profession?[cite: 13]
Ait enjoys a high level of public trust and confidence
Bit is organized into associations
Cthere are published authoritative performance and ethical standards
DAll of the above are characteristics of a profession
Answer is hidden
Question 1032 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
............ skills such as writing, speaking and body language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your messages to others.[cite: 13]
ACommunication
BCooperation
CHonesty
DIntegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1033 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
You are a person with a high level of ............ if you stand by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is wrong or if they make fun of you.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1034 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you don't have ............ you can really get in trouble for lying, cheating or deceiving others.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Bcooperation
Chonesty
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1035 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you have ............ you will be a trusted person because they will see that you are committed to your company.[cite: 13]
Acommunication
Borganizational skills
Cloyalty
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1036 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following an engineer should not follow?[cite: 13]
AAct as faithful agent for client
BAccept compensation from more than one party for same service without the consent of all
CIndicate client the adverse consequences if judgment is over ruled
DUndertake only these assignments for which he is qualified
Answer is hidden
Question 1037 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
is based on personal belief, values and individual's conscience rather than reasoning.[cite: 13]
AMoral
BEthics
CBoth (a) and (b)
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1038 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then you have great ............[cite: 13]
Aproductivity
Bcooperate
Corganizational skills
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1039 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
It is always important to ............ yourself, others and the place where you work because you don't always agree with them.[cite: 13]
Aappearance
Bcooperate
Ccommunicate
Drespect
Answer is hidden
Question 1040 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Some jobs cannot be done alone and some can be done much better and faster if you possess the quality of ............[cite: 13]
Ahonesty
Bcooperation
Cteamwork
Dintegrity
Answer is hidden
Question 1041 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Strong ............ means you have a high sense of moral and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.[cite: 13]
Aresponsibility
Brespect
Cconfidence
Dcharacter
Answer is hidden
Question 1042 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called ............[cite: 13]
Alocus of control
Battitude
Cego strength
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1043 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In ............ a professional assumes full responsibilities and if anything wrong happens he/she sees their own responsibility.[cite: 13]
Aminimalist
Breasonable care
Cbeyond one's duty
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1044 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
moves beyond the minimal view's concern.[cite: 13]
AMinimalist
BBeyond one's duty
CReasonable care
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1045 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not concerned with the authority of engineers?[cite: 14]
AExpress an opinion on engineering matter
BGood behavior with client
CConscious with his profession
DDivulge the confidential matter
Answer is hidden
Question 1046 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not considered a professional quality of an engineer?[cite: 14]
AGood behavior with clients
BHonesty
CBias towards political parties
DStrong technical skills
Answer is hidden
Question 1047 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]
AAir pollution
BSoil pollution
CSoil erosion
DWater pollution
Answer is hidden
Question 1048 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The environment which has been modified by human activities is called ............[cite: 14]
Anatural environment
Banthropogenic environment
Cmodern environment
Durban environment
Answer is hidden
Question 1049 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Is the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.[cite: 14]
APollution
BDegradation
CDeforestation
DClimate change
Answer is hidden
Question 1050 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.[cite: 14]
ASustainable development
BHuman development
CEconomic development
DSocial development
Answer is hidden
Question 1051 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to labor act, employers must conduct periodic health and safety inspections and maintain records of these inspections.[cite: 14]
AAt least once in a year
BAt least twice in a year
CAt least thrice in a year
DAt least 4 times in a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1052 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to Labor Act, the remuneration for over time is ............[cite: 14]
A2 times the regular pay
B1.75 times the regular pay
C1.5 times the regular pay
D1.25 times the regular pay
Answer is hidden
Question 1053 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The government of Nepal has enforced concepts of occupational safety and health through its ............[cite: 14]
ALabor Act 1992
BLabor Act 1994
CLabor Act 1995
DLabor Act 1995
Answer is hidden
Question 1054 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Engineers day is celebrated on ............[cite: 14]
AShrawan 3
BShrawan 4
CAsar 3
DAsar 4
Answer is hidden
Question 1055 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per labor law, workers are not allowed to work continuously for more than ............[cite: 14]
A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1056 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
According to labors act, the maximum working hour for a labor per week should be ............[cite: 14]
A42 hrs
B45 hrs
C48 hrs
D53 hrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1057 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
As per labor law, how many hours workers are allowed to work in a day?[cite: 14]
A3 hours
B5 hours
C8 hours
D12 hours
Answer is hidden
Question 1058 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineer's association is ............[cite: 14]
Agovernment body to support NEC
Bindependent organization of Nepalese engineers
Cprivate body which works for betterment of engineers
Dnon-government organization
Answer is hidden
Question 1059 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineers association was established in ............ B.S.[cite: 14]
A2010
B2019
C2024
D2034
Answer is hidden
Question 1060 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is registered under the ............[cite: 14]
ASocial Service Act
BNEC Act
CCivil Service Act
DCo-operatives Act
Answer is hidden
Question 1061 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The objectives of NEA are ............[cite: 14]
ATo promote development of the engineering science and technology in Nepal.
BTo promote fellowship goodwill and cooperation assistance among the Nepalese engineers and safeguard their rights and interests.
CBy utilizing, to the highest extent possible, the participation of the positional of the national engineering manpower of the country in the national development activities of Nepal, make effort towards ending foreign dependency in this regard
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1062 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is governed by an elected executive council of ............ members.[cite: 14]
A25
B18
C21
D17
Answer is hidden
Question 1063 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of executive members in NEA's Provincial committee is ............[cite: 14]
A25 and 15
B21 and 15
C15 and 25
D25 and 16
Answer is hidden
Question 1064 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of member directly elected for council from Nepal engineering association ............[cite: 14]
A7
B21
C25
D10
Answer is hidden
Question 1065 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The types of membership issued by NEA are ............[cite: 14]
Ageneral membership
Blife time membership
Cboth of the above
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1066 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEA is ............ of Nepalese engineers.[cite: 14]
Aindependent nonprofit organization
Bprofitable organization
Cbroker organization
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1067 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which is not a professional engineering body?[cite: 14]
ANepal Engineering Association (NEA)
BSociety of Electrical and Electronics Engineers Association (SEEN)
CSociety of Public Health Engineers Nepal (SOPHEN)
DSociety of Consulting Architectural and Engineering Firms (SCAEF)
Answer is hidden
Question 1068 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
CAAN, NEC, NTA, etc. are examples of ............[cite: 14]
Aregulatory body
Bcommercial sectors
CNGOs
DINGOs
Answer is hidden
Question 1069 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How many categories of NEA memberships are there?[cite: 14]
A4
B5
C7
D2
Answer is hidden
Question 1070 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the tenure of an executive member of NEA?[cite: 14]
A4 year
B2-year
C3 year
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1071 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal engineering council is an autonomous in under NEC act ............
A2056 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2054 B.S.
D2060 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1072 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Nepal Engineering Council [NEC] is ............
Agovernment and autonomous body
Bprivate body
Cnon-profit organization
Dgovernment body
Answer is hidden
Question 1073 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following is not the function of NEC?
APrepare and implement the policy, plan and programmes
BRecognize the academic institutions
COpening the college
DTo prescribe the basic conditions of student admission
Answer is hidden
Question 1074 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which one is not concerned with the NEC?
AAccreditation of academic certificate
BAppointment of teacher
CAuthority of opening engineering garage
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1075 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
When was Nepal engineering council established?
A2054 B.S.
B2055 B.S.
C2056 B.S.
D2057 B.S.
Answer is hidden
Question 1076 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC contacts the GoN through ministry of ............
Afinance
Bphysical infrastructure and transportation
Chome affairs
Dlocal development
Answer is hidden
Question 1077 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The decisions of NEC are authenticated by ............
Apresident
Bvice president
Cregistrar
Dmember nominated by president
Answer is hidden
Question 1078 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC does not approach for ............
Aengineer
Boverseer to engineer
Cminimum degree BE
Dall of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1079 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The number of section in NEC act 2055 is ............
A18
B28
C38
D48
Answer is hidden
Question 1080 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The academic qualification of the chief of NEC is ............
Amaster's degree in engineering
Bmaster's degree in economics
Cmaster's degree in finance
Dbachelor's degree in engineering in engineering
Answer is hidden
Question 1081 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The general experience required for nomination of chairperson of NEC is ............
A10 yrs
B15 yrs
C20 yrs
D25 yrs
Answer is hidden
Question 1082 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the requirement for being chairman of NEC?
ABachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
BBachelor Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
CMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 15 years
DMaster Degree and Engineering experience of 10 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1083 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who appoints the chairman of NEC?
AThe Government of Nepal
BThe President of Nepal
CMinistry of home affairs
DThe supreme court
Answer is hidden
Question 1084 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Who is the first president of NEC?
AEr. Shiv Mangal Giri
BProf. Dr. Padam Bahadur Shahi
CEr. Ram Babusharma
DNone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1085 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
What is the minimum qualification of vice president of the NEC?
AMasters in Engineering and 15 years' experience
BBachelors in Engineering and 15 years' experience
CMasters in Engineering and 10 years experience
DBachelors in Engineering and 10 years experience
Answer is hidden
Question 1086 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
An American engineer willing to work in Nepal may apply for registration under ............[cite: 16]
ACategory A
BCategory B
CCategory C
DCategory D
Answer is hidden
Question 1087 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following category of engineer is not mention in engineering council rule?[cite: 16]
ACharted engineer
BProfessional engineer
CGeneral engineer
DAll of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1088 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Book of foreign engineers is maintained in ............[cite: 16]
ANepali
BEnglish
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1089 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC publishes the name of registered engineers each year as well as every fourth year. The name of foreigner engineers publishes ............[cite: 16]
Aeach year
Bevery fourth year
Cboth (a) and (b)
Dnone of the above
Answer is hidden
Question 1090 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
NEC has classified an engineers in to ............ categories.[cite: 16]
A2
B3
C4
D5
Answer is hidden
Question 1091 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Registration charge of general engineers for students studied in foreign universities is ............[cite: 16]
ARs. 3000
BRs. 4000
CRs. 10000
DRs. 15000
Answer is hidden
Question 1092 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Total number of registration category of engineer in NEC is ............[cite: 16]
A3
B4
C5
D6
Answer is hidden
Question 1093 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The min qualification required for engineer practices in Nepal is ............[cite: 16]
ABE
BBE + register in NEC
CME
DME + register in NEC
Answer is hidden
Question 1094 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The interval of surveillance of colleges registered under NEC is ............[cite: 16]
Aevery 2 years
Bonce in every 3 years
Ctwice in 4 years
Dthrice in every 5 years
Answer is hidden
Question 1095 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
In general, Nepal engineering council meeting per year should be held ............[cite: 16]
A2 times
B3 times
C4 times
D5 times
Answer is hidden
Question 1096 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Minimum .......... of the members should be present in a meeting to fulfil the quorum of NEC.[cite: 16]
A0.25
B0.5
C0.75
D1
Answer is hidden
Question 1097 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
If a motion submitted to a meeting of council to remove the name from the book on charge of violating professional code of conduct is passed by ............ majority of council, the name of the engineer is removed from the book.[cite: 16]
Atwo third
Bgeneral
Cthree - fourth
Dfull
Answer is hidden
Question 1098 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
Which of the following reasons caused desolution of NEC by GON?[cite: 16]
ACommittee of NEC work against the act and regulations
B50% of the member are bankrupt
CCollege recognition is given without fulfilling the criteria of NEC regulations
DFormation of new government of Nepal
Answer is hidden
Question 1099 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
The minimum time period allocated by GoN for formation of new council after the dissolution of current NEC like is ............[cite: 16]
A3 months
B6 months
C9 months
D1 year
Answer is hidden
Question 1100 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For temporary affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]
Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1101 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
For permanent affiliation, the supervision of college conducted by NEC for ............[cite: 16]
Aone time in a year
Bonce in two year
Ctwice times in a year
Dthree times a year
Answer is hidden
Question 1102 of 1122Ch 10 · Project Planning, Design and Implementation
How much % college should score at least in average to get permanent affiliation for new college from NEC?[cite: 16]